In a proposed business venture, Serena estimates there is a 65% chance she will make
$70,000 and a 35% chance she will lose $30,000. Determine Serena's expected value.

Answer:

the answer is a.

Step-by-step explanation:

two times the sum of x and seven plus ten

2(x+7)+10

It took Ringani 2.8 years  to accumulate the total amount of R30,000.00 by depositing R8,500.00 yearly into the account with a 7.04% interest rate Compounded annually.The correct answer choice is C. 2.8 years.

To determine how long it took Ringani to accumulate the total amount of R30,000.00 by depositing R8,500.00 yearly into an account with a 7.04% interest rate compounded annually, we can use the formula for compound interest:

A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)

Where:

A is the final amount

P is the principal amount (initial deposit)

r is the interest rate (in decimal form)

n is the number of times the interest is compounded per year

t is the time in years

In this case, we have:

P = R8,500.00

A = R30,000.00

r = 7.04% = 0.0704 (in decimal form)

n = 1 (compounded annually)

We want to find the value of t.

Using the formula, we can rearrange it to solve for t:

t = (log(A/P)) / (n * log(1 + r/n))

Substituting the given values, we have:

t = (log(30,000/8,500)) / (1 * log(1 + 0.0704/1))

Calculating this using a calculator, we find that t is approximately 2.8 years.

Therefore, it took Ringani approximately 2.8 years (rounded to one decimal place) to accumulate the total amount of R30,000.00 by depositing R8,500.00 yearly into the account with a 7.04% interest rate compounded annually.

The correct answer choice is C. 2.8 years.

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Answer:33/7

Step-by-step explanation:

The ratio of the students who own a pet to the total number of students in the pet school is 5:6 ; Therefore, using this ratio, the number of students who own a pet out of the total students of 900 will be 750

Therefore,a total of 750 students own a pet.

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Answer:

The answer is "1035.76 miles"

Explanation:

The aircraft flies at 120 mph for 1.5 hours at a \(10^{\circ}\) bearing, then flies at the very same speed at \(100^{\circ}\) bearings for 8.5 hours.

However an angle of \(100-10 = 90^{\circ}\) between displacements

First shifts\(= 1.5 \times 120 = 180\ miles.\)

Second shift \(= 8.5\times 120 = 1020\ miles.\)

These two shifts are at \(90^{\circ}\) and therefore the final shift is:

\(\to \sqrt{180^2+1020^2}=1035.76 \ miles\)

Answer: 15.

Step-by-step explanation: To find the slope, you need to use rise/run which is done below if you need a visual look at what I'm saying.  Before we use rise/run, we need two points on the line.  We'll use (2, 80), and (6, 140).  We need to go 60 up and 4 to the right to make the points meet.  Going up or down is the rise and left or right is the run.  Our rise/run is 60/4 or 15 when you divide.  Therefore, 15 is your slope for this equation of a line.

Have a great day! :)

Answer:

(8,-43)

(4,-22)

Step-by-step explanation:

In order for the ordered pair to be a solution of the inequality, you must be able to plug in the y-value of the ordered pair and it must be less than or equal to 0.

For example:

(4,-22)

x=4 ; y=-22

Plug y into the inequality

y≤0

-22≤0

Since the statement is true, I know that (4,-22) must be a solution to the inequality.

Another way to solve this problem is by graphing. If an ordered pair is in the shaded region, it is a solution to the inequality. Attached is a graph of both the inequality and ordered pairs plotted.

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Have a GREAT day!!!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To determine whether each ordered pair is a solution to the inequality y ≤ 0, we need to check if the y-coordinate of each pair is less than or equal to zero.

Let's check each ordered pair:

(8, -43):

The y-coordinate is -43. Since -43 is less than zero, this ordered pair is a solution to the inequality y ≤ 0.

(4, -22):

The y-coordinate is -22. Since -22 is less than zero, this ordered pair is a solution to the inequality y ≤ 0.

