Answers
Clinically suspected fibrocartilaginous embolism:
objective: Studying patients with an antemortem diagnosis of fibrocartilaginous embolism (FCE), a rare cause of spinal cord and cerebral infarction because of the alleged embolization of nucleus pulposus material into the vascular circulation, will allow us to better understand the frequency, demographics, clinical traits, and outcomes of these patients.
methods: We looked back on the institutional experiences of patients who were given an antemortem diagnosis of FCE at the Mayo Clinic (Rochester, Minnesota, USA) between 1997 and 2009. All patients underwent clinical, radiological, and laboratory elimination of additional potential diagnosis.
results: Nine patients (5.5%; 95% CI 2.5, 10.2%) out of 164 patients with acute spinal cord infarction seen during the study period met the inclusion criteria for a high risk of FCE (6 men, 3 women; median age 46 years old, range 21-64). Each patient had a serious condition (median modified Rankin Scale 4, median Barthel index 45; mean time to evaluation 57 days). Only one patient out of nine (1/9) had concurrent cerebral infarction. The use of steroids showed no discernible positive effects on any patients.
conclusion: At this referral facility, the diagnosis of FCE in life accounts for 5.5% of all cases of acute spinal cord infarction observed. We suggest clinical criteria for FCE in life despite the fact that it is a postmortem diagnosis in order to more accurately describe the relatively high proportion of patients with unexplained ischemic myelopathy.
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Related Questions
a rise in angiotensin ii levels would result in increased
Answers
Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and it also stimulates aldosterone release. A rise in angiotensin II levels would result in increased blood pressure, as well as increased sodium and water retention within the kidneys, leading to an increase in extracellular fluid volume.
In addition, it stimulates the thirst center in the hypothalamus, which would result in an increase in water intake. Angiotensin II also acts on the cardiovascular system, resulting in an increase in the heart rate, myocardial contractility, and cardiac output.An increase in angiotensin II levels would activate the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS), which is a major regulatory system of blood pressure and fluid homeostasis.
This system consists of the liver secreting angiotensinogen, which is converted to angiotensin I by renin, a protease secreted by the kidneys. Angiotensin I is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which is present in the lungs as well as other tissues.
Thus, a rise in angiotensin II levels would result in various physiological responses that aim to maintain blood pressure and fluid balance.
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describe how natural selection is playing a role in antibiotic resistance.
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The antibiotic naturally selects for antibiotic-resistant bacteria while eradicating all of its bacterial rivals.
Natural selection is the differential survival and reproduction of individuals as a result of phenotypic variations. The change in the heritable features typical of a population through generations is a crucial process of evolution. Natural selection was popularized by Charles Darwin, who contrasted it with artificial selection, which, in his opinion, is purposeful, but natural selection is not.
Variation exists within all biological populations. This occurs in part because random mutations occur in an individual organism's DNA, and their descendants can inherit such mutations. Individuals' genetics interact with their surroundings to create characteristic differences throughout their lifetimes. Natural selection is a fundamental concept in modern biology.
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What is cetirizine hydrochloride and pseudoephedrine hydrochloride?
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Cetirizine and pseudoephedrine is an antihistamine and decongestant combination used to treat the symptoms of seasonal or annual allergies.
Cetirizine, often known as Zyrtec, is a second-generation antihistamine used to treat allergic rhinitis, dermatitis, and urticaria. It is administered orally. The effects usually start within thirty minutes and persist around a day. Cetirizine is an antihistamine medication that relieves allergy symptoms. It is used to treat the following conditions: hay fever. conjunctivitis (red, itchy eye) (red, itchy eye).
Pseudoephedrine is an antihistamine that is used to treat nasal or sinus congestion caused by the common cold, sinusitis, hay fever, and other respiratory allergies. It is also used to treat ear congestion caused by inflammation or infection of the ear. It is possible to have nausea, vomiting, difficulty sleeping, dizziness, headache, or anxiousness. Inform your doctor or pharmacist right once if any of these symptoms persist or worsen.
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The ability for a muscle to work against a resistance for an extended period of time is.
Answers
A muscle's endurance is its capacity to contract repeatedly against a fixed resistance over an extended length of time.
Tearm endurance:
The capacity for enduring difficulty or adversity, especially the capacity for long-term stress-inducing effort or exercise, such as a marathon runner's endurance. 2: the act of enduring many sufferings or an instance of doing so. 3: persistence of the play's significance, permanency.
