The organelle responsible for breaking down fatty acids in liver and kidney cells is the peroxisome.
What are peroxisomes?
Peroxisomes play a crucial role in lipid biosynthesis, cholesterol metabolism, and detoxification processes. These organelles contain enzymes that help break down fatty acids and remove toxins, making them essential for maintaining cellular health in liver and kidney cells.
Role of peroxisomes:
The organelle responsible for breaking down fatty acids in liver and kidney cells is the peroxisome. These organelles are involved in lipid biosynthesis and also aid in the breakdown of toxic substances. However, it should be noted that cholesterol is not a toxin and is not typically broken down by peroxisomes. Instead, cholesterol metabolism primarily occurs in the liver and involves enzymes such as HMG-CoA reductase and CYP7A1.
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lymphatic capillaries multiple choice cannot be discerned structurally from cardiovascular system capillaries.
In conclusion, although lymphatic capillaries and cardiovascular system capillaries share some similarities in function, their structural differences make them distinguishable from each other.
Lymphatic capillaries cannot be discerned structurally from cardiovascular system capillaries. Although both types of capillaries are involved in the transport of fluids, there are some distinct differences between them.
Firstly, lymphatic capillaries have a larger diameter compared to cardiovascular system capillaries. This allows lymphatic capillaries to pick up excess fluid, proteins, and cellular debris from the tissues.
Secondly, lymphatic capillaries have unique structural features that distinguish them from cardiovascular system capillaries. Lymphatic capillaries have overlapping endothelial cells, creating one-way flaps. These flaps allow fluid and small particles to enter the lymphatic system but prevent their return to the tissues.
Lastly, lymphatic capillaries are blind-ended, meaning that they do not form a closed circuit like cardiovascular system capillaries. Instead, lymphatic capillaries converge into lymphatic vessels, which eventually drain into lymph nodes.
In conclusion, although lymphatic capillaries and cardiovascular system capillaries share some similarities in function, their structural differences make them distinguishable from each other.
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3. Cellular respiration produces which of the following gases?
Which feature is created by deposition from rivers?
O rills
O meanders
O alluvial fans
O gullies
Answer:
alluvial fans
Hope this helps! :)
Allu-vium-type material was carried by the river. An allu-vial fan was formed as the silt spread out across a triangle-shaped area as the river raced into the broad valley, hence option C is correct.
What is allu-vial fans?A triangle-shaped accumulation of gravel, sand, and even smaller fragments of sediment, such silt, is known as an allu-vial fan.
When the rushed into a wide valley, the sediment fanned out around a triangle-shaped area, developing an allu-vial fan. It is formed at the mouth of the river, which is also defined as plain course.
Outwash sediment deposition, bank erosion, and lateral channels are common dynamic processes observe in allu-vial fan deposits.
Therefore, allu-vial fans are created by deposition from rivers, hence option C is correct.
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a cell has formed a food vacuole as it ingested a food particle. which of the following events is associated with the breakdown of that food particle? see concept 6.4 (page)
The breakdown of the food particle within the vacuole is a process known as digestion.
Digestion is the process by which large complex molecules are broken down into smaller molecules that can be used by the cell. During digestion, enzymes within the vacuole break down the food particle into its individual components, such as amino acids, fatty acids, and sugars. These molecules can then be transported across the vacuole membrane and into the cytoplasm of the cell where they can be used for energy or other cellular processes. Once the food particle has been completely digested, any waste products are expelled from the cell through exocytosis.
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In what type of cell does the cell wall take place of the membrane?
a. plant cells
b. fungi cells
c. cell walls never take place of cell membranes
Answer:
A: Plant Cells
Explanation:
the cell membrane is found in all living species, including plants.
Please help 20 points and brainliest.
digestive enzymes from the gallbladder and pancreas go through ducts and then enter the ________.
Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:
It is in your small intestine the upper part of it. And each day your pancreas will make about digestive juice filled with enzymes. Not a good explanation, I can't explain well.
How do genes code for traits
Answer:
A gene codes for a particular protein that is involved in the expression of a trait.
Explanation:
I hope this information is correct and helps you!
Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disorder. Among Ashkenazi Jews, the frequency of Tay-Sachs disease is 1 in 3600. If the Ashkenazi population is mating randomly for the Tay-Sachs gene, approximately what proportion of the population consists of heterozygous carriers of the Tay-Sachs allele
Approximately 9.44% of the Ashkenazi population consists of heterozygous carriers of the Tay-Sachs allele.
Tay-Sachs disease is an autosomal recessive disorder. Among Ashkenazi Jews, the frequency of Tay-Sachs disease is 1 in 3600. If the Ashkenazi population is mating randomly for the Tay-Sachs gene, the proportion of the population consisting of heterozygous carriers of the Tay-Sachs allele can be determined using the Hardy-Weinberg equation.
Hardy-Weinberg equation:
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
where:
p = frequency of the dominant allele (not having Tay-Sachs disease allele)
q = frequency of the recessive allele (having Tay-Sachs disease allele)
2pq = frequency of heterozygous carriers of the Tay-Sachs allele
Given that the frequency of Tay-Sachs disease is 1 in 3600, then the frequency of the recessive allele (q) can be calculated as:
q² = 1/3600q = sqrt(1/3600)q = 1/60
Since q² + p² = 1, then the frequency of the dominant allele (p) can be calculated as:
p² = 1 - q²p² = 1 - (1/3600)p = sqrt(3599/3600)
The frequency of heterozygous carriers of the Tay-Sachs allele (2pq) can be calculated as:
2pq = 2 * p * q2pq = 2 * sqrt(3599/3600) * (1/60)2pq = 0.0944
Therefore, approximately 9.44% of the Ashkenazi population consists of heterozygous carriers of the Tay-Sachs allele.
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____ neutralizes the acidic chyme as it enters the small intestine.
Answer: Bicarbonate neutralizes the acidic chyme as it enters the small intestine.
Explanation: I looked it up + trust me bro
If a DNA molecule contains a total of 600 bases and 20% of the bases are cytosine, how
many bases will be Adenine?
There are 180 adenine bases in the given DNA molecule if DNA molecule contains total of 600 bases and 20% of the bases are cytosine.
In general , 20% of the bases are cytosine, we know that 20% of the bases are also guanine, since C+G=T+A=100%. Thus, the total percentage of cytosine and guanine in the DNA is 40%. To determine the percentage of adenine, we can subtract the total percentage of cytosine and guanine (40%) from 100% to get the percentage of thymine and adenine. 100% - 40% = 60%.
Also, percentage of adenine in the DNA molecule is also 30% (since adenine pairs with thymine). To find the actual number of adenine bases, we need to multiply this percentage by the total number of bases in the DNA molecule: 0.30 x 600 = 180 So, there are 180 adenine bases in this DNA molecule.
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Before the RNA can leave the nucleus, it must be modified and edited.
Sections on the RNA molecule that are not involved in the making of the protein are called ____ and will be ____.
Answer:
RNA polymerase and Nucleus
Explanation:
Riddle #2
I am found inside of the nucleus. I help produce
ribosomes. I am the
Explain the elements needed in the nursing assessment of mrs. rogers’ musculoskeletal system.
Since the patient has an osteoporosis history, a musculoskeletal assessment is necessary.
In musculoskeletal assessment, the nurse should Inspect the axial and appendicular skeletons for alignment, contour, symmetry, size, and gross deformities.
Bones and muscles must be palpated to check for tenderness, heat, and oedema. The nurse should percuss the spine for tenderness.
Assessment of joints for motion should be done for this the nurse should know the expected movement of every joint. The muscles must be tested for strength bilaterally.
The patient's past surgeries, injuries and illness must be recorded with the family history of disease associated with musculoskeletal (for example, arthritis, osteoporosis, etc)
Disclaimer: The question is not complete.
Jolly Rogers, a 72-year-old female client who lives alone in a townhouse, arrives to the medical-surgical unit after falling down seven icy steps in front of her home.
The vital signs are T. 97° F; BP, 130/80 mm Hg; HR, 88 beats/minute; RR, 22 breaths/minute. She is 5 feet 4 inches tall and weighs 120 lb. She has a history of osteoporosis and diabetes controlled with diet.
The client stated that she has pain in her right arm rated as 6/10, and pain in her right hip rated as 8/10. There is visible bruising and swelling at the right elbow.
The right leg appears shorter than the left leg, with external rotation of the leg and inability to move it and bruising and oedema at the site. The LPN/LVN needs to perform a complete musculoskeletal system assessment.
Explain the elements needed in the nursing assessment of Mrs. Rogers' musculoskeletal system.
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Some students were building a model of a
digestive system. Which choice best
describes a process they should show with
their model?
F Tissues digest food for the organ
system to absorb.
GCells digest food, which is then
absorbed by organs.
Organs digest food by working
together as a system.
(H)
The organ system uses specialized
cells to digest food.
The digestive process is divided into four steps: ingestion, chemical and mechanical food breakdown, nutrient absorption, and expulsion of indigestible food.
What does the digestive process entail?
The digestive process starts as soon as something is chewed. In order for food to pass more easily through your esophagus and into your stomach, saliva, a digestive juice produced by your salivary glands, moistens the food. The carbs in food also begin to be broken down by an enzyme found in saliva.
Motility, digestion, absorption, and secretion are the four fundamental functions of the digestive system. Our digestive system transforms our food into energy that we can use.
The digestive system's initial function is to take in food through the mouth. The "ingesting" procedure must take place before anything else can happen.
The complete question is:
Some students were building a model of a digestive system. Which choice best describes a process they should show with their model?
a) F Tissues digest food for the organ system to absorb.
b) G Cells digest food, which is then absorbed by organs.
c) Organs digest food by working together as a system.
d) The organ system uses specialized cells to digest food.
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how does concentration of tomato juice affect germination of seeds
Answer: The greater the concentration of inhibitors the less chance the substrate molecules have of binding with the active site (hence reactions slow and no germination). ... My results do show that tomato juice has a significant effect on the germination of cress seeds.
Explanation:
Which base in an anticodon will pair with the base adenine in a codon?.
Answer:
In an anticodon the base that will pair with the base adenine in a codon is uracil.
Explanation:
1
2
10
TIME REMAINING
01:58:43
When a person strikes and lights a match, potential energy in the match is transformed into which types of energy?
electrical and thermal
thermal and radiant
radiant and nuclear
nuclear and kinetic
Answer:
Thermal and radiant
Explanation:
Thermal energy is energy in the form of heat (such as fire). Light energy is a form of radiant energy. When a match is struck it creates fire which creates heat (thermal energy) and light (radiant energy) so the two types of energy that the match is transformed into are thermal and radiant.
what is polymer for carbohydrates?
Answer:
Disaccharides and Polysaccharides are polymers of Carbohydrates.
Explanation:
In are the risks of derivatives manageable?, thomas a. Bass posits that market failures were due in part to mismanagement of derivative investments. What does he recommend?.
In "Are the risks of derivatives manageable", Thomas a. Bass posits that market failures were due in part to mismanagement of derivative investments and in which he recommends widespread regulation of derivatives or a complete ban. Hence, option A.
A securities is considered a derivative if its price is based on, or derived from, one or more underlying assets (such as interest rate, stocks, commodity, etc.). It is a contract between (at least) two parties based on the asset(s), and its value is determined by changes in the underlying asset.
Although derivatives are useful for hedging risks, they also create hazards that must be handled like any financial products. Thomas A. Bass contends that improper management of derivatives investments is the root of market failure and urges that derivatives be strictly controlled or outlawed.
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Question correction:
In are the risks of derivatives manageable?, thomas a. Bass posits that market failures were due in part to mismanagement of derivative investments. What does he recommend?
A. Bass recommends widespread regulation of derivatives or a complete ban.
B. Bass recommends further use of derivatives as a source of investment for banks and hedge funds.
C. Bass recommends a safety net for banks who fail due to their use of derivatives, citing the ethical nature of the investment.
D. Bass recommends implementing aggressive strategies to maximize returns in managing investments of wealthy private investors.
Why is active transport necessary
for cells?
A. Diffusion is a very slow process.
B. Molecules can only enter the cell through
ports in the membrane.
C. Sometimes molecules can't get through the
cell membrane on their own.
Answer:
B. Molecules can only enter the cell through ports in the membrane.
Explanation:
PLEASE MARK ME AS BRAINLIEST
Answer:
B. Molecules can only enter the cell through ports in the membrane.
The concentration of sodium ions is ____ in the cytosol of the cell at rest than it is in the surrounding extracellular fluid.
The concentration of sodium ions is lower in the cytosol of the cell at rest than it is in the surrounding extracellular fluid.
At rest, the cell membrane maintains an unequal distribution of ions, known as the resting membrane potential.
Sodium-potassium pumps (Na+/K+ ATPases) actively transport sodium ions out of the cell and potassium ions into the cell.
This process results in a higher concentration of sodium ions in the extracellular fluid and a higher concentration of potassium ions in the cytosol.
The concentration gradient for sodium ions helps maintain the cell's resting membrane potential and supports the function of the sodium-potassium pump.
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defective α-receptors on his arterioles causing him to be less responsive to norepinephrine. true or false
The statement given "defective α-receptors on his arterioles causing him to be less responsive to norepinephrine." is true because If an individual has defective α-receptors on their arterioles, it means that these receptors are not functioning properly.
The α-receptors are responsible for mediating the response to norepinephrine, a neurotransmitter and hormone that plays a key role in regulating blood pressure and vascular tone. When α-receptors are defective or less responsive, the individual may experience reduced vasoconstriction and decreased sensitivity to norepinephrine's effects. This can lead to difficulties in maintaining normal blood pressure and cardiovascular function. Therefore, the individual would be less responsive to norepinephrine due to the defective α-receptors.
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which type of joint predominates in the upper limb?
The main type of joint predominating in the upper limb is the synovial joint, providing flexibility and a wide range of motion.
The upper limb consists of various bones, including the humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges. Synovial joints are the most common type of joint found in the body, and they provide a wide range of motion and flexibility.
Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a joint cavity, articular cartilage, synovial fluid, and a joint capsule. The articular surfaces of the bones involved in synovial joints are covered with smooth cartilage, which allows for smooth movement between the bones. The joint cavity is filled with synovial fluid, which lubricates the joint and provides nutrients to the articular cartilage.
In the upper limb, examples of synovial joints include the shoulder joint (glenohumeral joint), elbow joint (humeroulnar and humeroradial joints), wrist joint (radiocarpal joint), and various joints in the hand and fingers (intercarpal, carpometacarpal, metacarpophalangeal, and interphalangeal joints).
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mastering during a contraction, what part of the sarcomere does not shorten? i band. a band. h zone. the entire sarcomere.
During a contraction, the A band shortens, while the I band and the H zone lengthen.The sarcomere is the basic unit of contraction in a muscle.
It is made up of actin and myosin filaments, as well as several other proteins that aid in the contraction process. During a contraction, the sarcomere shortens, causing the muscle to contract. However, not all parts of the sarcomere shorten equally. In the sarcomere, the I band is the lightest-colored band and consists of only actin filaments. The H zone is the area in the center of the sarcomere that consists of only myosin filaments. Finally, the A band is the darkest-colored band in the sarcomere and consists of both actin and myosin filaments.
During a contraction, the A band shortens, while the I band and the H zone lengthen. Therefore, the correct answer to this question is that the I band does not shorten during a contraction.During a contraction, the A band shortens, while the I band and the H zone lengthen. Therefore, the correct answer to this question is that the I band does not shorten during a contraction.
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Select the correct answer. Which statement about natural selection is true? A. Natural selection and evolution are two terms for the same phenomenon. B. Natural selection is an outdated theory to explain how evolution took place. C. Natural selection is the process by which organisms with more beneficial traits are more likely to survive and reproduce. D. Natural selection is the process by which organisms develop variation in traits, which gives them a better chance of survival.
Answer:
C. Natural selection is the process by which organisms with more beneficial traits are more likely to survive and reproduce.
Explanation:
Natural selection is an evolutional process by which species of living organisms with stronger or more beneficial traits have higher chances of survival and reproduction. In other words, it is the process by which organisms adapt and survive.
Organisms in a population are all different in their own ways. And those with characteristics or traits better suited for the environment are more likely to survive than those without. The selection prefers more beneficial traits and not wholly on the superiority of the organism. So, the survival and reproduction chance of an organism depends on the presence of traits beneficial to the environment, which is how nature selects. And in this process, those selected will dominate the population while those rejected will be reduced or even die.
Thus, the correct answer is option C.
Which theory of plate movement relies on the weight of the subducting crust?
A. Slab-push
B. Slab-pull
C. Mantle convection
D. Hot plumes
Answer:
The answer is slab-pullExplanation:
Got it right on the quiz :))
Differences between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells
Answer:
eukaryotic cells have a membrane-bound nucleus and prokaryotic cells do not.
Explanation:
Eukaryotes have many membrane-bound organelles while prokaryotes have no membrane-bound organelles.
which energy conversion takes place in some plant cells, but never in animal cells?
enzymes, which are biological catalysts that are used to speed up reactions, are susceptible to changes in temperature and ph. if the temperature in our body exceeds a certain temperature, our enzymes are at risk for denaturing.
Enzymes are biological catalysts that are sensitive to changes in temperature and pH. High temperatures and extreme pH levels can lead to denaturation, rendering the enzymes inactive. This highlights the importance of maintaining suitable conditions for enzymes to function properly in our body.
Enzymes are biological catalysts that play a crucial role in speeding up reactions in our body. However, they are susceptible to changes in temperature and pH. When the temperature in our body exceeds a certain point, our enzymes are at risk for denaturing.
Denaturation is a process in which the shape and structure of an enzyme change, rendering it inactive. This occurs because enzymes are proteins, and high temperatures can disrupt the intricate folding patterns that are essential for their function. For example, if the temperature in our body exceeds 40°C (104°F), enzymes such as amylase, which helps break down starches, can become denatured and lose their ability to catalyze the reaction effectively.
Similarly, pH, which measures the acidity or alkalinity of a solution, can also impact enzyme activity. Each enzyme has an optimal pH range at which it functions best. Deviations from this range can lead to denaturation. For instance, pepsin, an enzyme involved in protein digestion in the stomach, functions optimally at a low pH of around 2. If the pH becomes too acidic or basic, pepsin can denature and lose its catalytic activity.
In summary, enzymes are biological catalysts that are sensitive to changes in temperature and pH. High temperatures and extreme pH levels can lead to denaturation, rendering the enzymes inactive. This highlights the importance of maintaining suitable conditions for enzymes to function properly in our body.
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