The change in HR is generally accomplished by a decrease in the resting phase is the increase in heart rate by exercise accomplished by shortening the duration of the working phase or resting phase of the cardiac cycle or both phases.
The cardiac cycle describes the function of the human heart from one heartbeat to the next. It is divided into two parts: diastole, during which the heart muscle rests and refills with blood, and systole, during which the heart muscle contracts and pumps blood. The heart immediately relaxes and expands after emptying to accept another input of blood returning from the lungs and other body systems, before contracting again to pump blood to the lungs and other body systems.
A normally functioning heart must be fully expanded before it can once again pump properly. Each cardiac cycle, or heartbeat, takes around 0.8 second to complete if the heart is healthy and beating at a rate of 70 to 75 beats per minute.
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what two categories were used to describe the effects of different classes of drugs in the tables throughout this concept?
The effects of different classes of drugs were categorized into two groups in the tables throughout this concept.
The tables in this concept classified the effects of different classes of drugs into two main categories: therapeutic effects and side effects. Therapeutic effects refer to the desired or intended effects of a drug that are beneficial for treating a specific condition or symptom.
These effects can vary depending on the drug and its mechanism of action, ranging from pain relief and reduction of inflammation to mood stabilization or lowering blood pressure. On the other hand, side effects encompass the unintended or undesirable effects that can occur alongside the therapeutic effects.
These side effects may range from mild and tolerable, such as drowsiness or nausea, to more severe or potentially harmful reactions. By categorizing the effects into these two groups, the tables provide a comprehensive overview of the benefits and potential risks associated with different classes of drugs.
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General procedures ( codes 20005-20999 ) are used for various anatmical strures and not limited to anyone body area. true or false
Which of the following changes in flow rate or in solute concentrations would NOT occur if the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber?
A) The blood volume reaching the outflow tube per unit time would increase.
B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase
C) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the blood outflow would increase or remain unchanged.
D) The filtration rate across the dialysis membrane would increase.
Answer:
The correct answer is - B) The osmotic concentration of proteins in the dialysate fluid would increase
Explanation:
If the blood inflow rate were increased, increasing the pressure in the dialysis chamber, there would be increase in the blood volume comes to the outflow tube per unit time. The filtration rate across the membrane would increase because the pressure in the chamber would be greater
The osmotic concentration of proteins would not be expected to increase in the dialysate fluid because proteins generally do not pass through the membrane
Which statement best describes the ciliary muscles and shape of the lens when focusing on close objects?
а.The ciliary muscles are relaxed to make the lens round.
b.The ciliary muscles are relaxed to make the lens flat.
c.The ciliary muscles are contracted to make the lens round.
d.The ciliary muscles are contracted to make the lens flat.
Answer:
d is correct am pretty sure
Explanation:
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why are regional and directional terms are extremely important in the medical and dental professions
Answer:
Below:
Explanation:
Understanding terminology ensures doctors and technicians have a shared method of communicating, which helps to avoid confusion when pinpointing structures and describing locations of lesions. Knowing your directional terms makes things clear and saves time!
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It's Muska
Emily thinks the perfect tomato sauce has 15 cloves of garlic in every 6 L of sauce. Raphael's tomato sauce has 25 cloves of garlic in every 9 L of sauce.
What will Emily think of the amount of garlic in Raphael's tomato sauce? Choose 1 answer:
A Raphael's tomato sauce has too much garlic. B Raphael's tomato sauce has too little garlic.
C Raphael's tomato sauce is perfect.
Based on the given information, Emily thinks the perfect tomato sauce has 15 cloves of garlic in every 6 L of sauce. this with Raphael's tomato sauce, which has 25 cloves of garlic in every 9 L of sauce, we can determine that:
Now, comparing the two ratios, we can see that Raphael's tomato sauce has a slightly higher amount of garlic per liter compared to Emily's tomato sauce. Given that Emily considers the perfect tomato sauce to have 15 cloves of garlic in 6 L of sauce, she would likely think that Raphael's tomato sauce has too much garlic (option A).
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An older adult client at an assisted living facility is in acute respiratory distress. The client's health record has a DNH order. What is the best description for a DNH order
DNH orders come in two different flavors. One is a categorical ban against being admitted to the hospital at any time.
What is DNH Disorder?The other is a broad advice to stay out of the hospital that leaves it up to the health care proxy to decide on an individual basis.
Both are acceptable, but the frail person may have to undergo an unnecessary hospitalization, run the risk of contracting something more serious at the hospital, and ultimately have poor quality of life at the end of life if the proxy does not know what a DNH is and the doctor does not explain the options to the proxy.
The individual will be allowed to die naturally without mechanical or chemical intervention.
Therefore, DNH orders come in two different flavors. One is a categorical ban against being admitted to the hospital at any time.
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In addition to accurate documentation of the required "contents" of the medical record, the "timeliness of documentation" and "completeness of entries" are both elements of the medical record which must be met in order to lend to the "credibility of the medical record." Do you agree with the statement, "If it’s not documented, it wasn’t done?" Why or why not?
I agree with the statement, "If it's not documented, it wasn't done."
Documentation plays a crucial role in the credibility of the medical record. The timeliness of documentation ensures that important information is recorded promptly, providing an accurate representation of the patient's condition and the care provided. Completeness of entries ensures that all relevant details are documented, enabling comprehensive and informed decision-making by healthcare providers.
However, it is important to note that the absence of documentation does not necessarily mean that a particular action or procedure was not performed. There could be various reasons why a specific activity may not be documented, such as oversight, time constraints, or technical issues. Therefore, solely relying on the principle of "If it's not documented, it wasn't done" may overlook the actual occurrence of an event or treatment.
To ensure accurate representation and avoid potential misconceptions, healthcare providers should strive to maintain diligent and comprehensive documentation practices. However, it is also essential to consider other forms of evidence, such as witness accounts, verbal communication, and objective outcomes, to support the care provided, especially in situations where documentation may be lacking.
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who was convicted of illegaly administering a controlled substance without a license to practice medicine
Answer:
Muhammad Arif
Explanation:
After a five-day day jury trial, Muhammad Arif, 61, of Katy, Texas, was found guilty of one count of conspiracy to unlawfully distribute and dispense controlled substances and three counts of unlawfully distributing and dispensing controlled substances.
Your patient, Fluffy, has been prescribed Amoxicillin 300 mg orally daily as part of
his treatment for kennel cough. The pharmacy sends up Amoxicillin 600 mg
extended-release tablets. How many tablets do you give Fluffy?
identify a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells from the following list. identify a difference between embryonic and adult stem cells from the following list. it is easier to obtain embryonic stem cells. embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated; adult stem cells are partially differentiated. the use of embryonic stem cells raises fewer ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells. adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture.
Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated whereas adult stem cells are partially differentiated.
Embryonic stem cells are found in early stage embryos and are undifferentiated, meaning that they have not yet developed into a specific type of cell.
On the other hand, adult stem cells are partially differentiated, meaning that they have already developed into a specific type of cell. It is also easier to obtain embryonic stem cells than adult stem cells as it does not require a surgical procedure.
However, the use of embryonic stem cells raises more ethical issues than the use of adult stem cells. Furthermore, adult stem cells are easier to grow in culture than embryonic stem cells.
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When designing a fitness plan, what is the sequence of activity that should be used?
When designing a fitness plan, warm-up, conditioning, and cool-down are the sequence of activity that should be used.
What comes first in creating a personal fitness plan?Assessing your current level of fitness is the first step in developing a successful fitness program. This is because it enables you to create a fitness plan with a training intensity that you can handle and set realistic targets. Additionally, it lessens your chance of hurting yourself from overtraining.
What should you set up as the initial component of your training plan?Frequency. The first aspect of your workout schedule to establish is frequency—how frequently you will work out. Frequency frequently depends on several variables, including the kind of exercise you perform, how hard you work, your level of fitness, and your exercise objectives.
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What is the root word and suffix
for retinopathy
Answer:
tino, pathy
Explanation:
Some communication tips
Answer:
1. Make communication a priority. ...
2. Simplify and stay on message. ...
3. Engage your listeners or readers. ...
4. Take time to respond. ...
5. Make sure you are understood. ...
6. Develop your listening skills, too. ...
7. Body language is important. ...
8. Maintain eye contact.
Explanation:
Learning task 3 identify whether the cleaning procedure to be done in each tool or equipment
The cleaning procedure for each tool or equipment must be done regularly in order to ensure proper hygiene and to prevent the spread of diseases.
Each tool and equipment has a unique cleaning procedure. The following are the cleaning procedures that need to be followed for different tools and equipment: Power tools: Power tools should be cleaned after every use to remove dust and debris. The cleaning process should involve disassembling the tool and cleaning each part with a brush or compressed air.