Types:
The types of endurance are aerobic endurance,
anaerobic endurance : Anaerobic exercise is a type of exercise that breaks down glucose in the body without using oxygen; anaerobic means "without oxygen".
speed endurance :is the ability to prolong the amount of time where a near maximal speed can be maintained.
strength endurance :Strength endurance is the specific form of strength displayed in activities which require a relatively long duration of muscle tension with minimal decrease in efficiency"
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Process by which drugs enter the body?
Answers
Explanation:
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a modified left radical mastectomy with breast expander. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. " I will have to wait 2 months before additional saline can be added to my breast expander."
B. "I will preform strength building arm exercises using a 15 lb weight." C. " I will keep my left arm fixed at the elbow as much as possible."
D. " I should expect less than 25 ml of secretions per day in my drainage device."
Answers
" I should expect less than 25 ml of secretions per day in my drainage device." should be the statement that indicates an understanding of the teaching.
A radical mastectomy is a surgical surgery used to treat breast cancer that involves the removal of the breast, the chest muscle underneath, and the axillary lymph nodes. The muscles of the chest wall under the breast, the entire breast, and all lymph nodes under the arm are all removed.
A radical mastectomy is a surgical surgery used to treat breast cancer that involves the removal of the breast, the chest muscle underneath, and the axillary lymph nodes. The muscles of the chest wall under the breast, the entire breast, and all lymph nodes under the arm are all removed.
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Discuss the importance of pH and the role of buffers in body fluids and why this is such an important concept to understand for human life.
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Answer: A buffer is a chemical substance that helps maintain a relatively constant pH in a solution, even in the face of addition of acids or bases. Buffering is important in living systems as a means of maintaining a fairly constant internal environment, also known as homeostasis. Because all biological processes are dependent on pH, cells and organisms must maintain a specific and constant pH in order to keep their enzymes in the optimum state of protonation. This system provides the maximum buffering capacity near pH 6.86 (the pKa of H2PO4- ). Several substances serve as buffers in the body, including cell and plasma proteins, hemoglobin, phosphates, bicarbonate ions, and carbonic acid. The bicarbonate buffer is the primary buffering system of the IF surrounding the cells in tissues throughout the body.
Explanation:
Hope this could help <3
The buffers maintain the pH in cell; This maintenance is important as any changes in pH leads to cell or system damage.
Why buffers are important to living beings ?Buffer is a chemical solution that regulates the pH of a body fluid by addition of a small amount of acid or a base to it.
There are different types of buffers such as bicarbonate buffer that maintains the pH of the blood.
Phosphate buffer used to maintain the internal environment of cells, Hemoglobin act as a buffer.
Acidic buffers are composed up of weak acid and its salt with a strong base.
For instance, ethanoic acid with sodium ethanoate buffer has a pH of 4.
The buffer plays a vital role to prevent changes in the pH of the extracellular fluid of the system.
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medications and alcohol have the capacity to ___________ your good judgment.
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Medications and alcohol have the capacity to impair your good judgment.
Both medications and alcohol can affect cognitive functions and impair one's ability to think clearly and make sound judgments. Medications, particularly those that have sedative or psychoactive effects, may cause drowsiness, confusion, or changes in perception that can interfere with decision-making abilities.
Alcohol, as a central nervous system depressant, can significantly impair judgment and cognitive function.
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When assessing a patient who spilled hot oil on the right leg and foot, the nurse notes that the skin is dry, pale, hard skin. The patient states that the burn is not painful. What term would the nurse use to document the burn depth?a. First-degree skin destructionb. Full-thickness skin destructionc. Deep partial-thickness skin destructiond. Superficial partial-thickness skin destruction
Answers
Answer: full-thickness skin destruction
Explanation:
Why is bread made with refined flour considered less healthy than breads made with whole grains? a. Refining bread products only leaves the chaff in the bread. b. The refining process removes fiber and minerals in the bread. c. The bran that is kept in the refining process is harder to digest. d. The refining process creates products with higher levels of iron. e. The refining process calls for the addition of some added sugars.
Answers
Answer:
b. The refining process removes fiber and minerals in the bread.
Explanation:
The refined flour breads are considered less healthy than the whole grain breads because the refining process removes all the fibers and minerals from the bread. Thus, correct option is B.
What is refining process?Refining is a process by which natural foods are stripped which reduces the nutrient content of food. Refinement can even interfere with digestion.
The highly processed flour and additives in white bread are the refined foods. Consumption of too much of white bread can contribute to obesity, heart disease, and diabetes. Unrefined whole grains retain many of these vital nutrients and are rich in fiber, which helps your digestive system work well. Unprocessed foods contain fiber, vitamins, and minerals.
Processing food removes nutrients and results in refined carbs, which people also refer as empty carbs or empty calories. Refined carbs provide very few vitamins and minerals as compared to unrefined foods. Refined grains are milled to have the bran removed which is responsible for providing them a finer texture and extends the shelf life. Refined grains include white flour, white rice and white bread.
Therefore, correct option is B.
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the world's first genetically engineered pharmaceutical product was ________.
Answers
Salbutamol interacts with drugs that inhibit ...
A. catechol-o-methyl transferase
B. CYP3A4
C. alcohol dehydrogenase
D. Uptake 1
Answers
Answer:
BBBBBBBBBBBBBBBB im not sureeee hehe
Which National Patient Safety Goal (NPSG) does a nurse try to meet when
she checks whether a patient is taking a medication that might make them
dizzy?
Answers
Answer:
D. Preventing falls.
Explanation:
If they were preventing s.u.i.c.i.d.e, they would be asking questions about hopelessness, or if the patient felt like they were better off d.e.a.d. If they were trying to prevent misidentification, they would be asking the patient if they knew their family members, what car they drive, etcetera. If they were trying to prevent infections, they would ask the patient if they had any bleeding, discharge, difficulty breathing, etcetera.
Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future? 1 Assignment #2 Ethical Principles From the case study provided: a) Identify the meaning of a fragility hip fracture and the impact this can have on an elderly person. b) Describe the specific situation in this case study. c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making (Corey et al., 2014) d) Identify the problem or dilemma Describe the potential issues involved f) Review relevant ethics principles as they apply to this case (eg; informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence, etc. g) Consider possible and probable courses of action h) Describe the consequences of various decisions i) What is the best course of action? Provide a reflection of your learning with this case study. What did you learn? How will you apply this learning in the future?
Answers
a) A fragility hip fracture is a broken hip bone resulting from minimal trauma or a fall in the elderly person which leads to pain, mobility loss, and reduced independence.
b) The specific situation in the given case study involves an elderly individual experiencing a fragility hip fracture and being admitted to the hospital for treatment. The fracture caused severe pain, limited mobility, and required surgery. A person's independence and quality of life are severely compromised and require support and rehabilitation to restore function.
c) Using the Framework of Ethical Decision Making, the problem or dilemma is how to address the treatment and care of the elderly patient with a fragility hip fracture.
d) The potential issues involved in this scenario includes ensuring informed consent, maintaining patient confidentiality, promoting beneficence, and balancing autonomy with the patient's best interests.
f) Relevant ethics principles include informed consent, confidentiality, beneficence (doing good for the patient), and autonomy.
g) Possible courses of action may include surgical intervention, pain management, rehabilitation, and ensuring proper support and care for the patient.
h) Consequences of decisions can vary which includes successful recovery, complications, functional limitations, and impact on the patient's quality of life.
i) The best course of action depends on individual circumstances, but it may involve a comprehensive treatment plan that considers the patient's preferences, involves shared decision-making, and prioritizes their overall well-being.
Reflection: This case studies highlight the importance of considering ethical principles in medical decision-making, especially when dealing with vulnerable populations such as the elderly. It stresses the importance of informed consent, confidentiality and the promotion of the patient's best interests.
We learnt the significance of considering individual values and preferences, as well as involving the person and their support system in decision-making. In the future, we can apply this learning by ensuring a patient-centered approach, promoting open communication, and advocating for the well-being and autonomy of individuals in my healthcare practice.
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Theory theory refers to the ability to think about other people's thoughts.
True
False
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Answer:
True
Explanation:
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the neurotransmitter ___ plays a major role in reward-motivated behavior, such as when drinking alcohol.
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The neurotransmitter dopamine plays a major role in reward-motivated behavior, including the consumption of alcohol.
When an individual drinks alcohol, it increases the release of dopamine in the brain, leading to feelings of pleasure and reward. This release of dopamine reinforces the behavior and creates a desire to continue drinking. Additionally, chronic alcohol consumption can lead to changes in dopamine receptors in the brain, causing a decrease in dopamine release and making it more difficult for an individual to experience pleasure from other activities besides drinking. This is why individuals struggling with alcohol addiction may continue to drink despite negative consequences and may experience withdrawal symptoms when attempting to quit. Understanding the role of dopamine in reward-motivated behavior is crucial for developing effective treatments for alcohol addiction and other substance use disorders.
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An_______ is a technician who specializes in grinding lenses and preparing eyeglasses and contact lenses.
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An Optician is a technician who specializes in grinding lenses and preparing eyeglasses and contact lenses.
