In order to establish the expiration date of perishable food, growth curve data must be collected. Once the microbial load is so high that it poses a hazard to human health, the food item is no longer considered safe (expired). Generally a load of x50,000 bacteria/gram is considered unsafe.
Your task is to determine the microbial growth curves for MicroYo, a new brand of yogurt. The growth is determined by sampling the yogurt and growing the bacterial isolates in broth culture which is then serially diluted by a total of x10,000 and inoculated onto standard petri plates of nutrient agar. The following colony counts are measured. Based on this data and considering the information in the paragraph above regarding safe levels, Please choose the last possible day to enjoy the yogurt before there is a dangerous level of bacteria:
Time (days) Micro Yo colony count #
1 1
4 1
12 2
16 4
20 7
a. 4
b. 16
c. 20
d. 12
Answers
Answer:
c. 20.
Explanation:
The answer is 20 because on 20 days, 7 colonies of Micro Yo occurs. The data of bacterial growth indicates that population of bacteria increases with the passage of time. This increase occurs due to good environmental conditions for bacteria that allows it to grow and increase their population. So we can say that the growth graph moves in the upward direction with the passage of time or number of days.
Related Questions
1.True/False: A chemical bond CAN be broken with ZERO energy input
O True
False
Answers
False. A chemical bond can only be broken with a significant amount of energy input. Breaking a chemical bond requires the input of energy
Types of chemical bonds ?
There are several types of chemical bonds that form between atoms, including:
Ionic bonds
Covalent bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Metallic bonds
Coordinate covalent bonds (also known as dative bonds)
Each of these different types of chemical bonds has distinct properties and strengths that determine the structure and behavior of the molecules and compounds they form.
False. A chemical bond can only be broken with a significant amount of energy input. Breaking a chemical bond requires the input of energy in the form of heat, light, or mechanical force, among others, in order to overcome the attractive forces holding the atoms together in the bond. The energy required to break a bond is known as the bond dissociation energy or bond energy.
It is not possible to break a chemical bond with zero energy input as this would violate the law of conservation of energy, which states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to another.
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How does adenosine triphosphate (ATP) become adenosine diphosphate (ADP)?
ATP stores energy as a phosphate bond is formed.
ATP releases energy as a phosphate bond is formed.
ATP releases energy as a phosphate bond is broken.
ATP stores energy as a phosphate bond is broken.
Answers
The correct answer is ATP releases energy as a phosphate bond is broken.
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is converted into ADP (adenosine diphosphate) when a phosphate group is removed from ATP, resulting in the release of energy. This process is known as hydrolysis, where water molecules are used to break the bond between the terminal phosphate group and the rest of the molecule.
During cellular metabolism, ATP serves as the primary energy currency of the cell. When energy is required for various cellular processes, the phosphate bond in ATP is broken by an enzyme called ATPase. This enzymatic hydrolysis reaction cleaves off one of the phosphate groups, resulting in the formation of ADP and an inorganic phosphate molecule (Pi). The released phosphate group is then available to be used in other cellular reactions.
The conversion of ATP to ADP is an essential part of energy metabolism in cells. The energy released during this process is utilized to drive various cellular activities, such as muscle contraction, active transport of molecules across cell membranes, and synthesis of macromolecules. Once ATP is converted to ADP, it can be further hydrolyzed to AMP (adenosine monophosphate) if more energy is needed. Ultimately, the energy stored in ATP is released when the phosphate bond is broken, allowing cells to perform their vital functions.
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Which of the following events takes place during the mitotic phase of the cell cycle?
O Duplication of DNA
Duplication of
DNA
Duplication of
centrioles
Which of the following events takes place during the mitotic phase of the cell cycle?
Separation of Chromosomes
Duplications of centrioles
Division of Cytoplasm
Separation of
chromosomes
Division of
cytoplasm
Answers
The events that takes place during the mitosis are separation of chromosomes, duplication of centrioles, division of cytoplasm, separation of chromosomes and division of cytoplasm.
Phases of mitosisThe majority of the cell's life is spent in the interphase, just before prophase, where mitosis's start-up is prepared for (the DNA is copied). The prophase is technically the first phase of this process, though, because the actual process requires the division of the nucleus. The duplicated chromosomes are aligned, separated, and transferred to the cell's opposite poles during the multistep mitotic phase, after which the cell divides into two brand-new, identical daughter cells.The cell divides its cytoplasm and divides its DNA into two sets during the mitotic (M) phase to produce two new cells.For more information on mitosis kindly visit to
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4. (15) Some dog breeds are either black (BB, Bb) or brown (bb). However, the ability to create pigment (colour) is the result of a separate gene. For black or brown color to show, the AA or Aa must also be present; if not, the aa genotype results in no colour (albino/white). All responses must include the dihybrid Punnett squares with the results clearly stated. lting from a croce between two completely
Answers
The color of dog breeds can be black (BB or Bb) or brown (bb), and the ability to create pigment depends on the presence of the A gene (AA or Aa). The aa genotype results in no color (albino/white). Punnett squares can be used to predict the possible genotypes and phenotypes resulting from a cross between two dogs.
To determine the possible outcomes of a cross between two dogs, we can use a dihybrid Punnett square. Let's assume one dog is black (BbAa) and the other is brown (bbAA).
The Punnett square for the BbAa x bbAA cross would look like this:
Bb Ba
bb | Bbba | Bbaa
bb | bbba | bbba
From the Punnett square, we can see that there are four possible genotypes for the offspring: Bbba, Bbaa, bbba, and bbba. Among these genotypes, the Bbba and Bbaa genotypes will result in black-colored dogs, while the bbba and bbba genotypes will result in brown-colored dogs.
It's important to note that the presence of the A gene is necessary for color to be expressed, so the aa genotype would result in no color (albino/white) regardless of the B gene.
In summary, the use of a dihybrid Punnett square allows us to predict the possible genotypes and phenotypes of offspring resulting from a cross between dogs with different color and pigment gene combinations.
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Which shows the most direct path that carbon can take through the carbon cycle? plant ® atmosphere ® animal animal ® plant ® atmosphere plant ® animal ® atmosphere atmosphere ® animal ® fossil fuel
Answers
The most direct path that carbon can take through the carbon cycle is: plant ---> atmosphere ---> animal.
What is the carbon cycle?The carbon cycle refers to the various processes by which carbon flows through the ecosystem.
The carbon cycle involves processes which remove carbon and other processes which release carbon into the atmosphere.
The most direct path that carbon can take through the carbon cycle is plant ---> atmosphere ---> animal.
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Answer:
The answer is C) plant ® animal ® atmosphere
Explanation:
what's the difference between the leaf cell and root cell in osmosis and physiological support
Answers
Answer: Cells in plant roots do not contain chloroplasts because they are not exposed to light. The chloroplasts contain green pigments called chlorophyll.
Explanation:
Question 6 of 15
Time and velocity are both vectors.
A. True
B. False
SUBN
Answers
Answer:
true
Explanation:
because we need both
6. During the 1990s, natives of tropical islands began collecting wild turtles to sell in the United States as pets. One of these turtle species, a voracious carnivore that feeds on shrimp and snails, was especially popular. Recently, the U. S. government banned the import of these turtles as pets. However, pet owners have released large numbers of unwanted turtles into warm natural waters of the Gulf of Mexico.
Predict two possible consequences of the release of these turtles into Gulf waters, including the effect on native turtle species. Justify your response.
Answers
Two possible consequences of the release of these turtles into Gulf waters, including the effect on native turtle species are
Competition with native turtle speciesAlteration of ecosystem dynamicsWhat are possible consequences of the release of these turtles into Gulf waters?An invasive turtle species poses direct competition with native turtles within Gulf of Mexico, resulting in possible shrinkage in population sizes for the latter group. Resource scarcity driven primarily by competition over access to nests, habitats and food sources can render natives less effective at these activities compared to their new rivals.
Furthermore, identifying underlying consequences triggered by invasive species' potential alteration of ecosystem dynamics (eg: substantial loss or balanced gain) remains crucial for further consideration. The issue of climate change represents an imminent danger that threatens the well-being of our planet. Swift action from all corners of society is required, including private citizens, companies, and governing bodies across national borders.
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Suppose there were many chloroplasts in the cells of the upper epidermis. How would that change the amount of sunlight reaching the chloroplasts in the palisade layer?
Answers
Suppose there were many chloroplasts in the cells of the upper epidermis. The change the amount of sunlight reaching the chloroplasts in the palisade layer is that: The palisade mesophyll chloroplasts would receive less light if the top epidermis contained chloroplasts since they would absorb the majority of the sun's energy.
Do chloroplasts exist in the top epidermis?A single layer of cells, with few or no chloroplasts, makes up this layer. Since the cells are relatively transparent, most of the light that reaches them can reach the cells below. A waxy, waterproof cuticle covers the upper surface of the leaf, preventing water loss from the leaf.
Therefore, Palisade cells are the ones with the most chloroplasts per cell, making them the main location of photosynthesis in the leaves of plants that have them. Photosynthesis is the process by which light energy is transformed into the chemical energy of carbohydrates.
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Genetics is the study of genes and their inheritance.
True or False
Answers
Answer: I thinks it’s true.
Explanation:
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
I'LL MARK THE BRAINLIEST!
What is a gene, and what does it do?
A} A gene is section of a chromosome that contains instructions for building a protein.
B} A gene is a section of RNA that builds proteins.
C} A gene is a protein that speeds up chemical reactions.
D} A gene is a chromosome that contains instructions for building DNA.
Answers
Answer:
A
Explanation:
They are specific areas of a chromosome that code for building proteins
If a woman with normal vision that carried an allele for color blindness X N X n married a man with normal vision(XNY), what would be their possible offspring
Answers
To see a general view of a microscope slide, use _____ power. If you need to see a more specific and detailed view, use _____ power.
Answers
Answer:
Low; high.
Explanation:
A microscope can be defined as an optical device that is typically used to make an enlarged (magnified) image of a minute (small) object and as such reveals all the little information about the object that cannot be seen by the natural human eye.
Basically, a microscope is used for viewing very little objects, microorganisms and cells found in living organisms such as humans, animals and plants.
The interchangeable lenses found in a microscope which are close to the specimen being observed are called objective lenses. These objective lenses comprises of low power objective and high power objective. To see a general view of a microscope slide, use low power. If you need to see a more specific and detailed view, use high power.
Hence, the field of view (FOV) is largely dependent on the objective lens being used, it is largest (general view) for low power and smallest (specific and detailed view) for high power.
NEED HELP ASAP !!!
it’s for science !
Answers
Wedge -------- Can split and object
pully ------ uses a rope can change the direction of a force
inclined plane ------- is a ramp
wheel and axle ---- reduces the amount of friction when an object is being moved
lever ------- similar to a seesaw can lift an object
Answer:
Wedge: Can split apart an object-
Pully: uses a rope; can change the direction of a force
Inclined plane: is a ramp
Wheel and axle: reduces the amount of friction when an object is being moved
Lever: similar to a seesaw; can lift an object
Explanation:
If they waited long enough, a person living in any single location in the world could create a sky map with every known constellation.
O A. True
О в. False
Answers
Your nasal passages (nostrils) lead to which type of depression?
sinus
tuberosity
ramus
facet
Answers
Answer:
Compared to people without sinus issues, those with chronic rhinosinusitis and nasal polyps were 41 percent more likely to develop depression after the sinus issue was diagnosed and 45 percent more likely to develop anxiety, the study found
Explanation:
what is a gorilla? not from a zoo...
Answers
A single gene with two alleles control variation in haemoglobin type in sheep. There are three different phenotypes corresponding to genotypes S^AS^A S^AS^B and S^BS^B respectively in a flock of 175 sheep the frequency of allele S^A was found to be 0.6 and frequency of allele S^B WAS found to be 0.4
Answers
Populations in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium express the same allelic and genotypic frequencies through generations. Number of individuals expressing each phenotype: 63 sheep S^AS^A, 84 sheep S^AS^B, 28 sheep S^BS^B.
What is Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium theory states that allelic and genotypic frequencies in populations that is in equilibrium remain the same through generations. No evolutive forces are acting on these populations, so no evolution occurs.
Assuming a diallelic gene,
Allelic frequencies
The frequency of the dominant allele f(X) is pThe frequency of the recessive allele f(x) is qGenotypic frequencies
p² (Homozygous dominant genotypic frequency), 2pq (Heterozygous genotypic frequency), q² (Homozygous recessive genotypic frequency).The addition of the allelic frequencies equals 1
p + q = 1.
The sum of genotypic frequencies equals 1
p² + 2pq + q² = 1
In the exposed example,
Alleles Frequencies
S^A f(S^A) = p = 0.6S^B f(S^B) = p = 0.4Genotypes
S^AS^A ⇒ homozygousS^AS^B ⇒ heterozygousS^BS^B ⇒ homozygousWe need to get the number of animals expressing each genotype and phenotype. To do it, we just need to use allelic frequencies and calculate genotypic frequencies (p², 2pq, and q²), and then multiply these values by the total number of animals (N = 175).
Genotypic and Phenotypic frequencies
F(S^AS^A) = p² = 0.6² = 0.36
F(S^AS^B) = 2pq = 2 x 0.6 x 0.4 = 0.48
F(S^BS^B) = q² = 0.4² = 0.16
Number of individuals expressing each phenotype
S^AS^A ⇒ 0.36 x 175 = 63 individualsS^AS^B ⇒ 0.48 x 175 = 84 individualsS^BS^B ⇒ 0.16 x 175 = 28 individualsYou can learn more about the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium at
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Complete question
A single gene with two alleles control variation in haemoglobin type in sheep. There are three different phenotypes corresponding to genotypes
S^AS^A S^AS^B and S^BS^BIn a flock of 175 sheep the frequency of allele S^A was found to be 0.6 and frequency of allele S^B WAS found to be 0.4.
Using the hardy weinberg equation calculate the number of sheep with each phenotypes in the flock show your working
list the four main categories of spinal nerves
Answers
The cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral regions are the four divisions of the spinal cord.
The 31 pairs of spinal nerves are located where?The cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal levels of the spine each have 31 pairs of spinal nerves: cervical nerves in 8 pairs (C1-C8). Thoracic nerves come in 12 pairs (T1-T12). five sets of lumbar nerves (L1-L5). There are 31 pairings in humans: 1 coccygeal, 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 5 sacral. Each pair joins a certain part of the body to the spinal cord. Each spinal nerve splits into two roots close to the spinal cord.
What are spinal nerves and what do they do?Between your brain, spinal cord, and the rest of your body, your spinal nerves transmit electrical messages. You may move your body and perceive feelings thanks to these electrical nerve signals (sensory nerve) (motor nerves).
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Which of the following is true regarding the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?
1) Efferent fibers originate in the thoracic and lumbar regions
2) It contains long preganglionic fibers
3) Ganglia are found near (or within) the target organs
4) It contains short postganglionic fibers
Answers
Efferent fibers originate in the thoracic and lumbar regions regarding the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. The correct option is A.
Thus, the origin of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is from the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord, which it is also called the thoracolumbar division from where signals are transmitted by the efferent fibers.
The signals are transmitted by the efferent fibers from the spinal cord to the sympathetic ganglia and are relatively short and are also known as preganglionic fibers. After synapsing with the ganglia, the postganglionic fibers then extend to the target organs in the autonomic nervous system.
Thus, the ideal selection is option A.
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Which type of replication error would be most likely to result in gene
variation among organisms?
Answers
1. Given the following DNA sequence, determine the correct order of amino acids.
GGCATGAGGTAA
2. For this mutated sequence:
• Determine the correct order of amino acids,
• How the two strings of amino acids will differ.
• also circle the mutation
GGAATGAGGTAA
Which of these is the change.
No Change-
1 Amino acid changed-
Premature stop signal -
No stop signal-
1 amino acid added/deleted -
All the amino acids changed after the point of mutation-
Answers
Answer: 1- CCGT ACT CCATT
2- CCTTACTCCATT
Explanation:
A-----T
C-----G
G-----C
T-----A
Large animals have specialized gas exchange systems. Fish use ______ and insects use ________.
A. spiracles, alveoli
B. pleural membrane, alveoli
C. gills, pleural membrane
D. gills, spiracles
Answers
Among animals, for gaseous exchange, Fish use gills and insects use spiracles. The correct option is D.
What is respiration?The procedure by which cells utilize oxygen to break down sugar and obtain energy is referred to as respiration.
There can be different organs for respiration in different animals. For example, human uses lungs, fishes have gills, insects have spiracles, etc.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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What are the stages of bee development (eggs,larvae,pupae)
Answers
The stages of bee development are egg, larva, pupa, and adult. Eggs hatch into larvae, which then transform into pupae. Finally, adult bees emerge and undergo further maturation.
The stages of bee development are:
1. Egg: The bee life cycle begins when the queen bee lays an egg in a honeycomb cell.
2. Larva: The egg hatches into a larva, which is a legless, grub-like creature. The larva is fed a special diet called royal jelly, which stimulates its growth.
3. Pupa: The larva undergoes metamorphosis and transforms into a pupa. Inside the sealed cell, the pupa undergoes various changes, developing into an adult bee.
4. Adult Bee: After completing the pupal stage, the fully developed adult bee emerges from the cell. The bee then undergoes further maturation, such as its exoskeleton hardening, wings expanding, and adult coloration appearing.
It's important to note that there are three castes of bees: queen, worker, and drone. The development process for each caste is similar, but the diet and size of the cells they are raised in differ, leading to their distinct roles within the colony.
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Pathogens have been mutating and sharing resistance genes for millions of years. As such they have developed some very effective methods to evade, subvert and destroy the immune response. Identify 2 methods of immune evasion. (1/2 point each for total of 1 point)
Answers
Pathogens have developed various methods to evade the immune response, including antigenic variation and inhibition of the immune response. These methods allow pathogens to continue to infect hosts and spread disease.
Pathogens have developed several methods to evade the immune response. Two of these methods are:
1) Antigenic variation: Some pathogens, such as the influenza virus, can change their surface antigens through mutation or recombination. This allows them to evade the immune response because the antibodies produced by the immune system no longer recognize the pathogen.
2) Inhibition of the immune response: Some pathogens can produce molecules that inhibit the immune response. For example, the HIV virus produces a protein called Nef that interferes with the function of T cells, which are important for the immune response.
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Describe the movement of K+ ions into the guard cell based on the model in Figure 1. Scientists crossed plants that were homozygous for the cyclin-dependent kinase-wild type (CDK-WT) allele with plants that were homozygous for the cyclin-dependent kinase-mutant (CDK-Mut) allele. The F1 offspring of this cross were then crossed, producing F2 offspring. Explain how the ratio of phenotypes in the F2 generation would demonstrate that the CDK-Mut allele is recessive.
Answers
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Label each process of sedimentary rock formation in the appropriate order.
Answers
Why postharvest physiology is important to maintain sustainable food supply on this planet. Please give named examples and discuss various biological factors associated with produce deterioration after harvest
Answers
Answer:
Postharvest physiology plays a fundamental role in extending the shelf-life and quality of plant products. An example of postharvest physiology methodologies is by reducing the temperature to improve shelf-life before consumption
Explanation:
Postharvest physiology refers to the methodologies used for extending shelf-life and quality, thus being a critical issue in food systems. Postharvest approaches include chemical treatments, temperature reduction, cleaning and disinfection methods, etc. Crop varieties are genetically selected in order to maintain nutritional qualities of stored seeds for a long time after harvest. These seeds are also controlled during storage by using postharvest handling practices (e.g., chemical and enzyme inhibitors that extend shelf life).
someone help me on this
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
h
Mark this and return
How is energy related to the change of state
represented by the model?
O Atoms gain energy as a gas changes to a solid.
Atoms gain energy as a gas changes to a liquid.
Atoms lose energy as a gas changes to a solid.
Atoms lose energy as a gas changes to a liquid.
Answers
The energy is related to the change of state represented by the model by: D. Atoms lose energy as a gas changes to a liquid.
What is Atoms?A model of the transition from a gas to a liquid is shown in the accompanying image. It demonstrates how atoms or molecules change from being widely scattered as in a gas to being concentrated as in a liquid.
The atoms in this process move from a higher-energy state to a lower-energy state releasing or losing energy in the process. The most common kind of energy loss is heat.
Therefore the correct option is d.
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