Long bones have a distinctive ______ that makes up most of the bone's length and is composed of compact bone.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

diaphysis

Explanation:


Related Questions

You are looking at onion cells under an microscope and wants to khow hoow big the cells really are you mesuare the size of the cells as it appears and find out that it mesuares 20mm with a magnification of a x1000 work out the actual sixe of the cell

Answers

The actual size of the onion cells under microscope is 0.02 mm

Magnification = Image / Actual

Image= 20 mm

Actual= x mm

1000x = 20 mm/ x mm

Actual = 0.02mm

Magnification is the number of times a picture is magnified in comparison to the actual size of the thing. The overall magnification of a microscope is determined by the eyepieces and the objective lens. A biological microscope with 10x eyepieces and a 50x objective, for example, has a magnification of 500x. Hence, the actual size of the onion cells is 0.02 mm, when placed under a microscope with a 1000x magnification it image size now becomes 20 mm.

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The oxygen produced by a plant comes most directly from:.

Answers

Answer:

The oxygen produced by a plant comes most directly from H2O. -Photosynthesis

Review Pete's lipid profile results below. What should Pete know? Total cholesterol: 233.4 mg/dl HDL: 55 mg/dl LDL: 122 mg/dl Triglycerides:125 mg/dl a) Pete has acceptable cholesterol levels. b) Pete has borderline high cholesterol and high LDL levels; however the fact that his HDL is elevated is a benefit to him. c) Pete has high cholesterol and HDL levels yet the fact that his LDL is elevated is a benefit to him.

Answers

Based on the lipid profile results provided, (b) Pete has borderline high cholesterol and high LDL levels, but the fact that his HDL is elevated is a benefit to him.

Total cholesterol levels of 233.4 mg/dl fall within the borderline high category. The desirable level of total cholesterol is below 200 mg/dl. HDL levels of 55 mg/dl are considered good, with higher levels indicating a lower risk for heart disease. LDL levels of 122 mg/dl are considered high, and higher levels are associated with an increased risk for heart disease. Triglyceride levels of 125 mg/dl are within the normal range.

It is important to note that while an elevated HDL level is beneficial, it does not completely negate the negative effects of high LDL levels. Pete should speak with his healthcare provider about his lipid profile results and may be advised to make lifestyle changes such as exercising more, eating a heart-healthy diet, and potentially taking medications to help lower his LDL levels and reduce his risk for heart disease.

Therefore, the correct answer is (b) Pete has borderline high cholesterol and high LDL levels; however the fact that his HDL is elevated is a benefit to him.

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Each body cell of a chimpanzee contains 48 chromosomes. After mitosis, how many chromosomes are present in each cell?

Answers

Answer:

During both mitosis and meiosis, DNA replicates first during S phase of interphase. Each copy (DNA molecule) is called chromatid. Before anaphase they remain together, joined by the centromere in the chromosome.

Part 1: How many chromatids and chromosomes are present at:

(a) anaphase of mitosis: During this phase sister chromatids split. We would have 48 chromosomes in each pole and 48 chromatides.

(b) anaphase I of meiosis: During this phase homologous chromosomes split, being a reductional division. In each pole we will have half the chromosomes we had after DNA replication. This is 24 chromosomes but 48 chromatides (remember they will split during anaphase II).

(c) anaphase II of meiosis: This is an equational division, we will have 24 chromosomes in each pole and 24 chromatides. Each chromatid is considered a chromosome.

(d) G1 prior to mitosis: During this phase DNA has not replicated yet and it is not condensed either. This formed is called chromatin. We will assign one chromatid for each chromosome. This is a somatic cell, so: 48 chromosomes and 48 chromatids.

(e) G2 prior to mitosis: After S phase, we have duplicated all chromosomes. We will assign two chromatids per chromosome: this is 96 chromatides and 48 chromosomes.

(f) G1 prior to meiosis: Before DNA duplication, 48 chromosomes, 48 chromatids.

(g) Prophase of meiosis I: After DNA replication, condensation of the chromatin takes place: 48 chromosomes, 96 chromatids.

Part 2: How many chromatids or chromosomes are present in:

(h) An oogonial cell prior to S phase: This is G1 phase, 48 chromosomes.

(i) A spermatide: This is the male haploid gametid, after meiosis: 24 chromosomes and 24 chromatids.

(j) A primary oocyte arrested prior to ovulation: They are arrested at prophase I of meiosis. This means their DNA is still duplicated and chromatides have not divided yet. 48 chromosomes and 96 chromatids.

(k) A secondary oocyte arrested prior to fertilization: They are halted at metaphase II of meiosis, meaning they have half the chromosomes (24) but chromatids are still together (48).

(l) A second polar body: They suffered the same process as the mature ovum but remained with little cytoplasm. They have 24 chromosomes and 24 chromatids.

(m) A chimpanzee sperm: They have completed both meiosis as well, they have 24 chromosomes and 24 chromatids.  

Explanation:

Mitosis is a type of cell division in which the number of chromosomes in the parent cell is similar to the daughter cell. Mitosis occurs in the somatic cells.

The chromosomes present in the Chimpanzee's cell after mitosis are 48 chromosomes.

The mitosis can be explained as:

1. Mitosis is a type of cell division in which the number of chromosomes in the daughter and parent cells are similar.

2. During the DNA replication process, the DNA is duplicated and separated into the individual two daughter cells.

Thus, the cells with 48 chromosomes will give rise to daughter cells consisting of 48 chromosomes.

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through which conversations is energy released.​

Answers

The answer is B : ATP to ADP

Explanation:

100% on quiz

Describe how the regeneration of the anole's tail showed both cell division and cell differentiation.

Please help need answers quick!!!

Describe how the regeneration of the anole's tail showed both cell division and cell differentiation.Please

Answers

Answer:

In adult organisms the regenerative capacity of certain organs or tissues can be limited, resulting in an important clinical challenge for physicians and scientists [1-3].

Regeneration involves the capacity for renewal or recomposition of tissues, organs or even organisms, after considerable physical injury or damage, resulting from pathologies, tumors, congenital diseases or traumas, for example. As a consequence of tissue regeneration, both the composition and the tissue properties are restored, and the newly formed tissue is highly similar to the original tissue. The regenerative capacity is directly related to the presence of stem cells or progenitor cells, which are capable of proliferation and differentiation [4,5]. Tissues that maintain a high proliferative capacity, such as the hematopoietic system, have regenerative capacity even in adult organisms [6].

Cell proliferation occurs in repair processes in general, accompanied by intense production of extracellular matrix, with large amounts of collagen, resulting in the formation of fibrous tissue to occupy the injured area. Although there is lesion filling, both the composition and the tissue properties are different from the original tissue, and the tissue organization pattern is not restored, leading to an altered performance of its functions [2]. Skin healing processes with the presence of scars are examples of tissue repair [3].

Besides the natural processes of regeneration and repair, it is possible, through medical intervention, to fill lesions with natural or synthetic materials, aiming at the recovery of the compromised area, and conferring certain properties to the tissue, avoiding, for example, exacerbation of the initial lesion or the evolution of degenerative processes [1,7].

The three approaches can be used in tissue engineering, targeting regenerative medicine, as they allow the recovery of compromised areas in different degrees. However, the primary objective is regeneration, recomposition of the original tissue and resumption of the biomechanical and molecular properties, with the normal performance of their functions [1,7-8].

Tissue regeneration involves cell recruitment, growth, proliferation and differentiation, with the latter representing a crucial stage for the success of regeneration, avoiding the formation of fibrous tissue characteristic of the repair [9-12]. Tissues with greater regenerative capacity, such as the skin and liver, intrinsically present cells able to migrate to occupy the affected region, and the same cells maintain the proliferative capacity, enabling occupation of the lesion [3]. In other tissues the regenerative capacity is even more impaired. In the cartilage, for example, the cells remain embedded in the extracellular matrix, and the absence of blood vessels inhibits the presence of other types of component cell in the tissue; even the cell migration and proliferation processes are compromised. In general, regeneration and repair processes do not occur naturally in these cases, requiring surgical intervention to stimulate the subchondral bone marrow, thus enabling the presence of cells capable of tissue repair in the compromised area [13]. Other scientific techniques and methodologies seek alternatives to enable the processes both of repair and of tissue regeneration [9-12,14-16].

Anyhow the final stage of the abovementioned processes, cell differentiation, is critical. An understanding of the mechanisms that lead to the differentiation process in adult organisms allows the proposition of improvements in existing technologies and of alternatives geared towards the optimization of guided tissue regeneration processes, in regenerative medicine.

Carly has wavy hair. Her father has straight hair, and her mother has curly hair. Which type of inheritance pattern is responsible for Carly’s wavy hair?
A.
codominance
B.
dominant
C.
incomplete dominance
D.
polygenic
E.
recessive

Answers

Answer:

Incomplete Dominance

Explanation:

Salivary amylase is an enzyme found in the mouth. It breaks down starch into sugars. Which of these best explains why salivary amylase does not break down proteins?.