An optician, or allocating optician, is a specialized guru who designs, fits, and dispenses lenses for the correction of a person's vision. Opticians determine the specifications of colorful ophthalmic appliances that will give the necessary correction to a person's sight.
Registered or certified opticians also design and fit special appliances to correct ornamental, traumatic, or anatomical blights. These biases are called shells or artificial eyes. Other registered or certified opticians manufacture lenses to their own specifications and design and manufacture spectacle frames and other biases.
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An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?
Answers
1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.
2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.
3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.
Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.
It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.
Could my cell phone kill me?
Answers
hmm... i think yes hahaha
Answer: No
Explanation:
A cellphone can be used to kill you but the phone itself cant
murphy pa, fullerton j. outcomes of intended home births in nurse-midwifery practice: a prospective descriptive study. obstet gynecol 1998; 92:461-470
Answers
Under the supervision of skilled professionals and within a framework that permits transfer to hospital care when necessary, home birth can be achieved with positive results. The majority of intrapartal deaths during planned home births occur in postdates pregnancies that include meconium passage signs.
What is the result of this study ?Of the 1404 enrolled women who planned to give birth at home, 6% either had miscarriages, had abortions, or modified their intentions. 7.4% of pregnancies were referred to a planned hospital delivery because they were no longer eligible for home births before the commencement of labour at term due to the emergence of perinatal issues. 102 (8.3%) of the women who started labour intending to give birth at home were hospitalised during labour.
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a girl came in with a broken arm
Treatment plan—list at least two possible treatments:
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
she can get a cast or get surgery depending on how bad the broken arm is. Please give brainly
You’ve been hired by Central Hospital for your first job as a phlebotomist. You start next Monday, but first you need to read the employee handbook, which includes a description of personal characteristics for the successful phlebotomist. Dependability? Check—you’ve been holding down a steady job for more than 2 years. Positive attitude? Check—your nickname at the warehouse is “Can do.” Professional appearance? Uh-oh—no piercings, no visible tattoos, no artificial nails. You’ve got them all. When Monday rolls around, what should you do? Forget about the job? Tell your supervisor, “This is me—deal with it”? What would you do? Why?
Answers
When working in a hospital as a phlebotomist, the professional has to follow all the rules of the place, because piercings, earrings and nails can cause some biosafety problem in some procedures.
Biological risksThe employer must prohibit the use of adornments in the work stations of all workers in the service. Are considered adornments:
Wedding ringsRingsBraceletsWatches for personal useNecklacesEarringsBroochesExposed piercingsTies and Badges hanging with a cord.
The ban on the use of adornments protects the worker from biological risks due to the possibility of microorganisms adhering to the surfaces of objects.
With this information, we can conclude that the employer is correct in prohibiting the use of some adornments.
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Which social media activity would most likely have a negative influence on body image?
Answers
Answer: Probably Instagram because there a pictures of models and people with low self esteem will look at the pictures and say "i wish i was like her"
Explanation:
Answer:
A. Getting a dislike on a recent picture
Explanation:
Correct on EDGE 2020
It is important to maintain a catheters___ and___ during the time in the vein of the animal
Answers
It is important to maintain a catheter's cleanliness and sterility during the time in the vein of the animal. A catheter is a device that is inserted into a vein or artery.
Catheters come in a variety of sizes and types. A catheter's primary purpose is to provide access to the inside of the body while avoiding the need for surgery.
Catheters are utilized to accomplish a variety of goals, such as removing bodily fluids, injecting drugs or contrast agents, and measuring bodily fluid pressures. However, catheters, particularly those that stay in the body for an extended period of time, may pose a serious risk of infection or clotting if they are not properly cared for and maintained.
Maintaining catheter hygiene is critical to avoiding catheter-related infections. Appropriate hand hygiene, sterile equipment usage, and appropriate dressing of the catheter site should all be included in catheter care. The most essential precaution in catheter care is to clean the catheter and dressing using an aseptic technique.
If the dressing is moist or dirty, it should be replaced promptly, and the catheter site should be cleansed using an antiseptic solution. Catheter maintenance involves cleaning and regular replacement of the catheter and dressing. If a catheter site becomes infected, it may have to be removed and replaced with a new catheter.
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An immobile patient is susceptible to all of the following alterations EXCEPT: a) respiratory infections b) blood clotsc) an increased appetite d) bedsores.
Answers
c) an increased appetite. Apart for an increased appetite, all of the following changes can occur in an immobile patient (option c). Patients who remain immobile are more likely to experience a variety of problems.
Such as blood clots, pressure ulcers, and bedsores. Muscle atrophy, slowed metabolism, and hormonal changes brought on by immobility can all have an impact on a patient's appetite. Yet, while it may happen in some individuals as a result of other variables like medicine, stress, or boredom, an increased appetite is not a direct result of immobility. c) a bigger appetite. Besides from an increased hunger, an immobile patient may experience any of the following changes: (option c). A multitude of issues are more likely to affect patients who don't move around.
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As exercise levels increase, which of the following physiological changes occurs in the respiratory system?
A.
The respiratory muscles shrink.
B.
The lungs expand in size.
C.
The trachea widens.
D.
The airways narrow.
Answers
Answer:
B the lungs expand
Explanation:
As exercise levels increase, which of the following physiological changes occurs in the respiratory system the lungs expand in size.
What is respiratory system?The respiratory system is a collection of tissues and organs that facilitates breathing. It consists of your lungs, airways, and blood vessels. The muscles that move your lungs are also a part of the respiratory system. Together, these elements support the body's ability to remove waste gases like carbon dioxide and circulate oxygen.
The minuscule air sacs called alveoli receive the air you breathe in. The walls of the alveoli contain blood vessels known as capillaries. The pulmonary arterial vein carries blood to and from the capillaries as it moves through them.
Therefore, As exercise levels increase, which of the following physiological changes occurs in the respiratory system the lungs expand in size.
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dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
Answers
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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A 79-year-old patient is receiving ciprofloxacin (cipro) as treatment for a complicated incision infection. the nurse will monitor for which adverse effect that is associated with these drugs?
Answers
Tendinitis and tendon rupture are the adverse effects associated with ciprofloxacin.
Ciprofloxacin is used to treat infections caused by bacteria. These may include gonorrhoea, typhoid fever, infectious diarrhoea, bronchitis, sinus infections or urinary tract infections. It belongs to a class of antibiotics called fluoroquinolones. It works by killing bacteria.
Tendinitis is swelling of the fibrous tissue that connects bone to muscle. Tendon rupture is the tearing of the fibrous tissue that connects bone to muscle. It affects the tendons in the shoulder, hands or back of the ankle. Ciprofloxacin also causes changes in sensation and nerve damage.
Ciprofloxacin may worsen muscle weakness in people with myasthenia gravis (a disorder of the nervous system that causes muscle weakness) and cause severe difficulty breathing or death.
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What causes high triglycerides but normal cholesterol.
Answers
The causes of high triglycerides and normal cholesterol levels are varied, but they may all be managed through lifestyle changes such as regular exercise and a healthy diet.
High triglycerides but normal cholesterol can be caused by a variety of factors. These include the following:
1. Lack of exercise: Triglyceride levels can rise if you are inactive.
2. Overweight or obesity: If you're overweight or obese, you're more likely to have high triglycerides.
3. Insulin resistance: Insulin resistance can raise triglyceride levels.
4. Genetics: Some individuals are genetically predisposed to high triglyceride levels.
5. Metabolic syndrome: This is a condition characterized by elevated blood pressure, blood sugar, and cholesterol levels, as well as a large waistline. It also raises your risk of heart disease, diabetes, and stroke.
6. Unhealthy diet: A diet high in sugar, refined carbohydrates, and trans fats can raise triglyceride levels.
7. Certain health conditions: Hypothyroidism, liver or kidney disease, and other medical conditions may raise your triglyceride levels.
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ASAP
Drugs & AlcoholAssignment 1.3OTC Drug BrochureName:Date:Directions: For this assignment you will be creating an informative brochure about onespecific over the counter drug. This brochure should explain the effects of the drug andthe proper usage. You are encouraged to choose an OTC drug that you are unfamiliarwith. You will need to do some research to find information in creating your brochure,Your brochure can be created in a word-processing or desktop publishing document, Becreative and be sure to include the following information in your brochure.1. Give the name and a basic description of the OTC drug you havechosen. (4 points)
Answers
Answer:
the drug that I chose is Acataminophen and some of the side effects or warnings that this otc drug may cause are nausea, stomach pain, loss of appetite, itching, rash, dark urine, clay-colored stools. If you have 325mg acataminophen then you take it every 4 to 6 hours and the safest maximum daily dosage for most adults is 8 pills and never take more than 12 pills in 24 hours that is 3900mg, if you have 500mg acataminophen then you take it every 4 to 6 hours and the safest maximum daily doseage for most adults is 6 pills and never take more than 8 pills in 24 hours that is 4000mg. The basic description of Acataminophen is a p-aminophen derivative with analgesic and antipyretic activities.