Nail guns: Nail guns should be disassembled and cleaned after every use. The cleaning process should involve wiping down each part with a clean cloth and lubricating the moving parts. Chainsaws: Chainsaws should be cleaned after every use to remove wood chips, sawdust, and other debris. The cleaning process should involve disassembling the chainsaw and cleaning each part with a brush or compressed air.
Garden tools: Garden tools should be cleaned after every use to remove dirt and debris. The cleaning process should involve wiping down each tool with a damp cloth and lubricating any moving parts. Kitchen equipment: Kitchen equipment should be cleaned after every use to prevent the growth of bacteria and to maintain hygiene. The cleaning process should involve disassembling the equipment and cleaning each part with a mild detergent and hot water.
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Give a description of how hormone-sensitive lipase is controlled and its mechanism of action
Answer:
Function of hormone sensitive lipase
The main function of hormone-sensitive lipase is to mobilize the stored fats . HSL functions to hydrolyze either a fatty acid from a triacylglycerol molecule, freeing a fatty acid and diglyceride, or a fatty acid from a diacylglycerol molecule, freeing a fatty acid and monoglyceride.
Explanation:
i checked quizlet
Which abbreviation stands for the arm?
Answer:
UE
Explanation:
Which report is sent to the patient by the payer to clarify the results of claims processing?
The report sent to the patient by the payer to clarify the results of claims processing is called an Explanation of Benefits (EOB) report.
An EOB report is a detailed document that provides information about the claims that have been processed by the insurance company, including the amounts that have been paid, the amounts that the patient is responsible for, and the reasons why certain claims were denied or reduced.
EOB reports are typically sent to the patient after the claims have been processed, and are designed to help the patient understand the results of the claims processing process.
The EOB report will also provide information about any remaining balances or charges that the patient is responsible for, as well as any steps that the patient can take to resolve any issues or disputes.
In summary, the Explanation of Benefits (EOB) report is a critical tool for patients in understanding the results of the claims processing process, and is sent by the payer to the patient to provide clear and concise information about the claims that have been processed.
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What nutrient provides the body with more stored energy than carbohydrates?
A.Protein
B.Lipids
C. Simple sugar
D.Cholesterol
Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.
Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10 times greater than the RDA.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.
Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.
Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.
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When performing the secondary assessment on a confused patient, which one of the following signs would be most suggestive of a seizure?
a. Warm skin
b. Bruises to the arms
c. Bleeding tongue
d. Pinpoint pupils
When we performing the secondary assessment on the confused patient the sign of Pinpoint pupils appear so option D is correct.
Pinpoint pupils are an important sign of various medical conditions and can be indicative of a range of issues, from neurological problems to drug use. Pinpoint pupils are when the pupil size is abnormally constricted, typically less than 2 millimeters in diameter. This is in contrast to a normal pupil size, which ranges from 2-4 millimeters. Pinpoint pupils can be caused by a variety of different factors, such as drugs, neurological stimulation, eye injury, and even certain medications. When it is caused by drugs, such as opioids, pinpoint pupils are often accompanied by other signs of intoxication such as slurred speech and slowed reflexes. Neurological stimulation can also cause pinpoint pupils,
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Complete the sentence.
Medication administration technology uses
to dispense the right medication to the right patient.
Answer:
Medicare is a government national health insurance program in the United States, begun in 1965 under the Social Security Administration (SSA) and now administered by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). It primarily provides health insurance for Americans aged 65 and older, but also for some younger people with disability status as determined by the SSA, including people with end stage renal disease and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS or Lou Gehrig's disease)
1. a physician can practice at many locations. each location is covered by many physicians, usually his friends. a physician must have at least one location. at times a location may not have a physician as these facilities are used to just collect patient samples through an attendant nurse practitioner. draw the relationship between just the physician and the practice location.
In the given scenario, we can represent the relationship between a physician and a practice location using an entity-relationship diagram.
The relationship can be depicted as follows:
Physician <-------- Practice Location
The arrow represents a one-to-many relationship, indicating that a physician can be associated with multiple practice locations. However, each practice location is covered by many physicians, which suggests a many-to-many relationship. To simplify the representation, we can consider the primary association between an individual physician and a specific practice location.
It's important to note that while a physician can have multiple practice locations, there might be instances where a practice location does not have a physician permanently assigned to it. These locations may only be used for collecting patient samples through an attendant nurse practitioner. This situation implies a temporary or intermittent association between the location and the physician.
