Mononucleosis related to myocarditis.
Etiology
Finding

Answers

Answer 1

Mononucleosis, also known as the "kissing disease," is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. It is commonly transmitted through saliva and affects mostly young adults and teenagers.

While it is generally considered a self-limited illness with symptoms such as fever, sore throat, and fatigue, there have been reported cases of severe complications such as myocarditis. Myocarditis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the heart muscle, which can lead to a weakened heart and potentially life-threatening complications. It can be caused by various factors, including viral infections such as mononucleosis. The exact mechanism by which mononucleosis can cause myocarditis is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the body's immune response to the viral infection. The immune system may mistakenly attack the heart muscle, leading to inflammation and damage. While myocarditis is a rare complication of mononucleosis, it is important to be aware of the potential risks and to seek medical attention if symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or heart palpitations develop. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent further complications.

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Related Questions

The clinical effectiveness of typical antipsychotic drugs is positively correlated with the degree to which they bind to?
- dopamine.
- glutamate receptors.
- D1 receptors.
- D2 receptors.
- autoreceptors.

Answers

The clinical effectiveness of typical antipsychotic drugs is positively correlated with the degree to which they bind to D2 receptors.

Most common antipsychotic medications, sometimes also referred to as first-generation antipsychotics, work therapeutically by naturally obstructing dopamine D2 receptors in human brain. In order to reduce excessive dopamine indicating that is regarded to be a contributing component in the emergence of psychotic symptoms including delusions and hallucinations, these receptors are inhibited.

A drug's affinity for dopamine D2 receptors is the lone factor that best predicts its ability to act as an antipsychotic. Although dopamine D2 receptor antagonism is frequently mentioned as a contributing element to the clinical effectiveness of well-known antipsychotic medications, it is not their exclusive mode of action. The way these drugs combine with other receptors in the body such as serotonin receptors, may also have an effect on how they function altogether.

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in aortic rupture
Why is it happening in it hypotension lower extrimmtes ?
Why is it happening in it hypertension in Upper extremities ?​

Answers

Answer:

Es una afección grave en la cual hay una ruptura en la pared de la arteria principal que transporta la sangre fuera del corazón (la aorta). A medida que la ruptura se extiende a lo largo de la pared de la aorta, la sangre puede correr por entre las capas de la pared del vaso sanguíneo (disección).

Explanation:

In public health nursing, collaborative partnerships are essential. Which item below describes the essence of this process?

Question 31 options:
a) Letting only experts complete planning phases
b) An alliance of individuals and organizations
c) Organizations having their own purpose
d) Focusing on the individual

Answers

The essence of collaborative partnerships in public health nursing is described by option b) An alliance of individuals and organizations.

In public health nursing, collaborative partnerships are essential. The item that best describes the essence of this process is b) An alliance of individuals and organizations. This means that individuals and organizations come together to work towards a common goal of improving public health.  collaborative partnerships involve sharing resources, and expertise, and working together to address health issues in the community. Collaboration allows for a more comprehensive approach to addressing public health problems and can lead to more effective and sustainable solutions.

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excerise 1 arson investigation what flammable liquid/accelerant was used at the arson site?

Answers

The arson investigation involves determining the root cause of the fire by examining the scene, debris, and the affected area. Arson investigators examine the site, debris, and surrounding areas to gather evidence, which is then sent to the laboratory for testing and analysis.

The determination of whether the fire was intentionally set or an accident is made after all of the evidence is considered.There are several types of accelerants that can be used to start a fire. Gasoline, kerosene, diesel fuel, and oil are examples of flammable liquids used in arson cases. Investigators are trained to identify common signs of arson, such as the use of an accelerant. In some cases, the ignitable liquid is still present in the debris, and investigators can test samples from the debris to identify the type of accelerant that was used. The use of accelerants can create a pattern that can help identify where the fire started and how it spread.

In arson investigations, identifying the accelerant used to start the fire is critical. Accelerants are chemicals used to start or spread a fire, and they can be solids, liquids, or gases. An accelerant will burn more readily and hotter than ordinary materials. These can be identified by observing the debris from the fire. The presence of liquid accelerants, such as gasoline, kerosene, and diesel, can be detected by an experienced investigator by looking for specific patterns in the debris.

Gasoline is one of the most commonly used accelerants in arson cases because of its availability and ease of use. In arson cases, the presence of an accelerant is a strong indication that the fire was set intentionally.In conclusion, the use of accelerants in arson cases is common. Arson investigators are trained to look for evidence of accelerants in the debris of the fire to identify the cause of the fire. The use of accelerants creates patterns that can help investigators determine where the fire started and how it spread.

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Explain the difference between Substance Abuse, Addiction and Depression in adults and adolescents.

Answers

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an oncologist ordered 5FU 12 mg/kg IV qd x 4 d for a 180 # man. 5FU is available in 10 mL vials with a concentration of 50 mg/mL. How many mL will the patient need per dose

Answers

Answer: The answer to the question is

19.6 ml

Explanation:

Patient of weight = 180 pounds

converting to Kg;

= 180/2.2= 81.81 kg approximately

The ordered dose= 12 mg /kg

In mg, it will be;

= 12mg× 81.81 kg= 981.72mg

The available dose= 50mg

and

The available volume= 1 ml

The required dose = ( the ordered dose/ the available dose) × the available volume

Imputing the values given,we have;

=( 981.72mg/50mg)× 1ml

which is;

= 19.63 ml

and that is approximately 19.6ml to be administered.

A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance to a client for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (1) place the wasted portion of the controlled substance in the sharps container. (2) Verify the count total of the controlled substance after removing the amount needed. (3) Ask a second nurse to record her signature when wasting any unused portion of the controlled substance (4) report any discrepancy in the count total of the controlled substance after administration

Answers

The nurse should take the action is to report any discrepancy in the count total of the controlled substance after administration.

Option 4 is correct.

When administering a controlled substance for pain management, it is essential for the nurse to follow appropriate protocols and safety measures. Let's review each option:

(1) Placing the wasted portion of the controlled substance in the sharps container: This action is incorrect. The wasted portion of a controlled substance should not be disposed of in a sharps container.

(2) Verifying the count total of the controlled substance after removing the amount needed: While it is important to maintain accurate counts of controlled substances, this action specifically states verifying the count after removing the amount needed.

(3) Asking a second nurse to record her signature when wasting any unused portion of the controlled substance: While having a second nurse witness and sign the documentation during the wasting of any unused portion of a controlled substance is a good practice for accountability.

(4) Reporting any discrepancy in the count total of the controlled substance after administration: This action is crucial and appropriate. It is important for the nurse to report any discrepancies in the count total of the controlled substance after administration. This helps identify potential errors, ensures accurate documentation, and maintains accountability.

Therefore, the main answer is (4).

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which statement indicates appropriate nursing intervention for a client with post-polio syndrome?

Answers

An appropriate nursing intervention for a client with post-polio syndrome would be to focus on managing symptoms, promoting independence, and maintaining functional abilities.

Here are some potential nursing interventions:

Assess and monitor the client's respiratory function regularly, as respiratory muscle weakness can occur in post-polio syndrome. Implement interventions such as deep breathing exercises and use of assistive devices if necessary.

Collaborate with the physical therapist to develop an individualized exercise program that focuses on maintaining muscle strength and flexibility. This may include low-impact exercises, stretching, and gentle resistance training.

Provide education on energy conservation techniques and pacing strategies to help the client manage fatigue. Encourage rest periods throughout the day and prioritize activities based on importance and energy levels.

Assist the client in obtaining appropriate assistive devices, such as mobility aids or orthotic devices, to enhance mobility and reduce the risk of falls. Ensure proper fitting and provide training on safe and effective use.

Collaborate with occupational therapists to assess the client's functional abilities and provide recommendations for adaptive equipment or modifications to promote independence in activities of daily living.

Offer emotional support and counseling to help the client cope with the physical and emotional challenges of living with post-polio syndrome. Encourage participation in support groups and provide resources for additional support.

Monitor for signs of pain and implement pain management strategies as needed. This may include the use of heat or cold therapy, gentle massage, and pharmacological interventions as prescribed.

It's important for nursing interventions to be individualized based on the client's specific needs and preferences. Collaborating with a multidisciplinary team, including physicians,

physical and occupational therapists, and other healthcare professionals, can help provide comprehensive care for clients with post-polio syndrome.

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a nurse plans care for a client with acute pancreatitis. which priority intervention will the nurse include in this clients plan of care?

Answers

Probably slow Dab on the dude :)

a nurse is teaching a pt about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer, what statement should the nurse include in the teaching

Answers

Answer:

you should avoid eating red meat prior to testing

Explanation:

A fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) is a cost-effective, non-invasive method for colon cancer screening, which can be used in asymptomatic patients. The FOBT test is used to identify hidden blood in stool samples, which may be indicative of colon cancer and the presence of polyps in the colon/rectum. It has been shown that screening by FOBT can significantly reduce mortality from colorectal cancer. Two days before the FOBT test, it is imperative to avoid red meats and other foods (e.g., beets, carrots, cauliflower, cucumbers, grapefruit, broccoli, cantaloupe, etc), which might lead to false alarms.

What are the differences between Exogenous, Systemic, and Health Care-Associated infections?

Answers

Exogenous infections are caused by pathogens acquired from the external environment, while systemic infections spread throughout the entire body. Healthcare-associated infections are acquired in medical settings, such as hospitals, due to exposure to pathogens during treatment or procedures.

Exogenous, systemic, and healthcare-associated infections are distinct categories based on different factors and contexts.

Exogenous infections: Exogenous infections originate from external sources. They are caused by pathogens that enter the body from the environment or other individuals.

Common examples include respiratory infections transmitted through the air, foodborne illnesses, or infections acquired through contact with contaminated surfaces. Exogenous infections typically occur when the immune system fails to prevent the entry or proliferation of pathogens.

Systemic infections: Systemic infections are characterized by the spread of pathogens throughout the body via the bloodstream or lymphatic system. These infections can affect multiple organs and tissues, leading to severe illness.

Examples include sepsis, where bacteria or fungi cause a systemic inflammatory response, and viral infections like HIV or influenza that can disseminate widely. Systemic infections often pose a greater risk to overall health and can result in life-threatening complications.

Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs): HAIs occur in healthcare settings, such as hospitals, clinics, or long-term care facilities. These infections are specifically linked to receiving medical care and can be caused by healthcare procedures, contaminated equipment, or exposure to healthcare personnel or other patients with infectious agents.

HAIs can include surgical site infections, urinary tract infections, bloodstream infections, and pneumonia contracted during hospital stays. Preventing HAIs is a critical focus in healthcare to minimize patient risk and ensure safety.

In summary, exogenous infections originate from external sources, systemic infections spread throughout the body, and healthcare-associated infections occur in healthcare settings as a result of medical care. Understanding these distinctions helps in identifying the sources, routes of transmission, and appropriate prevention strategies for each type of infection.

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Why are there ethical issues surrounding end-of-
life care?
because patients have the right to refuse end-
of-life care
because patients do not have the right to
make end-of-life decisions
because patients have the right to accept life
support
because sometimes patients cannot make
decisions for themselves

Answers

Answer:

because sometimes patients cannot make decisions for themselves.

Explanation:

Answer:

A,C,D

Explanation:

on edg2020

The physician has ordered diphenhydramine 25 mg. On hand you have liquid that contains 50 mg/10 mL. How many mL will you give?

Answers

Answer:

The physician has ordered diphenhydramine 50 mg bid. On hand you have 25 mg capsules. How many will you give for each dose? The physician has ordered Bicillin 600 000 units IM On hand you have a prefilled cartridge that contains 1 200 000 units/2 mL. How many mL will you inject? The physician has ordered Pen-Vee K 250 mg qid. You have 250 mg tablets How many tablets will be given for one day? The physician has ordered diphenhydramine 25 mg. On hand you have liquid that contains 50 mg/10 ml How many mL will you

When an action potential abides by the all-or-nothing principle, once it reaches its threshold it moves all the way down the axon

Multiple choice question.

slowly losing half of its intensity.


losing its intensity before gaining it again.


immediately increasing in intensity.


without losing any of its intensity.

Answers

When an action potential abides by the all-or-nothing principle, it reaches

its threshold and moves all the way down the axon without losing any of its

intensity.

What is Action potential?

This is defined as the change in electrical potential as a result of the

passage of an impulse along the membrane of a muscle cell or nerve cell.

The all-or-nothing principle indicates that there will be a full or no

response at all. This means that the axon won't lose any of its intensity

because the strength of the response of a nerve cell or muscle fiber is not

dependent upon the strength of the stimulus

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1 Which of the following government agencies is responsible for requiring the use of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) in the workplace?

Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)​

Answers

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answer: B

Explanation: Right

Where an etiology and manifestation combination of codes exists, the ICD-10-CM tabular list etiology code contains a __________ note and the manifestation code contains a __________ note.

Answers

Where an etiology and manifestation combination of codes exists, the ICD-10-CM tabular list etiology code contains a "Use additional code" note, and the manifestation code contains an "Includes" note.

The "Use additional code" note accompanying the etiology code indicates that additional codes should be assigned to provide further specificity or detail about the underlying cause or condition. This is necessary to capture the complete clinical picture. On the other hand, the "Includes" note accompanying the manifestation code indicates that the listed code includes the specific manifestation being reported. This note helps ensure accurate coding and facilitates the appropriate classification of the manifestation. These notes help coders accurately assign codes and capture the necessary information to reflect the relationship between the etiology and manifestation of a condition.

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Value: 1
When caring for a resident, it is best to avoid the use of restraints whenever possible. If a restraint is ordered and
must be used, which practice is not recommended?
O a. Observe the resident frequently.
O b. Maintain a calm environment.
O c. Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect.
O d. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident.

Answers

The weird option that sounds is the statement number 4. Option 4 is the correct answer.

What is the best thing that is done in this situation ?

In this situation the best things that is done to keep calm and handle the situation peacefully.

Observe the resident again and again to check the response that is given by the body so that a problem has not occured in the fractions of the time. Maintaining a calm and peaceful environment is very important as the haste makes up the waste.

Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect to avoid any kind of panic situations that can happen.  Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident sounds wrong because it is not wise to directly experiment without having much of the ideas.

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A client is receiving aspirin. Which statement made by the client needs follow-up?
A. "I can take Ginkgo biloba with aspirin."
B. "I need to report if I have black stool."
C. "I need to report loss of hearing in my ears."
D. "I'll take the medication after a meal."

Answers

The statement made by the client that needs follow-up is "I can take Ginkgo biloba with aspirin," option A is correct.

Ginkgo biloba is an herbal supplement that can interact with various medications, including aspirin. It has been associated with an increased risk of bleeding when taken together with aspirin, which can be dangerous. Therefore, it is crucial to clarify whether the client has been advised by a healthcare professional to take Ginkgo biloba while on aspirin.

The client should be informed about potential drug interactions and advised to consult with their healthcare provider before combining the two medications. This ensures their safety and reduces the risk of adverse effects. Prompt follow-up is necessary to provide appropriate guidance and prevent potential complications, option A is correct.

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idk how to do this g:(((

idk how to do this g:(((

Answers

Answer:

Body's health is normal if the vital signs comes in the range.

Explanation:

If my vital sign data comes between in the range, so we can conclude that my body's health is good and is able to perform normal functions. If the pulse rate, respiration rate, temperature and blood pressure readings go lower from the minimum range and goes higher from the maximum range so it means that there is something not right in my body which disturbs the homeostasis of my body.

Rapid growth of the head may indicate ________.
Select one:
a. hydrocephalus
b. encephaly
c. macroencephaly
d. microencephaly

Answers

Answer:

A. Hydro meaning fluid or water. therefore having fluid on the brain is hydrocephalus and the person would have a larger than normal cranium.

A. Would be Hydrocephalus I’m pretty sure

How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud ​

Answers

Explanation:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.

Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)

Answer:

John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.

Explanation:

set as brainliest

Edyn is preparing for an athletic competition at her high school. She wants to do well in the competition. She will have two weeks to prepare.Explain how each of the following might hinder Edyn from preparing for the athletic competition.

Answers

The following factors might hinder Edyn from preparing for the athletic competition: Stress from academics and other commitments Inadequate sleep Inadequate nutrition

Edyn's main focus should be preparing for the athletic competition since she wants to do well in it. However, several factors may hinder her preparation process. Below are some of these factors:Stress from academics and other commitments: Edyn might have other commitments such as academic work that could hinder her preparation. For example, if she has several assignments to complete, she might be forced to dedicate her time to academic work, which would limit her preparation time.

Inadequate sleep: Edyn might not be able to get adequate sleep since she has to dedicate time to preparing for the athletic competition. This could result in her being tired, which would affect her athletic performance. Adequate sleep is essential since it helps the body rest and recover from the strain of training.

Inadequate nutrition: Adequate nutrition is essential for anyone who engages in physical activity. If Edyn doesn't get adequate nutrition, she might become weak and unable to perform at her best during the competition. Furthermore, inadequate nutrition could lead to health problems, which would further hinder her preparation process.

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he recommended adult dose of Elixophyllin, a drug used to treat asthma, is 6.00 mg/kg of body mass. Calculate the dose in milligrams for a 154-lb person. (1lb

Answers

Considering 1 kg is equal to 2.205 (commonly multipled or divided as 2.2), the presciption dose would be 420mg.

if an inmate claims to be on a specific medication, what should be checked with the inmate's physician? (9.1.5)

Answers

Check the accuracy of the inmate's claim by contacting the inmate's physician to verify the medication information.

When an inmate claims to be on a specific medication, it is crucial to verify the accuracy of their statement to ensure proper medical care and treatment. The nurse or healthcare provider should reach out to the inmate's physician to confirm the medication information.

Verifying the medication details with the inmate's physician is essential for several reasons. Firstly, it ensures that the medical claim is accurate, as inmates may sometimes provide incorrect or outdated information. It also allows the healthcare provider to confirm the prescribed dosage, frequency, and any specific instructions or precautions associated with the medication.

Additionally, contacting the inmate's physician helps establish a collaborative relationship between the healthcare provider and the prescribing doctor.

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When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes that the skin is dry, pale, hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth?a. First-degree skin destructionb. Full-thickness skin destructionc. Deep partial-thickness skin destructiond. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction

Answers

Answer: full-thickness skin destruction

Explanation:

The patient underwent a single-contrast upper GI series on Tuesday. The request form noted severe esophageal burning daily for the past six weeks. The radiology impression was Barrett's esophagus.

Day of Encounter:

Diagnosis Code:

Procedure Code:

Answers

Answer:

In a patient underwent a single contrast upper GI series on Tuesday due to severe daily esophageal burning for six weeks, whose radiological diagnostic impression was Barrett's esophagus.

Day of encounter: Tuesday Diagnosis Code: K 22.7 (CIE-10 code for Barrett's Esophagus) Procedure Code: 74240

Explanation:

Barrett's esophagus is a clinical condition characterized by a change in the esophageal epithelium due to repeated exposure to gastric juices, by reflux, or other mucosal irritants.

Corrosive agents are considered to produce a change in the epithelium called metaplasia, associated with symptoms of esophageal burning and pain.

The ICD-10 code for Barrett's esophagus is K 22.7.

The procedure, which consists of a radiological examination of the upper digestive tract with the use of barium contrast has a code of 74240, which describes this type of radiological examination.

A SART examiner is also trained to
gather biological evidence that may identify the perpetrator
make accurate records regarding the crime
talk to the police about the crime
compassionately comfort the victim

Answers

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

SART stands for Sexual Assault Response Team and represents a team of professionals or people willing to help victims of sexual violence. This team is formed by health professionals, judges, police, prosecutors, psychologists and volunteers who act quickly, to collect biological evidence of sexual violence, present emotional support to the victim and judicial support. In this case, it is correct to say that a SART examiner is trained to have knowledge in collecting biological evidence, making accurate records about the crime, talking to the police about the crime and comforting the victim.

Answer:

A.) Gather biological evidence that may identify the perpetrator

An older patient has severe osteoporosis and a collapsed vertebra. She is in constant pain and receives relief only from taking a narcotic painkiller, four times a day, which is addictive.

For your initial post, answer the following:

Should the physician supply enough medication to provide relief or only enough pills for the patient to take when she is experiencing pain that she absolutely cannot bear? Think this through and formulate questions that might help you decide what stance to take.
Also, what medical and legal requirements will you need to fulfill as a medical assistant or medical biller?

Answers

The physician should supply only enough pills for the patient to take when she is experiencing pain that she absolutely cannot bear.

Pain management using narcotics

Osteoporosis is a disease condition that occurs due to prolong lack of calcium leading to diminished bone density, early bone loss. One of the symptoms is severe pain.

Collapsed vertebrae occurs when vertebral body in the spine collapses, which can lead to severe pain, deformity and loss of height.

As a physician, to put the patient in the most comfortable state is the top most priority. Therefore, the occuring severe pain needs to be managed.

Strong pain killers are used and an example is the narcotics. However, an individual can become addicted to narcotics, therefore, the use of the drugs should be regulated and taken only when necessary.

As a medical assistant or medical biller would have to fulfill legal requirements such as:

writing a prescription of the drugs

Writing the exact dosage that should be given to the patient at a time and with date.

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a newborn with type a blood would have which agglutinins present in the plasma immediately after birth?

Answers

A newborn with type A blood would have neither anti-A nor anti-B agglutinins present in the plasma immediately after birth.

Which combination(s) among the following might result in the newborn's hemolytic disorder?

HDN is most often present in offspring born to Rh-poor mothers and Rh-superior fathers. This could be problematic if the baby's red blood cells go to the mother who has a negative Rh factor if the infant has a positive Rh factor like his or her father.

Which blood type has glutinogens A and B present?

Plasma samples from the participants contain agglutinins from the A and B blood groups. Blood team AB's plasma no longer contains either agglutinin, while blood team AB's plasma still contains agglutinin b, blood team A's plasma also still contains agglutinin b, and blood team O's plasma still contains both agglutinins a and b.

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Recall and list all the different levels of organization of living things from small to big. Then match the following list of terms to their appropriate levels:
Brain
Cardiovascular
Protein
Leukocyte
Glycogen
Baby
Blood

Answers

Answer:

The 7 different levels of organization of living things from small to big are;

MoleculesOrganellesCellsTissuesOrgansOrgan systemsOrganism

Protein is a Molecule that is found in many animal products are is useful in building muscle mass in the body.

Glycogen is an Organelle as it is a part of cells and performs the duty of being a carbohydrate reserve.

Leukocytes are white blood cells that help the body fight against infection.

The blood is a tissue that is made up of blood cells with the primary function of supplying oxygen and other essential substances around the body.

The brain is an organ that is in charge of well, everything we do.

The Cardiovascular system is an organ system that the blood falls under. It's purpose is to supply the body with the nutrients it needs to survive.

A baby is an organism that is beautifully made with a lot of complexity and comprises of many organ systems.

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