(-3, 25):

The y-coordinate is 25. Since 25 is greater than zero, this ordered pair is not a solution to the inequality y ≤ 0.

(-7, 45):

The y-coordinate is 45. Since 45 is greater than zero, this ordered pair is not a solution to the inequality y ≤ 0.

So, the solutions to the inequality y ≤ 0 are:

(8, -43) and (4, -22).

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Year 1: $850 * 0.91 = $773.50

Year 2: $773.50 * 0.91 = $704.69

Year 3: $704.69 * 0.91 = $641.95

...

Year 34: (continue the pattern)

We can continue this calculation for each year, but to save time, we can use an exponential decay formula:

Remaining Amount = Initial Amount * (1 - rate)^years

Substituting the values:

Remaining Amount = $850 * (1 - 0.09)^34

Calculating this expression:

Remaining Amount ≈ $850 * (0.91)^34 ≈ $255.88

After 34 years, approximately $255.88 will be left with Sally.

Answer:

x>2

Step-by-step explanation:

5x>2x+6 Subtract 2x from 5x

3x>6 Divide 3 by 6

x>2

Answer:

B. April

Step-by-step explanation:

The economic order quantity is 300 cases of tennis balls.

The economic order quantity (EOQ) is the minimum quantity that the distributor can order per order to minimize inventory costs.

Data and Calculations:

Sales of tennis balls for the coming year = 10,000 units

Carrying (holding) costs per case = $10

Cost of placing orders with the manufacturer = $45 per order

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) = square root of (2 * Annual Demand/Sales * Ordering cost)/Carrying cost per case

= square root of (2 * 10,000 * $45)/$10

= square root of 90,000

= 300 cases of tennis balls

This implies that the distributor will place about 33 orders (10,000/300) in the coming year.  With each order, the quantity placed is 300 units.

Thus, the economic order quantity that will minimize the California distributor's inventory costs for the year is 300 cases of tennis balls.

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

y=kx²

y₁=k(1)²=k

y₃=k(3)²=9k

y₁-y₃=k-9k=32

-8k=32

k=-4

y=-4x²

y₋₂=-4(-2)²=-16

Answer: C= 60 milligrams

Step-by-step explanation:

apply the formula

C = Divide[a,\(40)a+2\(41)]A

Answer:

8.604 in.

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use the formula for compound interest to find the height of domino #9:

A = P(1 + r)^n

where A is the final amount, P is the initial amount, r is the growth rate, and n is the number of compounding periods. In this case, P is the height of domino #0, r is 15% or 0.15, and n is 9 (since we want to find the height of domino #9).

Substituting the given values:

A = 3.00 in * (1 + 0.15)^9

Simplifying:

A = 3.00 in * 2.86797199

A ≈ 8.604 in

Therefore, the height of domino #9 is approximately 8.604 inches.

Answer:

1 / 13

Step-by-step explanation:

The total number of cards in a deck = 52

The total number of aces in a deck = 4

Since selection is drawn with replacement, then probability of drawing a certiaj number of card from the deck will be the same each time a selection is made :

Probability = required outcome / Total possible outcomes

The required outcome = number of aces = 4

Total possible outcomes = total number of cards = 52

P(drawing an ace) = 4 / 52 = 1 /13

Answer:

the probability that the two committees have at least one member in common is approximately 0.3622.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the probability that two committees have at least one member in common, we can use the complement rule, which states that the probability of an event happening is 1 minus the probability of the event not happening.

Let A be the event that the two committees have no members in common. To calculate the probability of A, we can first find the number of ways to choose three people out of 20 without any overlap, and then use this to find the total number of ways to choose two committees of three people each without any overlap:

Number of ways to choose 3 people out of 20 without overlap:

C(20,3) = (201918)/(321) = 1140

Number of ways to choose 3 people out of 20 with overlap:

C(20,3) - C(2,1)C(17,2) = 1140 - 2(2*136) = 680

The first term is the total number of ways to choose 3 people out of 20, and the second term is the number of ways to choose 3 people out of 20 such that one particular person is included. We multiply by 2 because there are two committees.

The total number of ways to choose two committees of three people each without any overlap is:

C(20,3) * C(17,3) = (1140*680) = 775200

Therefore, the probability that the two committees have no members in common is:

P(A) = 775200 / (C(20,3)*C(17,3)) = 0.6378

So the probability that the two committees have at least one member in common is:

P(at least one member in common) = 1 - P(A) = 1 - 0.6378 = 0.3622

Therefore, the probability that the two committees have at least one member in common is approximately 0.3622.

Answer:

24 cases of soda

Step-by-step explanation:

168÷7= 24

Answer:

He will deliver 24 cases of soda to each store.

Step-by-step explanation:

168 cases will be delivered to 7 different stores evenly.

Formula: 168/7 = 24

division is used to split the whole.

So, 24 should be the answer! I hope this helps!

Answer:

\(y - 4 = - 3(x - 2)\)

Answer:

The answer is definitely Option A

A normal distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 3 , the probability P(X ≤ 44) = P(Z ≤ -2) = 0.0241  option a) 0.025.

In probability theory, normal distribution is also known as Gaussian distribution. It is a probability distribution that is symmetrical, bell-shaped, and a continuous probability distribution. It's also a part of continuous probability distribution that describes real-valued random variables whose probability density function is affected by two parameters: the mean μ and the variance σ².

Let us consider the problem. Suppose a normal distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 3. Firstly, we need to standardize the random variable X that is to convert it to the standard normal distribution. We use the following formula for this Z = (X - μ) / σwhere X is the random variable and μ is the mean, σ is the standard deviation of the population.

So in this case, we can write this as Z = (44 - 50) / 3 = -2

We have now obtained the standard score or standard deviation for the random variable X.

Now we need to calculate the probability P(X ≤ 44) = P(Z ≤ -2).

The probability of Z being less than -2 is denoted by the area under the standard normal curve to the left of Z = -2.

Using the standard normal table we look for the probability that corresponds to -2 and the closest we find is 0.0228.

This probability represents the area under the standard normal distribution to the left of Z = -2.

To calculate the area to the left of Z = -2, we add the area to the left of the next integer, which is -3, which we find from the standard normal table as 0.0013, 0.0228 + 0.0013 = 0.0241.

Therefore, the probability P(X ≤ 44) = P(Z ≤ -2) = 0.0241 or 0.025 (rounded to three decimal places)Therefore, the answer is option A. 0.025.

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It will take approximately 3.54 minutes to paint the cone if it can be painted at the same rate. Rounded to the nearest tenth, this is 3.5 minutes.

What is the lateral area?

The lateral surface of an object is all of the sides of the object, excluding its base and top (when they exist). The lateral surface area is the area of the lateral surface. This is to be distinguished from the total surface area, which is the lateral surface area together with the areas of the base and top.

Let's call the radius of the cone "r". The area of the base of the cone is 49π in², so:

r² * π = 49π

r² = 49

r = 7

The lateral surface area of the cone is given by:

A = π * r * l = π * 7 * 4 = 28π

Using π ≈ 3.14, the lateral surface area is approximately:

A ≈ 3.14 * 7 * 4 = 88.56 in²

It takes 2.5 minutes to paint the cone, so the rate at which the cone can be painted is given by:

R = A / t = 88.56 / 2.5 = 35.424 in²/min

When the area of the base is doubled, the new radius is:

r' = √(2 * r²) = √(2 * 7²) = √(2 * 49) = √(98) = 7 * √(2)

The new lateral surface area is:

A' = π * r' * l = π * (7 * √(2)) * 4 = 28 * √(2)π

Using π ≈ 3.14, the new lateral surface area is approximately:

A' ≈ 3.14 * (7 * √(2)) * 4 = 126.12 in²

The time it takes to paint the new cone is given by:

t' = A' / R = 126.12 / 35.424 = 3.54 min

Hence, it will take approximately 3.54 minutes to paint the cone if it can be painted at the same rate. Rounded to the nearest tenth, this is 3.5 minutes.

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Answer:

y = 1/4x + 3

Step-by-step explanation:

lmk if you want an explanation

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

Since they are congruent, they would have the same length measures for their corresponding sides.

Answer:

9 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of rectangle= length ×width

Let the length of the rectangle be x inches.

Width of rectangle= (x +2) inches

since the width is 2 more than the length.

63= x(x+2)

63= x(x) +2x

Bringing constant to one side,

x² +2x -63= 0

(x +9)(x-7) = 0 (factorise)

x+9= 0 or x-7= 0

x= -9 or x= 7

(reject)

width of rectangle

= 7+2

= 9 inches

*We reject x= -9 since the length of the rectangle cannot be a negative number.

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  M = (S -C)/C

Step-by-step explanation:

Starting with ...

  S = C + MC

we want to solve for M.

  S - C = MC . . . . subtract the term not containing M

  (S -C)/C = M . . . . divide by the coefficient of M

Solved for M, the formula is ...

  M = (S -C)/C

Answer:

Hello...

Hello...Sally can paint a house in 4 hours; Which means in 1 hour she can paint 1/4th of the house.

Hello...Sally can paint a house in 4 hours; Which means in 1 hour she can paint 1/4th of the house.John can paint the same house in 6 hours. Which means in 1 hour she can paint 1/6th of the house.

Hello...Sally can paint a house in 4 hours; Which means in 1 hour she can paint 1/4th of the house.John can paint the same house in 6 hours. Which means in 1 hour she can paint 1/6th of the house.Together in 1 hour they can paint: - 1/4 + 1/6 = 5/12th of the house.

Hello...Sally can paint a house in 4 hours; Which means in 1 hour she can paint 1/4th of the house.John can paint the same house in 6 hours. Which means in 1 hour she can paint 1/6th of the house.Together in 1 hour they can paint: - 1/4 + 1/6 = 5/12th of the house.Total Hours for painting the house together will be 12/5 = 2.4 Hours.

hope it helps

The linear function that describes how many square feet of wall she can paint over time is y = 90x.

Each term in a linear equation has an exponent of 1, and when this algebraic equation is graphed, it always produces a straight line. It is called a "linear equation" for this reason.

Both linear equations with one variable and those with two variables exist.

Given the area painted by Sally in one hour = 90 square feet

so from the given data, we can find that the area painted by Sally is directly proportional to the time,

let she paint for x hours and the area she painted be y,

the equation for the condition is y = 90x,

where x is in hours and y is in square feet,

Table for the area she painted in first 4 hours

x(hours)           1         2        3         4

y ( sq. feet)     90   180    270     360

The graph for the first four hours is attached.

Hence the equation is y = 90x.

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Answer:

id say to have 15 more minutes of show time and to only pay about 2 dollars more, the more reasonable show would be the second one.

let's firstly convert the mixed fractions to improper fractions.

\(\stackrel{mixed}{3\frac{2}{3}}\implies \cfrac{3\cdot 3+2}{3}\implies \stackrel{improper}{\cfrac{11}{3}}~\hfill \stackrel{mixed}{2\frac{1}{4}} \implies \cfrac{2\cdot 4+1}{4} \implies \stackrel{improper}{\cfrac{9}{4}} \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ -\cfrac{11}{3}-\left( \cfrac{9}{4} \right)\implies -\cfrac{11}{3}+\cfrac{9}{4}\implies \cfrac{-(4)11~~ + ~~(3)9}{\underset{\textit{using this LCD}}{12}} \\\\\\ \cfrac{-44+27}{12}\implies \cfrac{-17}{12}\implies {\Large \begin{array}{llll} -1\frac{5}{12} \end{array}}\)

Putting y=-3 in second equation

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x-(-3)=8\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x+3=8\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x=8-3\)

\(\\ \sf\longmapsto x=5\)