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HCPCS level II codes are: a. sometimes replaced by HCPCS level III temporary codes. b. intended for use by all private and public health insurers. c. maintained by the AMA's Editorial Board, which makes decisions about additions, revisions, and deletions. d. updated by CMS when necessary, without participation by the HCPCS National Panel.
Answer:
HCPCS Level II codes are alphanumeric medical procedure codes, primarily for non-physician services such as ambulance services and prosthetic devices,. They represent items, supplies and non-physician services not covered by CPT-4 codes (Level I).
Explanation:
Lactic acidosis is a dangerous human condition in which too much lactate builds up in the body, lowering the ph of the blood. It has many causes, including a genetic abnormality in which pyruvate builds up in tissues and is then converted to lactic acid. Given what you know about cellular respiration, propose what cellular defect this subset of patients with lactic acidosis might have.
A deficiency in mitochondrial oxygen utilization or reduced oxygen supply are the cellular defects, patients with lactic acidosis might have.
What is lactic acidosis?The accumulation of lactic acid in the bloodstream is referred to as lactic acidosis. When oxygen levels drop below a certain threshold in cells that are located in regions of the body that are responsible for metabolic processes, lactic acid is generated.
The most prevalent cause of lactic acidosis is a serious medical disease, specifically one in which blood pressure is low and an insufficient amount of oxygen is reaching the tissues of the body. Intense exercise or convulsions might produce transient lactic acidosis.
Lactic acidosis causes abdomen or stomach pain, decreased appetite, diarrhea, quick, shallow breathing, general discomfort, muscle pain or cramping, and unusual drowsiness, fatigue, or weakness.
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The healthcare provider can legally release private healthcare information, without patients’ consent, for all of the following except:
With the exception of the following circumstances, a healthcare provider cannot lawfully disclose a patient's confidential health information without that patient's consent.
What are the exception when a healthcare provider cannot lawfully disclose a patient's confidential health information without that patient's consent.when a medical emergency necessitates prompt treatment.when the disclosure of the information is mandated by a subpoena or a court order.when elder or child ab use or neglect is suspected.when there is a risk to the general welfare or security, as with infectious diseases.when doing so is mandated by law, such as when certain communicable diseases must be reported to public health authorities.In all other circumstances, the patient's permission is required before the healthcare provider releases their personal health information.
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What is the primary reason to back up data entered into electronic health records?
a. in the event of a system failure, the EHR system can be recovered with accurate data
b. the work of physicians will be disrupted in the clinics if the system fails and there is no backup
c. administrators cannot continue to bill patients if the EHR fails and no backup exists
d. the interface engine will not be able to function if the EHR fails and no backup is available
The primary reason to back up data entered into electronic health records is in the event of a system failure, the EHR system can be recovered with accurate data. Here option A is the correct answer.
Electronic Health Records (EHRs) are digital versions of paper medical records. An EHR is a collection of patient health records that are saved in a digital format. A backup is a copy of data from a computer or electronic device that is kept separately from the original data.
This is done to secure the data from a sudden loss or corruption. The importance of backing up data in EHR is very high as a loss of data due to system failure can put the lives of patients at risk. A backup of EHR data protects you from data loss in the event of a computer system failure. It ensures that critical patient data is safe and protected.
In case of a system failure, the EHR system can be restored with accurate data if a backup of the EHR data is available. So, the primary reason to back up data entered into electronic health records is in the event of a system failure, the EHR system can be recovered with accurate data. Therefore option A is the correct answer.
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A physician ordered 1000ml of Iv solution to run over a 24 hour period. The drop factor of the iv tubing is 10gtts/ml. You would infuse
Answer:
How do you calculate IV drop factor?
If you simply need to figure out the mL per hour to infuse, take the total volume in mL, divided by the total time in hours, to equal the mL per hour. For example, if you have 1,000 mL NS to infuse over 8 hours, take 1,000 divided by 8, to equal 125 mL/hr. To calculate the drops per minute, the drop factor is needed.
what is nectar consistency
Answer:
nectar is thick
Explanation:
which is the progenitor of platetes
Answer:
The progenitor of the platelets is called a megakaryocyte.
Explanation:
Platelets are blood structures, which participate in the process of blood clotting. They are also known as thrombocytes.
The process of platelet formation is called thrombopoiesis, and it consists of
Formation of megakaryoblasts from the hemocyte, a hematopoietic precursor cell. Megakaryoblasts produce megakaryocytes. Megakaryocytes are precursors to platelets.Each megakaryocyte must fragment to form the thrombocytes or platelets.