in an integer overflow attack, an attacker changes the value of a variable to something outside the range that the programmer had intended by using an integer overflow.T/F

Yes the graph of the function represents a linear piecewise function of x.

From the graph we can see that the function can be broken down into 3 distinct parts.

Let us take the first part of the graph which represents the function:

For values of x ranging from negative infinity to 0, the value of y is 2 .

So the function is of the form y = 2.

Now for the second slanting part of the function.

The function passes through the points (0,2) and (2,-2)

Slope of the line = (-2-2)/(2-0) = -2

Equation of the line :

y-2 = -2(x)

or, y + 2x = 2.

Now for the third part of the function is y = -2 for all x>2

Hence the piecewise function can be represented as for the domain of x:

     {2 , x < -2 }

y = {2-2x , -2 ≤ x ≤ 2}

     {-2 , x > 2}

Hence all parts are linear so the function is linear in nature.

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Answer:

0.6cm

Step-by-step explanation:

25 : 1

1 : 0.04

15 : 0.6

The present value of $2,500 per year for 10 years discounted back to the present at 7 percent is $17,462.03.

To calculate the present value of an ordinary annuity, we can use the formula:

PV = A * [1 - (1 + r)^(-n)] / r,

where PV is the present value, A is the annual payment, r is the discount rate per period, and n is the number of periods.

In this case, the annual payment is $2,500, the discount rate is 7 percent (or 0.07 as a decimal), and the number of periods is 10 years. Plugging in these values into the formula, we can calculate the present value:

PV = $2,500 * [1 - (1 + 0.07)^(-10)] / 0.07 ≈ $17,462.03.

Therefore, the present value of $2,500 per year for 10 years discounted back to the present at 7 percent is approximately $17,462.03. This represents the amount of money needed in the present to be equivalent to receiving $2,500 per year for 10 years with a 7 percent discount rate.

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Answer:

3.5555555555556

Step-by-step explanation:

you cannot find the Mean Absolute Deviation of one number. This answer is the data set 2, 9, and 0. 3.5555555555556 is the Mean Absolute Deviation of 2, 9, 0.

Answer:28

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 28

Explanation:  Look for a pattern or reason for the following number in the sequence. In this case 3+1=4, 4+3=7, 7+5=12, 12+7=19, so the probable answer is to add the following odd number to the last one in the line to get the next. (19+9=28)

Answer:

y = -3/2x + 13/2

Step-by-step explanation:

y = -3/2x + b

2 = -3/2(3) + b

2 = -9/2 + b

13/2 = b

Answer:

Number of minutes per lap = 2.25 minute

Number of lap per minute = 0.444 lap (Approx)

Time taken for 15 lap = 33.75 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Number of laps = 4

Time taken = 9 min

Computation:

Number of minutes per lap = 9 / 4

Number of minutes per lap = 2.25 minute

Number of lap per minute = 4 / 9

Number of lap per minute = 0.444 lap (Approx)

Time taken for 15 lap = 15 x 2.25

Time taken for 15 lap = 33.75 minutes

The solution to the linear function M(x) = 180 is of x = -5.

The linear function equation is the slope-intercept form. Thus, it is expressed as f(x) = mx + b where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept of the line.

In this problem, the function is defined as follows:

M(x) = 120 - 12x.

M(x) represents the balance remaining on the gift card after x movie tickets priced at $12 are purchased.

The domain of the situation is given as follows:

x ≥ 0. {discrete}

As the number of tickets cannot assume negative neither decimal values.

The equation is:

M(x) = 180.

The solution is calculated as:

120 - 12x = 180

12x = -60

x = -60/12

x = -5.

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Her journey was = 40-6 = 34 minutes less on Thursday than on Wednesday

If an object moves along a straight line, the distance travelled can be represented by a distance-time graph.

On Wednesday time taken= 40 minutes

On Thursday, time taken= 6 minutes

Her journey was = 40-6 = 34 minutes less on Thursday than on Wednesday.

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Answer:

All the reasons to prove that triangle MPQ is isosceles are mentioned below in the explanation section.

Step-by-step explanation:

1. NPQR, MN is congruent to MR

Reason: Congruency is defined as , any shape or geometry is become other by application of flips, translations, rotations, movement, angle change or the combination of any then these two shapes are congruent. Here, MR line and MN are one shape just angles are changed.

2. Angle of N ≅ Angle of R

Reason: It is true because the Triangle MNR is a isosceles triangle, having two equal angles and two same sides.

3. Triangle MNP is congruent to Triangle MRQ

Reasons: Because, firstly MN is congruent to MR, Angle of N and Angle of R is same, thirdly, NP is congruent to QR.

4. MP ≅ MQ

Reason: Similar side of congruent triangle MNP and MRQ.

5. Triangle MPQ is isosceles:

Reason: Because MP and MQ are congruent, hence triangle MPQ is isosceles with two equal angles and two equal sides because of congruency of MP and MQ.

We have to find the area under the graph but since we are not given the graph ,So let's learn how it is done. To estimate the area under the graph of function f from x, you can use rectangles. Here's how you can do it:

Step 1: Divide the interval [a, b] into six equal subintervals.
Step 2: Calculate the width of each rectangle by dividing the total width of the interval [a, b] by the number of rectangles (in this case, 6).
Step 3: For each subinterval, find the value of the function f at the right endpoint of the subinterval.
Step 4: Multiply the width of the rectangle by the value of the function at the right endpoint to find the area of each rectangle.
Step 5: Add up the areas of all six rectangles to estimate the total area under the graph of f from x.

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Answer:

The answer is 1.25 km = 1,250

                       1.7 cm =17 mm

                       345 m = 0.345 km K12 test.

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 1.25 km = 1,250

                      1.7 cm =17 mm

                      345 m = 0.345 km K12 test.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Diagonals of parallelogram bisect each other;

Substitute values:

11y + 33 = 14y - 12 ⇒ 14y - 11y = 33+12 ⇒ 3y = 45 ⇒ y = 15

3x + 5y = 6x + 3y ⇒ 6x - 3x = 5y - 3y ⇒ 3x = 2y ⇒ 3x = 30 ⇒ x = 10

Answer:

Below in bold,

Step-by-step explanation:

a. There's is only one card that fits this description so

Probability = 1/52.

b. There are 2 black Kings so

Probability = 2/52 = 1/26.

c. There are 2 of these - 7 of diamonds and 7 of hearts

so

Probability = 2/52 = 1/26.

d.  There 13 diamonds and 13 hearts so

Probability = 26/52 = 1/2.

e.  There  26 black cards

Probability = 26/52 = 1/2.

For a 15-class classification problem, the maximum number of discriminant vectors would be  14.

In Linear Discriminant Analysis (LDA), the maximum number of discriminant vectors that can be produced is equal to the number of classes minus one.

For a 15-class classification problem, the maximum number of discriminant vectors would be 15 - 1 = 14.

LDA aims to determine a linear combination of features that maximizes the separation between different classes while minimizing the variance within each class.

The resulting discriminant vectors are used to project the data onto a lower-dimensional space, where the classification task becomes simpler.

It's important to note that the number of discriminant vectors is determined by the number of classes and not the number of samples in the dataset.

However, it's also worth mentioning that in practice, the number of available samples and the characteristics of the data can impact the effectiveness of LDA and the interpretability of the results.

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Answer:

x = 21

Step-by-step explanation:

Givens:

Every triangle's interior angles add up to 180°

The triangle has a right angle.

The triangle is isosceles (two equal sides and two equal angles)

Let's make an equation with the information we have already.

2 × (2x + 3) + 90 = 180

4x + 6 + 90         = 180

4x + 96                = 180

4x                         = 84

x                           = 21

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I guess 6%?

Answer:

The answer is b

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: The answer is B

Step-by-step explanation:

I don't know how to explain it but I am sorry if it is wrong

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:   57.183= to the whole number= 58.183

Tenth= 57.180

Hundredth= 57.200

Answer:

Nearest Whole Number: 57

Nearest Tenth: 57.2

Nearest Hundredth: 57.18

*Note: When rounding to a place value the number after the place value you want determines whether the place value number says the same or goes up by 1. In order for the place value number to stay the same the number after has to be less than 5 and in order for the place value number to go up by 1 the number after has to be greater than or equal to 5.

The values of b and c for which the matrix is invertible, and rows are linearly independent. This is because b ≠ ±c, b ≠ 0, and c ≠ 0. The inverse of the matrix A, is  A^-1 = (5 -2, -2 1).

A product of elementary matrices, specifically A^-1 = E2 E1, where E1 is the matrix that corresponds to the first row operation, and E2 is the matrix that corresponds to the second row operation.

Geometrically, the row operations correspond to subtracting multiples of one vector from another, which preserves linear independence and therefore invertibility.

Every invertible matrix is a product of elementary matrices, since row operations can be represented by elementary matrices, and every invertible matrix can be row reduced to the identity matrix by a sequence of row operations.

To determine the values of b and c for which the matrix

(0 1 b)

(-1 0 c)

(-b -c 0)

is invertible, we can use the fact that a matrix is invertible if and only if its rows (or columns) are linearly independent. We can rewrite the matrix as

(0 1 0)  + b (0 0 -1) + c (0 1 0)

(-1 0 0)        (1 0 0)       (0 0 -1)

(-b -c 0)        (0 -b -c)     (b  c 0)

Now we can see that the rows are linearly independent if and only if the coefficients of b and c in the linear combination that gives the zero vector are both zero. This gives us the system of equations

b^2 + c^2 ≠ 0

b - c^2 ≠ 0

which we can solve to get

b ≠ ±c

b ≠ 0

c ≠ 0

Therefore, the matrix is invertible for all values of b and c that satisfy these conditions.

To find the inverse of the matrix

A = (2 4)

   (2 5)

we can use row reduction. We write the augmented matrix (A|I) as

(2 4 | 1 0)

(2 5 | 0 1)

and perform row operations to obtain

(1 2 | 1/2 0)

(0 1 | -2 1)

Then, we perform row operations again to get

(1 0 | 5 -2)

(0 1 | -2 1)

so the inverse of A is

A^-1 = (5 -2)

      (-2  1)

To write this in terms of elementary matrices, we can keep track of the row operations as follows:

(2 4 | 1 0)        (1 2 | 1/2 0)   (1 0 | 5 -2)

(2 5 | 0 1)   ->   (0 1 | -2 1)    (0 1 | -2  1)

A^-1 = E2 E1 = (1 0 | 5 -2) (1 -2 | 0 1)

Geometrically, each row operation corresponds to multiplying the matrix by an elementary matrix that represents a basic row operation. The first row operation corresponds to adding -2 times the first row to the second row, which geometrically means subtracting twice the vector (2,4) from the vector (2,5), resulting in the vector (1,0). The second row operation corresponds to adding -2 times the second row to the first row, which geometrically means subtracting twice the vector (2,5) from the vector (2,4), resulting in the vector (5,-2). Therefore, the row operations correspond to subtracting multiples of one vector from another, which preserves linear independence and therefore invertibility.

To prove that every invertible matrix is a product of elementary matrices, we can use the fact that row operations can be represented by elementary matrices, and every invertible matrix can be row reduced to the identity matrix by a sequence of row operations.

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Answer:

here is an an example

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x = the width of the rectangle

P = 2l + 2w

2(40) + 2x ≤ 150

80 + 2x ≤ 150

2x ≤ 70

x ≤ 35 cm

the answer is: 1/12

simple explanation is :50/100*1/6

The alternative hypothesis states that the difference is greater than zero.

What Are Tails in a Hypothesis Test?

First, we need to cover some background material to understand the tails in a test. Typically, hypothesis tests take all of the sample data and convert it to a single value, which is known as a test statistic. You’re probably already familiar with some test statistics.

For example, t-tests calculate t-values. F-tests, such as ANOVA, generate F-values. The chi-square test of independence and some distribution tests produce chi-square values. All of these values are test statistics.

Keep in mind that this t-distribution assumes that the null hypothesis is correct for the population. Consequently, the peak (most likely value) of the distribution occurs at t=0, which represents the null hypothesis in a t-test. Typically, the null hypothesis states that there is no effect. As t-values move further away from zero, it represents larger effect sizes. When the null hypothesis is true for the population, obtaining samples that exhibit a large apparent effect becomes less likely, which is why the probabilities taper off for t-values further from zero.

Hence the answer is the alternative hypothesis states that the difference is greater than zero.

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Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:6

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

( x - 1 ) ( 2x + 24)

Step-by-step explanation:

2x² + 22x - 24

P= -48 , S = 22 , F = 24 and -2

2x² - 2x + 24x - 24

2x (x -1) +24 (x -1)

(x - 1) (2x + 24)

Answer:

4\(x^{2} - 2x^{2} = 16\\x^{2} - 4 = 16\\ ||||-4 ||-4||\\x^{2} =20\\\\\sqrt{x} ^{2} = \sqrt{16} \\x = 4\)

Step-by-step explanation:

x

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the amount of gas in the tank before filling was x.

We have:

let the amount of gas be x

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x+2\dfrac{4}{7}=4\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x+\dfrac{18}{7}=4\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x=4-\dfrac{18}{7}\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x=\dfrac{28-18}{7}\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x=\dfrac{10}{7}\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x=1\dfrac{3}{7}\)

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation: