jim has 6 apples, he gave away 2 apples, how many apples does jim have left

Answer:

x=4

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.

13−4x=1−x

13+−4x=1+−x

−4x+13=−x+1

Step 2: Add x to both sides.

−4x+13+x=−x+1+x

−3x+13=1

Step 3: Subtract 13 from both sides.

−3x+13−13=1−13

−3x=−12

Step 4: Divide both sides by -3.

-3x ÷ -3 = -12 ÷ -3

x=4

Hoped this helped!

☆*: .｡. o(≧▽≦)o .｡.:*☆

The solution for the linear equation 13 - 4x = 1 - x is:

x = 4

Here we want to solve the linear equation:

13 - 4x = 1 - x

For x, to do so, we just need to isolate the variable in one of the sides of the equation.

First we can add 4x in both sides:

13 - 4x + 4x = 1 - x + 4x

13 = 1 + 3x

Now subtract 1 in both sides:

13 - 1 = 1 - 1 + 3x

12 = 3x

Finally, divide both sides by 3:

12/3 = 3x/3

4 = x

That is the solution.

Learn more about linear equations at:

https://brainly.com/question/1884491

#SPJ6

5x-13y+2 hope this helps []~(￣▽￣)~*

The volume of the solid generated by revolving the triangle about the -axis is (8π/3).

The region enclosed by the -axis, the line y = 2, and the curve y = -x is a triangle with base 2 and height 2.

To find the volume of the solid generated by revolving this triangle about the -axis, we can use the method of cylindrical shells.

The volume of each shell is given by the formula:

V = 2πr * h * δr

where r is the distance from the -axis to the shell, h is the height of the shell, and δr is the thickness of the shell.

We can express r as a function of y, since each shell corresponds to a vertical slice of the triangle:

r = y

The height of each shell is given by the difference between the -axis and the curve y = -x:

h = 2 - (-x) = 2 + x

Finally, the thickness of each shell is δr = dy.

Therefore, the volume of the solid is:

V = ∫[0,2] 2πy * (2 + y) dy

= 2π ∫[0,2] (2y + y^2) dy

= 2π [y^2 + (1/3)y^3] |[0,2]

= (8π/3)

Therefore, the volume of the solid generated by revolving the triangle about the -axis is (8π/3).

Learn more about volume here

https://brainly.com/question/27710307

#SPJ11

Answer:

1. x = 8

2. x = 12

3. x = 11

4. x = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

1.

102 + 102 = 204

360 - 204 = 156

156 / 2 = 78

78 = 10x - 2

78 + 2 = 10x

80 = 10x

80 / 10 = x

x = 8

2.

81 = 7x - 3

81 + 3 = 7x

84 = 7x

84 / 7 = x

x = 12

3.

77 = 6x + 11

77 - 11 = 6x

66 = 6x

66 / 6 = x

x = 11

4.

115 + 115 = 230

360 - 230 = 130

130 / 2 = 65

65 = 8x + 17

65 - 17 = 8x

48 = 8x

48 / 8 = x

x = 6

Answer:

2One-fifteenth

Step-by-step explanation:

\(3\frac{13}{15} - 1\frac{4}{5}\)

\(2\frac{13 - 12}{15}\)

2 \(\frac{1}{15}\)

Answer:

Slope is undefined

Step-by-step explanation:

slope = \(\frac{\Delta y}{\Delta x}\)

\(\frac{5-8}{-7-(-7)}=\frac{-3}{0}\)

Anything divided by zero is undefined

This should make sense visually as the points describe a vertical line at \(x=-7\)

Answer:

2,265.60 ft/hr

Step-by-step explanation:

168ft/6min = 28ft/min * 60min= 1,680ft/hr

472ft/12.5min= 37.76ft/min * 60min= 2,265.60ft/hr

Using the unit conversion of 1 gram = 1000 milligrams, one serving of gourmet ice cream has 25,000 milligrams of fat.

We have,

The concept used here is unit conversion.

We converted the quantity from grams to milligrams by multiplying it by the conversion factor between grams and milligrams, which is 1,000 milligrams per gram.

This is based on the fact that there are 1,000 milligrams in one gram.

To convert grams to milligrams, we need to multiply the number of grams by 1,000 since there are 1,000 milligrams in 1 gram.

So,

25 grams x 1,000 milligrams/gram

= 25,000 milligrams

Thus,

One serving of gourmet ice cream has 25,000 milligrams of fat.

Learn more about unit conversion here:

https://brainly.com/question/13899873

#SPJ3

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Sorry I can't explain how it is done. It is very difficult to explain on paper.

Answer:

\( \frac{6}{(x + 2)} \)

Step-by-step explanation:

\( \frac{2x + 2}{x + 2} \div \frac{4 {x}^{2} +8 x + 4}{12x + 12} \\ \\ = \frac{2(x + 1)}{x + 2} \div \frac{4( {x}^{2} + 2x + 1) }{12(x + 1)} \\ \\ = \frac{2(x + 1)}{x + 2} \div \frac{( x + 1)^{2} }{3(x + 1)} \\ \\ = \frac{2(x + 1)}{x + 2} \times \frac{3(x + 1)}{ {(x + 1)}^{2} } \\ \\ = \frac{6 {(x + 1)}^{2} }{(x + 2) {(x + 1)}^{2} } \\ \\ = \frac{6}{(x + 2)} \)

(a) To find the mean and variance of the service times, we can use the given discrete distribution.

The mean can be calculated by taking the weighted average of the service times: Mean = (1 * 0.3) + (2 * 0.3) + (3 * 0.4) = 0.3 + 0.6 + 1.2 = 2.1 minutes
To find the variance, we need to calculate the squared deviations from the mean and then take the weighted average: Variance = [(1 - 2.1)^2 * 0.3] + [(2 - 2.1)^2 * 0.3] + [(3 - 2.1)^2 * 0.4]
      = [(-1.1)^2 * 0.3] + [(-0.1)^2 * 0.3] + [(0.9)^2 * 0.4]
      = 0.363 + 0.003 + 0.324
      = 0.69

(b) The traffic intensity (ρ) is the ratio of the mean service time to the mean interarrival time. In this case, the mean service time is 2.1 minutes, and the mean interarrival time is given as 2.2 minutes. Therefore:

Traffic Intensity (ρ) = Mean Service Time / Mean Interarrival Time
                    = 2.1 / 2.2
                    = 0.9545

(e) The system throughput is the average number of customers served per unit of time. Since the interarrival times are exponentially distributed, the system throughput can be calculated as the reciprocal of the mean interarrival time:

System Throughput = 1 / Mean Interarrival Time
                 = 1 / 2.2
                 ≈ 0.4545 customers per minute

(a) The long-run average waiting time (excluding service time) for each customer can be calculated using Little's Law. Little's Law states that the long-run average number of customers in a stable system is equal to the product of the long-run average arrival rate and the long-run average waiting time. Since the system is single-server, the arrival rate is the same as the throughput. Therefore:

Long-run Average Waiting Time = Average Number of Customers / Throughput
                            = 1 / System Throughput
                            ≈ 1 / 0.4545
                            ≈ 2.2 minutes

(e) The long-run average number of customers in the system can also be calculated using Little's Law. It is equal to the product of the long-run average arrival rate and the long-run average time a customer spends in the system. Since the arrival rate is the same as the throughput, and the service time includes both waiting time and service time, we can subtract the waiting time from the total service time to find the time spent in the system:

Long-run Average Number of Customers = Throughput * (Mean Service Time - Waiting Time)
                                   ≈ 0.4545 * (2.1 - 2.2)
                                   ≈ -0.0454

The negative value indicates that, on average, there are no customers in the system, which suggests that the system is underutilized or not operating at its full potential.

Learn more about negative here: brainly.com/question/14719138

#SPJ11

Answer:

19/24

Step-by-step explanation:

Convert the mixed fraction to improper fraction:

3 1/6 = [(3 x 6) + 1] / 6 = 19/6

Convert 4 to a fraction = 4/1

So 3 1/6 ÷ 4 = 19/6 ÷ 4/1 = 19/6 x 1/4 = 19/24

8.8x\(10^{24}\) formula units of \(MgCl_2\) are equal to 4.868 moles of \(MgCl_2\).

To determine the number of moles of \(MgCl_2\) in 8.8x\(10^{24}\) formula units, you need to use Avogadro's number, which is the number of particles (atoms, molecules, or formula units) in one mole of a substance. Avogadro's number is approximately 6.022 x \(10^{23}\) particles per mole.

The formula for \(MgCl_2\) contains one Mg atom and two Cl atoms, so one formula unit of \(MgCl_2\) contains three particles.

To find the number of moles of \(MgCl_2\), we can use the following formula:

moles = number of particles / Avogadro's number

First, we need to calculate the number of formula units of MgCl2:

8.8x\(10^{24}\) formula units of \(MgCl_2\) / 3 particles per formula unit = 2.933 x \(10^{24}\) particles

Next, we can calculate the number of moles:

moles = 2.933 x \(10^{24}\) particles / 6.022 x \(10^{23}\) particles/mole

moles = 4.868 moles.

Therefore, 8.8x\(10^{24}\) formula units of \(MgCl_2\) are equal to 4.868 moles of \(MgCl_2\).

Learn more about moles at

https://brainly.com/question/20486415

#SPJ4

Answer:

GCF: 4

LCM: 60

If the probability of winning a game is 0.3, then the probability of losing a game is 0.7

Probability is a measure of the likelihood or chance of an event occurring, expressed as a number between 0 and 1, where 0 represents an impossible event and 1 represents a certain event.

The probability of losing a game can be calculated as the complement of the probability of winning the game.

Since the probability of winning the game is 0.3, the probability of losing the game would be

Probability of losing = 1 - Probability of winning

Substitute the values in the equation

= 1 - 0.3

Subtract the numbers

= 0.7

Learn more about Probability here

brainly.com/question/11234923

#SPJ4

I have solved the question in general, as the given question is incomplete.

The complete question is:

If the probability of winning a game is 0.3, then what is the probability of losing it?

Answer:

This isn't really that hard... ∠A = 166°

Step-by-step explanation:

Because ∠A and ∠B are corresponding angles of a set of parallel lines, that means they are equal, so you can use this equation to solve for x:\(7x+40=3x+112\) ⇒ \(4x=72\) ⇒ \(x=18\). To find ∠A, just substitute x for 18 and you'll get that ∠A equals 7 * 18 + 40 = 126 + 40 = 166°.

Answer:

Distance=Speed×Time

When speed is 40 kmph

Distance traveled by car =40×9

                                         =360 km

When speed is 60 kmph

Time taken to complete the journey =  

60

360

​  

                                                            =6 hours

Answer:

270 ÷ 6 = 45

45 x 6 = 270

45 x 9 = 405

The answer is 405

Hope it helped❤️

Answer:

  89

Step-by-step explanation:

On the first test, she got 3 more points than the average required, so she can afford to drop 3 points below the average on her second test. She needs 92-3 = 89 or better.

Answer:

Therefore, the approximate monthly payment is $548.85

Step-by-step explanation:

The amount of student loans Erica currently has = $34,006.00

The duration over which Erica is to pay back the loan = 7 years

The annual interest rate for the loan = 9.1%

Therefore, we have the geometric sequence formula is given as follows;

\(A_n = P( 1 + r)^n - M \times \left [ \dfrac{(1 + r)^n-1}{r} \right ]\)

Where;

M = The monthly payment

P = The initial loan balance = $34,006.00

r = The annual interest rate = 9.1%

n = The number of monthly payment = 7 × 12 = 84

Aₙ = The amount remaining= 0 at the end of the given time for payment

Substituting the values into the above formula, , we get;

\(0 = 34006 \times \left ( 1 + \dfrac{0.091}{12} \right )^{84} - M \times \left [ \dfrac{\left (1 + \dfrac{0.091}{12} \right )^{84}-1}{\dfrac{0.091}{12} } \right ]\)

\(M = \dfrac{34006 \times \left ( 1 + \dfrac{0.091}{12} \right )^{84} }{\left [ \dfrac{\left (1 + \dfrac{0.091}{12} \right )^{84}-1}{\dfrac{0.091}{12} } \right ]} \approx 548.85\)

Therefore, the approximate monthly payment = $548.85

Answer:

She's, "HOT"!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

- 3

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

y = - 3x + 9 ← is in slope- intercept form

with slope m = - 3

Parallel lines have equal slopes, thus

y = - 3x + 4 ← is the equation of a parallel line

Answer:

 $36,531.33

Step-by-step explanation:

You want to know the present value of $100,000 in 19 years at an interest rate of 5.3% compounded continuously.