Answers

The best option that explains that why salivary amylase does not break down proteins is that proteins do not have the right substrate for the enzymes.

In the field of biology, we can describe enzymes as biological catalysts that are used to speed up a reaction. Each enzyme is specific for a reaction because the active site of an enzyme is specific for a particular reactant.

As salivary amylase is an enzyme that is specific for breaking down starch because its active site is specific for the starch reactants, hence the amylase enzyme will not work for proteins. The protein reactants will not fit into the active site of the salivary amylase enzyme.

Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:

Salivary amylase is an enzyme found in the mouth. It breaks down starch into sugars. Which of these best explains why salivary amylase does not break down proteins?

a) The enzyme is the wrong substrate for proteins

b) proteins do not have the right substrate for the enzymes.

c) Proteins do not have the proper active site for the enzyme to work on them.

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The relationship between stem biomechanics and wood density is modified by rainfall in 32 Australian woody plant species

Answers

The relationship between stem biomechanics and wood density being modified by rainfall in 32 Australian woody plant species suggests that the mechanical properties of stems and the density of wood are influenced by the amount of rainfall these plants receive.

This relationship indicates that environmental factors, such as rainfall, can play a role in shaping the physical characteristics of plant tissues. In general, stem biomechanics refers to the mechanical properties of plant stems, including their strength, stiffness, and flexibility. Wood density, on the other hand, refers to the mass of wood per unit volume. It is often used as an indicator of wood strength and quality. Higher wood density typically indicates stronger and more durable wood.

Rainfall is a critical factor influencing plant growth and development. In regions with higher rainfall, plants often have access to more water, which can contribute to increased growth rates and larger overall size. The availability of water can also affect the development of plant tissues, including the density and mechanical properties of wood.

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GIVING BRANLIEST!!! Which statement accurately describes one aspect of plate tectonics that involves subduction and seafloor spreading?

Older crust is melted at subduction zones.
Crust is created at the coastlines of continents.
Continents do not move as a result of seafloor spreading and subduction.
Crust is created as the mantle hardens under the lithosphere.

Answers

Answer:

The statement that accurately describes the aspects of plate tectonics that involve sub-duction and seafloor spreading is : Crust is created at the coastlines of continents.

Explanation:

i

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Write three to four paragraphs about how veterinary scientists employ preventive methods to control outbreaks or epidemics in large animal population.

(Using Edmentum for this question)

Answers

veterinary scientists employ preventive methods to control outbreaks or epidemics in large animal population in the following steps:

veterinary scientists can use biosecurity which is an introduction to domestic & foreign animal diseases, managing risks and by using recommended resources.

veterinary scientists  can also introduce sanitation methods through cleaning and disinfection, disinfectant selection and use, and steps for emergency sanitation.veterinary scientists can also use isolation to new, returning or sick animals and should be separated from the herd to stop disease introductions.

Who are veterinary scientists?

Veterinary scientists are described as scientist that specialize in the study of disease in animals by working in  research centers and laboratories, researching more effective ways of diagnosing, treating and preventing animal diseases.

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Which vein originates on the medial foot and empties into the femoral vein?.

Answers

Answer:

The great saphenous vein originates on the medial foot and empties into the femoral vein.

Explanation:

Question 3(Multiple Choice Worth 4 points) High tides are experienced 12 hours apart for a certain coastline. Which of the following best explains the reason for this phenomenon? O The coastline becomes 90 degrees with the moon twice. O The coastline comes in a straight line with the moon once. O The coastline experiences tidal bulge twice a day. O The coastline experiences tidal bulge once a day.​

Answers

High tides are experienced as the coastline experiences tidal bulge twice a day. Hence, high tides are experiences 12 hours apart for a certain coastline.

Tides are caused by the gravitational forces applied on the earth largely by the moon and also by the sun. This gravitational force causes the ocean water to be attracted towards the moon which creates a bulge in the ocean.

The earth's rotation can cause the waters that are affected to change. When the sun is parallel to the moon or relatively on the opposite side, these high tides are to be expected.  

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What describes the first law of thermodynamics?
OA) Energy cannot be converted without the loss of usable energy.
OB) The energy of a system approaches a constant value as the temperature approaches
absolute zero.
OC) Energy cannot be converted from one form to another without a net gain of usable
energy.
OD) Energy can be converted from one form to another, but it cannot be created or
destroyed.

Answers

Answer:

od ) Energy cannot be converted from one form to another but it cannot be created not destroyed

Explanation:

Energy had no stable state hence can be transformed from one to another

What is the frequency that can be produced by the small tuning fork?

Answers

The quartz crystal that serves as the timekeeping element in modern quartz clocks and watches is in the form of a tiny tuning fork. It usually vibrates at a frequency of 32,768 Hz in the ultrasonic range (above the range of human hearing).

Answer:

It varies with fork to fork.

Explanation:

This question is not related to biology.

You can study detail in physics where we read about change in frequency produce different kind of sound.

if davis has high blood pressure, high blood glucose, and low levels of good cholesterol, which diagnosis will his physician most likely give

Answers

Davis's physician will most likely give him a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.

Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of conditions that occur together and increase the risk of heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes. The conditions include high blood pressure, high blood glucose, high triglycerides, low levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol, and excess abdominal fat. Metabolic syndrome is often diagnosed when a person has at least three of these conditions. It is a serious condition that requires lifestyle changes and medical management to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and other complications.

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malaria is a parasitic disease transmitted by the anopheles mosquito bite. this mode of transmission is called group of answer choices direct. single exposure. multiple exposure. mosquito is. vector.

Answers

Malaria is a parasitic disease transmitted by the anopheles mosquito bite. This mode of transmission is called a vector.

A female Anopheles mosquito bite carrying the parasitic disease malaria infects people and spreads it to them.

The mosquito serves as a vector in this method of transmission, an organism that carries and spreads a pathogen that causes disease (in this case, the Plasmodium parasite) from one host to another.

When a mosquito feasts on the blood of a person with the Plasmodium parasite, the mosquito contracts the disease.

The parasite then undergoes development inside the mosquito and when the infected mosquito bites a new person, the parasite is transmitted to the new host, potentially causing malaria.

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If a scientific idea has been proven 100% of the time, like gravity, it becomes a whereas an idea that is generally believed but has not been proven to be 100% true would be called a .

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer would be - scientific theory.

Explanation:

A scientific theory is a confirmed explanation of any particular natural aspect or phenomenon of the world which is confirmed and accepted widely by the facts based on observation and experiment.

This particular idea or explanation for the natural phenomenon is true time based and believed to be true for time being and proved for a time but can be changed with the new discoveries and facts.

Answer:

For the first  question if it were 100% law ........................................................................for second question if it is not 100% Theory

Explanation:

because if it were to be 100% true it would be a law but if it is not it is a theory is something that is most likely to be true. If it were a theory they would probably go on to study it more to.ps. I took this quiz and think I got the question right! GOOD LUCK!

IF YOU HAVE DONE ODSSEYWARE PLEASE HELP AND GIVE THE THE ANSWER

Choose all the answers that apply.
Mudslides can be caused by _____.

earthquakes

volcanoes

tsunamis

weathering

IF YOU HAVE DONE ODSSEYWARE PLEASE HELP AND GIVE THE THE ANSWER Choose all the answers that apply.Mudslides

Answers

Earthquakes and weathering

Which pcs root operation is used for an adhesiolysis when adhesions are freed from a body part they are restricting?

Answers

Release pcs root operation is used for an adhesiolysis when adhesions are freed from a body part they are restricting.

What is release Root operations?

Root operation is refers to the cutting of the upper or lower extremities.

What is adhesiolysis?

Adhenolysis is the surgical procedure that removes abdominal adhesion to regain the normal anatomy and functionality of an organ.

What are adhesion?

Adhesions are the bands of scar-like tissue that form inside of the organ that cause tissue or organ to stick together.

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The melting of sea ice ______ (increases) (does not affect) (decreases) the density of the surrounding ocean water.

Answers

The melting of sea ice decreases the density of the surrounding ocean water.

According to the cladogram, which group of
organisms is the closest relative to chordates?
Which of the following explains your answer ? Edg 2021

Answers

Answer:

"Echinoderms and chordates are found on the same clade."

Answer:    1)   Echinoderms

        c)    Echinoderms and chordates are found on the same clade.

which part of a dna molecule is responsible for the direct coding

Answers

The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule,is a  part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism.

A polymer made of two polynucleotide chains that coil around one another to create a double helix is called deoxyribonucleic acid. All known organisms and many viruses have genetic information in the polymer that is necessary for their development, operation, growth, and reproduction. Nucleic acids include DNA and ribonucleic acid (RNA). Nucleic acids are one of the four main categories of macromolecules that are necessary for all known forms of life, along with proteins, lipids, and complex carbohydrates (polysaccharides). Nucleotides are organic compounds made up of a phosphate and a nucleoside. They function as monomeric units of the key macromolecules found in all living forms on Earth, deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), and ribonucleic acid (RNA), which are both nucleic acid polymers.

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complete question:Which part of a DNA molecule is responsible for the direct coding of specific traits in an organism?

a. The number of hydrogen bonds that hold the strands of DNA together.

b. The number of carbons in the DNA molecule.

c. The sequence of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule.

d. The sequences of phosphates along each DNA strand.

If the atom had one less electron it would be a

Answers

Answer:

If it has fewer electrons than protons it has a net positive charge and is known as a cation. The ionic state may be denoted as a following superscript (e.g. O2-, Fe2+). The common ionic states of a atom are known as its valences.

Explanation:

members of the genus chlamydia are: group of answer choices A. intracellular parasites. B. classified with the proteobacteria endospore-formers
C. . gram-positive bacteria.

Answers

Members of the genus Chlamydia are intracellular parasites. This means that they live and reproduce within the host cells, utilizing the host's resources for their own growth and survival. They are unable to produce their own energy and therefore rely on the host cell's ATP for their metabolic needs.

Chlamydia is known to infect humans and animals, causing a variety of diseases ranging from respiratory and genital infections to more serious conditions such as pneumonia and pelvic inflammatory disease.

Chlamydia is not classified with the proteobacteria endospore-formers. Proteobacteria are a large group of bacteria that are diverse in their morphology and metabolic capabilities. Endospore-formers are a subset of this group that are capable of forming tough, resistant structures called endospores that enable them to survive in harsh environments. Chlamydia does not produce endospores and is not closely related to the proteobacteria.

Finally, Chlamydia is not a gram-positive bacterium. Gram staining is a technique used to differentiate bacterial cells based on the structure of their cell walls. Gram-positive bacteria have thick cell walls that retain the crystal violet stain used in the staining process, giving them a purple color. Gram-negative bacteria have thinner cell walls that do not retain the stain, giving them a pink color. Chlamydia lacks a typical cell wall altogether and is classified as an atypical bacterium.

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if an organism is a prokaryote, unicellular and can survive in harsh conditions, in which doiman would it be classified

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - Archaea.

Explanation:

Archaea is one of the three domains of life other than bacteria and eukarya. Archaea are prokaryotic organisms that are unicellular and present in very extreme conditions like salt environments or extreme heat.

Archaea used to be placed with bacteria but due to some closeness with the characteristic of eukarya as well as bacteria, it is placed as a separate domain. It lacks nuclei and has a cell wall in its cell.

Does a common cold have a localized inflammatory response

Answers

In the common cold we can say that there is a localized inflammatory response as is focused on the airways, rarely gets to the bronchi or lungs, this happens when there are complications, even more, when complications occur, these are contained in the respiratory system.

Muscles break down glucose into lactate which undergoes glycolysis. the end product of glycolysis in active muscles is:_______

Answers

Muscles break down glucose into lactate which undergoes glycolysis. the end product of glycolysis in active muscles is lactate.

What is glycolysis?

Glucose is broken down by a process called glycolysis to produce energy. In addition to ATP, NADH, and water, it also yields two pyruvate molecules. Oxygen is not needed for the process, which happens in the cytoplasm of a cell. Anaerobic and aerobic organisms both experience it.

To release the energy needed for cellular metabolism, sugar molecules must be broken down during glycolysis. The cytoplasm of the cell is where it takes place. Thousands of ATP molecules are produced during glycolysis, which is primarily done to support various cellular metabolisms.

Glycolysis is the first pathway used in the breakdown of glucose to extract energy. It takes place in the cytoplasm of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. It was probably one of the earliest metabolic pathways to evolve since it is used by nearly all of the organisms on earth.

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What do you mean by biology?Give specific reasons. ​

Answers

Answer:

Biology, coming from the root "bio" meaning life and "logy" implying study, means the study of all life. This is divided into many different fields that may study their physiology, behavior, origin, etc. It also means the plants and/or animals of a specific area.

Are moths blind, ive always Been told they are but I’m not sure. I will give brainly

Answers

Answer:

No they are not.

Explanation:

Hope I helped

Answer:

No. Moths are not blind. ... A moth's dark-adapting mechanism responds much more slowly than its light-adapting mechanism. Once the moth comes close to a bright light, it might have a hard time leaving the light since going back into the dark renders it blind for so long.

Explanation:

From google

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