The future value will be ...

  FV = P·e^(rt) . . . . . . . . principal p invested at annual rate r for t years

  100,000 = P·e^(0.053·19) . . . . . . . substituting given numbers

  P = 100,000·e^(-0.053·19) ≈ 36,531.33

The present value of the legacy is $36,531.33.

<95141404393>

Opportunity cost is the price of giving up an option. An opportunity cost is the price you pay for selecting a particular option over another. Opportunity cost is the benefits you lose by choosing one alternative over another one.”

The value of the next-highest-valued alternative use of a resource is what economists mean when they talk about its "opportunity cost." You cannot, for instance, read a book at home during the time you would have spent seeing a movie and spend the money you would have spent on something else.

Opportunity cost is frequently referred to as the second-best option. The loss of benefit that would have been realized if a different option had been taken is sometimes referred to as the alternative cost. The loss of advantage as a result of a change in decision is another way to explain it.

Learn more about opportunity costs  to visit this link

https://brainly.com/question/13036997

#SPJ4

Answer:

The only cross sections a sphere has is a circle.

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve by elimination, we need to get the coefficients of either x or y the same for both equations.

Let's first multiply the second equation by 2, so that the coefficients of x become opposite in sign:

-2x + 2y = -4

2x - 8y = -20

Now, we can add the two equations together to eliminate x:

(2x - 8y = -20)

(-2x + 2y = -4)

-6y = -24

Dividing both sides by -6, we get:

y = 4

Now, we can substitute this value of y into either of the original equations to solve for x. Let's use the first equation:

-2x + 2y = -4

-2x + 2(4) = -4

-2x + 8 = -4

-2x = -12

x = 6

Therefore, the solution is (x, y) = (6, 4).

Answer:

To solve this system of equations by elimination, we need to eliminate one of the variables, either x or y. Let's choose to eliminate y:

-2x + 2y = -4

x - 4y = -10

Multiplying the second equation by 2, we get:

-2x + 2y = -4

2x - 8y = -20

Now we can add the two equations to eliminate y:

-2x + 2y + 2x - 8y = -4 - 20

Simplifying, we get:

-6y = -24

Dividing both sides by -6, we get:

y = 4

Now we can substitute y = 4 into one of the equations to solve for x. Let's use the first equation:

-2x + 2y = -4

-2x + 2(4) = -4

Simplifying, we get:

-2x + 8 = -4

Subtracting 8 from both sides, we get:

-2x = -12

Dividing both sides by -2, we get:

x = 6

Therefore, the solution to the system of equations is (x, y) = (6, 4).

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

bcs 3 is the mode you do 3+3

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

3 is the model value of the given data because it repeats maximum number of time.

Answer:

Brainleist!

Step-by-step explanation:

See picture

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

\(L.H.S = 1^2+Sin^2A+Cos^2A+2SinA+2CosA+2SinACosA\\ \{(a+b+c)^2 = a^2+b^2+c^2+2ab+2bc+2ca\}\\ = 1 + (Sin^2A+Cos^2A) + 2SinA+2CosA+2SinACosA \\ \{Sin^2A+Cos^2A=1\}\\ = 1 + 1 + 2SinA+2CosA+2SinACosA \\ = 2(1 + SinA+CosA+SinACosA)\\ = 2(1^2 + (SinA+CosA).1+ SinACosA )\\ \{x^2+(a+b)x + ab = (x+a)(x+b)\} \quad here \quad x=1\\ = 2(1+SinA)(1+CosA).\\\)

Answer:23

Step-by-step explanation: