If a perinate is documented as having sepsis without documentation of congenital or acquired, what is the default?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

congenital

Explanation:

If a perinate is documented as having sepsis without documentation of congenital or community acquired, the default is congenital and a code from category P36 should be assigned.


Related Questions

what is a chicken nugget?

Answers

It’s a chicken nugget

A hospital that focuses on providing treatment to a specific population is considered a: O Government run hospital O Religious organization run hospital Specialized hospital​

Answers

Answer:

specialized hospital

Explanation:

they will treat a certain criteria of people.

Adrian Thompson is a 19-year-old girl who presents to the clinic with complaints of severe, acute chest pain. Her mother reports that Andrian, apart from occasional sinus infections, Andrian is not prone to respiratory problems. What potential risk factor is most important to assess with regards to Adrian's current proble

Answers

Differentiating between life-threatening diseases, or not, is a critical point in the decision-making of the emergency physician to decide on the release or admission of the patient to the hospital and to start treatment, immediately.

Chest pain

The classic description of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome is pain or discomfort or burning or oppressive sensation located in the precordial or retrosternal region, which may radiate to the shoulder and/or left arm, right arm, neck or jaw, accompanied by often from

DiaphoresisNauseaVomiting or Dyspnea.

With this information, we can conclude that this acute chest pain may be related to a coronary problem and needs to be investigated.

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A 27 year old female approaches your ambulance. Which finding would indicate ineffective breathing might be the issue

A dry face
Blue lips and fingers
Yellow skin
Sweaty palms/hands

Answers

Blue lips and fingers as there is not adequate oxygen reaching all the cells, organs, limbs and extremities.

which of the following is true regarding anterior putuitary glands?
A.it releases hormones made by neuron in the hypothalamus
B.it does not have cell that can produce hormones
C.it is often referred as the "máster gland" of the endocrine system
D.is is not truly part of the endocrine system because it is regulated by the hypothalamus ​

Answers

Answer:

With respect to the anterior pituitary gland, it is true that it is often referred as the "master gland" of the endocrine system (option C).

Explanation:

The pituitary gland —also called hypophysis— divided into two parts, an anterior part called the adenohypophysis and a posterior part called the neurohypophysis.

The adenohypophysis or anterior pituitary gland is in charge of the secretion of hormones that serve to regulate the hormonal secretion of other glands, such as the thyroid, the suprarenal glands and the gonads. This is the reason why it is considered and often referred as the "master gland" of the endocrine system.

The neurohypophysis depends on the control of the hypothalamus and the neurotransmitters that this structure sends to the pituitary, releasing hormones whose effect is direct on the target organ.

The other options are not correct because:

    A. Anterior pituitary does not release hormones made by the neurons in the hypothalamus.

    B. Adenohypophysis has hormone-producing cells.

    D. The anterior pituitary is not regulated by the hypothalamus and is considered part of the endocrine system.

A certain type of ship has two tanks in its engine. Each tank contains a different type of fuel. When the engine turns on, the same amount of energy is transferred out of both fuels why did fuel 1 change phase, but fuel 2 stayed the same? Explain what happened to the molecules of both fuels

Answers

Answer:

Fuel 1 changed phase because the energy drawn from it dropped its temperature below the transitional temperature that causes a phase change, fuel 2 still has its temperature well above the transitional temperature required to change phase.

Explanation:

For a substance to change phase, a transitional temperature has to be reached. This is because, the temperature of substances generally indicates the average kinetic energy of its molecules. An increase in energy input to the system will result in a change to a more mobile phase like from solid to a liquid state or from a liquid state to a gaseous state state, while taking energy from the system will cause a transition to a less mobile phase like gas to liquid or liquid to solid state.

It can be deduced that Fuel 1 changed phase due to the fact that the energy drawn from it dropped its temperature below the transitional temperature which caused a phase change.

On the other hand, fuel 2 has its temperature above the transitional temperature that is required to change phase.

It should be noted that for a substance to change phase, then a transitional temperature has to be reached. This is due to the fact that the temperature of substances indicates the average kinetic energy of their molecules.

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A question provides the desired drug concentration = 10 mg/L, Volume of distribution = 25L and Clearance rate = 100 mL/min. But not given the bioavailability!
It did not specify whether the administration of drug is oral or IV. How to calculate the Loading dose? Is there any formulas?

Answers

The formula to calculate loading dose; Loading Dose = Desired Concentration x Volume of Distribution. The loading dose is 250 mg.

When the volume of distribution and clearance rate are known, and the drug concentration is desired, the loading dose is determined. Loading dose is the first dose given to a patient to rapidly reach the therapeutic level of a drug in the body.

The formula to calculate loading dose is as follows:

Loading Dose = Desired Concentration x Volume of Distribution.

The following factors can impact drug concentration: dose, bioavailability, clearance, and volume of distribution.

However, since bioavailability is not mentioned, we must work with the available information. The volume of distribution (Vd) of a drug refers to the apparent volume of the body where the drug is distributed after administration.

A drug with a larger Vd is distributed more throughout the body, indicating that it is highly lipophilic and accumulates in body tissues.

Clearance rate (Cl) refers to the rate at which a drug is eliminated from the body. It refers to the volume of blood cleared of the drug in a minute. 1 L of plasma is cleared of the drug for each Cl value.

In this question, the volume of distribution is 25L and the clearance rate is 100 mL/min. We will have to convert the clearance rate into litres per minute by dividing it by 1000.

Therefore, the clearance rate is 0.1 L/min. The loading dose is calculated using the following formula:

Loading Dose = Desired Concentration x Volume of Distribution.

Loading Dose = 10 mg/L x 25 L.Loading Dose = 250 mg. Therefore, the loading dose is 250 mg.

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a client with a spinal cord injury is to receive methylprednisolone sodium succinate 100 mg intravenously twice a day. the medication is supplied in vials containing 125 mg per 2 ml. how many ml will constitute the correct dose? enter the correct number only.

Answers

The correct dose maybe 1.6 ml. Use of high-dose methylprednisolone within eight hours of acute closed spinal cord injury as a therapy standard or as a treatment is not supported by enough research.

Within eight hours of a closed spinal cord injury, a bolus intravenous infusion of methylprednisolone at a dose of 30 mg per kilogram of body weight administered over fifteen minutes, followed 45 minutes later by an infusion of 5.4 mg per kilogram of body weight administered every hour for 23 hours, is the only course of treatment for which there is only weak clinical evidence (Level I- to II-1). If methylprednisolone infusion is chosen as a therapy option, there is not enough evidence to justify continuing it past 23 hours.

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select the correct answer. which type of stretching must be done under the supervision of a coach or a trainer?

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Dynamic stretching is a type of stretching that must be done under the supervision of a coach or a trainer.

Stretching that is movement-based is called dynamic stretching. It achieves a stretch by working the muscles directly. Due to the fact that the stretch posture is not maintained, it differs from conventional "static" stretching. By warming up the muscles and loosening the muscular fibers, dynamic stretching increases flexibility. As your muscles warm up, the fibers lengthen and loosen, enabling you to extend the stretch further.

Dynamic stretching improves muscle and joint mobility, which may aid in injury prevention. Dynamic hamstring exercises were found to increase range of motion and decrease passive stiffness in a recent study. These elements are linked to a lower incidence of hamstring strains, one of the most frequent injuries sustained during exercise.

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The registered nurse is making assignments for the day. Which client should be
assigned to the pregnant nurse?
a. The client receiving a blood transfusion for anemia.
b. The client with radium implant for cervical cancer.
c. The client who is admitted for severe shingles.
d. The client who has been restrained due to confusion and combative
behavior.

Answers

A. would be the answer

The client receiving a blood transfusion for anemia should be assigned to the pregnant nurse. So, the correct answer is (A).

What is Anemia?

In anemia, the body is unable to make enough red blood cells (RBCs). RBCs provide oxygen to the cells or tissues of the body. Low hemoglobin is related to having anemia which leads to feeling tired and weak. The most common cause of anemia is not having enough iron.

There are many forms of anemia which have their own causes. It can be temporary or long term which can range from mild to severe.

Signs and symptoms of anemia include

Tiredness, weakness, pale skin, irregular heartbeat,shortness of breath, etc.

Anemia is caused due to vitamin B12 deficiency. Anemia due to folate (folic acid) deficiency.

Thus, the client receiving a blood transfusion for anemia should be assigned to the pregnant nurse. So, the correct answer is (A).

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A nurse is reinforcing diet teaching to a client who has type 2 DM. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? Select all that apply.A. Carbs should comprise 55% of daily caloric intakeB. Use hydrogenated oils for cookingC. Table sugar may be added to cerealsD. Drink an alcoholic beverage w/mealsE. Protein foods can be substituted for carb foods

Answers

According to the research, the correct answer are Options A and D. The nurse should include in the diet teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus: Carbs should comprise 55% of daily caloric intake and the client may drink an alcoholic beverage w/meals.

What is type 2 diabetes mellitus?

It is the clinical syndrome characterized by a metabolic disorder that occurs in people with varying degrees of insulin resistance, that is, the body's cells are not capable of responding to insulin as they should.

In this sense, in already diagnosed diabetic patients, carbohydrates play a key role in their daily lives to manage their blood sugar level where complex carbohydrates, which have the characteristic of slow absorption, and drinking alcohol with a Carbohydrate-rich food is allowed but they should not consume more than one serving of alcohol per day.

Therefore, in case of type 2 diabetes mellitus, carbohydrate-rich foods should be consumed and alcohol is safe in moderation w/meals, thus the correct options are A and D.

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A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. What are teaching points the nurse can discuss with the client?

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Answer:

A nurse is reinforcing teaching about the pacemaker to a client who is preparing to undergo the procedure to have one placed for arrhythmias. ... Extraneous exercise can be harmful to the function of a pacemaker.

Exercise that ranges from moderate to vigorous, such as aerobic activity and strength training, is safe for those who have pacemakers. The best value is obtained by those who start moving after being idle. According to experts, even a brief amount of physical activity contributes to better health.Weightlifting or any other repetitive, severe motion of the upper extremities poses a risk of cracking or damaging the pacemaker's lead, which might render the device ineffective at controlling your heart rate.

Precautions should I take with my pacemaker or ICD?It is generally safe to go through airport or other security detectors. Avoid magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machines or other large magnetic fields.Avoid diathermy.Turn off large motors, such as cars or boats, when working on them.

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In Florida, insurance is regulated by how many different parties?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

Answers

Answer:

Assuming since this was posted in medicine that this is just for medical insurance. You are looking at 4 parties.

I also assume this question comes from a state-related review guide since this was a question on the study guide before. I remember getting this one correct. The answer is certainly 4.

which drug would be effective for the treatment of pituitary cushing’s syndrome?

Answers

For medical treatment of Cushing's disease, steroidogenesis inhibitors including mitotane, metyrapone, ketoconazole, and aminoglutethimide are preferred. Ketoconazole is generally the most well-tolerated of these medications and works in roughly 70% of patients when used as monotherapy.

The best treatment for Cushing's disease is surgical removal of an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor. However, if the patient cannot safely undergo surgery, if surgery fails, or if the tumor returns, medical therapy may play either a primary or supplementary role. When medicine is the only form of treatment, one significant drawback is the requirement for lifelong therapy; often, recurrence occurs after treatment is stopped. There are three main methods by which these substances function. Steroidogenesis inhibitors lower cortisol levels through adrenolytic activity and/or direct enzymatic inhibition, glucocorticoid antagonists block cortisol action at its receptor, and "neuromodulatory" substances control corticotropin (ACTH) production from a pituitary tumor.

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could anyone help me answer this?

could anyone help me answer this?

Answers

Answer:

Most likely A

Explanation:

In logic, equivocation is an informal fallacy resulting from the use of a particular word/expression in multiple senses within an argument.

(If I am wrong please tell me)

Who prescribes medication the psychiatrist or psychologist

Answers

Answer:

Psychiatrists

Explanation:

Psychiatrists can prescribe medicine, Psychologists can not.

Psychiatrists Mainly

hey this isnt education but in minecraft when i get diamonds whats the first thing i should craft if my goal is to not speedrun bc when i speedfun i get a picaxe duh for bsidian but if im in no hury whats my best option in the long haul also anybody else wach dream lol

Answers

I would preserve them in a chest if you need it for later.
Preserve them in a chest just like the other person said

Throughout the pregnancy, as the uterus enlarges and stretches, the uterine ____________ prepares itself for uterine contractions. In the later stages of pregnancy, the increasing levels of ____________ counteract the calming influence of ____________ on the uterine myometrium, and ____________ the uterine myometrium sensitivity.

Answers

During pregnancy, MYOMETRUM prepares for contractions. In the later stages, increasing levels of ESTROGEN counteract PROGESTERONE on the myometrium and INCREASE its sensitivity. Estrogen is a sex hormone.

Estrogen and progesterone are the main sex hormones that women have.

A woman produces a high level of estrogen during pregnancy in order to improve vascularization of the uterus and placenta.

This hormone (estrogen) promotes the production of receptors for oxytocin hormone in the myometrium.

Estrogen plays a fundamental role in expanding the myometrium during pregnancy and the contractile response before and during labor pregnancy.

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The Davidsons have just had a baby. Both parents must now adapt to the new demands of caring for an infant. This will require the form of intelligence that Sternberg calls _

Answers

Answer: good parenting ✋

Explanation:

The name of the specific Electronic Instument used to monitor physiological changes mostly regulated by the autonomic nervous? Please do not answer Bio-feedback. that is the result of utilizing the Electronic Instrument. Not the instument itself.

Answers

Answer:

Biofeedback is the process of gaining greater awareness of many physiological functions of one's own body, commercially by using electronic or other instruments, and with a goal of being able to manipulate the body's systems at will. Humans conduct biofeedback naturally all the time, at varied levels of consciousness and intentionality. Biofeedback and the biofeedback loop can also be thought of as self-regulation.[1][2] Some of the processes that can be controlled include brainwaves, muscle tone, skin conductance, heart rate and pain perceptions

How is ur day every body cuz mine is terrible

How is ur day every body cuz mine is terrible

Answers

Answer:

I am sooo sorry.. if you don't mind me asking what happened

Explanation:

Answer:

my day was horrible too i didnt know i didnt have school today and i woke up extra early super tired just to find out we have no school now im having trouble going back to bed so im staying up and im super tired

a pain scale of 1 to 10 is used by a nurse to assess a client's degree of pain. the client rates the pain as an 8 before receiving an analgesic and a 7 after being medicated. what conclusion should the nurse make regarding the client's response to pain medication?

Answers

The nurse may also want to ask the client about any side effects or adverse reactions to the medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for the client to continue taking.

What is Degree of Pain?

The "degree of pain" refers to the intensity or severity of a person's pain, as perceived by the individual experiencing it. Pain is a subjective experience, and the degree of pain can vary widely from person to person, even for the same type of injury or condition.

The degree of pain can be assessed using various pain scales, such as a numeric rating scale or a visual analog scale, which ask the person to rate their pain on a scale . Other factors that may be taken into consideration when assessing the degree of pain include the location, duration, and quality of the pain, as well as any factors that may aggravate or alleviate the pain, such as movement or medication.

The nurse can conclude that the client's response to the pain medication was positive, as the client's pain level decreased from an 8 to a 7 after receiving the analgesic. A reduction of one point on the pain scale may indicate that the medication has provided some relief for the client's pain.

However, it is also important for the nurse to reassess the client's pain level at regular intervals to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication over time. The nurse may also want to ask the client about any side effects or adverse reactions to the medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for the client to continue taking.

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A patient has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg PO every day for new onset atrial fibrillation. The APRN would include what information when teaching the patient?

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This is general information and not a substitute for professional medical advice. It's essential for the patient to have regular follow-up appointments with their healthcare provider to ensure proper management of their condition.

When teaching a patient who has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg PO every day for new onset atrial fibrillation, the APRN should include the following information:

1. Purpose of the medication: Explain to the patient that warfarin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent blood clots from forming. It is commonly prescribed for patients with atrial fibrillation to reduce the risk of stroke and other complications.

2. Importance of compliance: Emphasize the importance of taking warfarin as prescribed, every day, at the same time. Skipping doses or taking more than prescribed can increase the risk of clot formation or bleeding.

3. Regular monitoring: Inform the patient that regular blood tests, such as the international normalized ratio (INR), will be necessary to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin. These tests will help determine if the dosage needs to be adjusted.

4. Dietary considerations: Advise the patient to maintain a consistent diet and avoid drastic changes in vitamin K intake. Vitamin K can affect how warfarin works, so it's important to discuss any significant changes in diet with their healthcare provider.

5. Potential interactions: Explain that warfarin can interact with certain medications and herbal supplements, increasing the risk of bleeding. Instruct the patient to inform their healthcare provider about all the medications and supplements they are taking to avoid potential interactions.

6. Signs of bleeding: Educate the patient on the signs and symptoms of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, blood in urine or stool, and excessive bleeding from cuts or wounds. Instruct them to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

7. Emergency situations: Instruct the patient to carry a medical identification card or bracelet indicating their use of warfarin. Additionally, provide them with emergency contact information in case they have any concerns or experience severe bleeding.

Remember, this is general information and not a substitute for professional medical advice. It's essential for the patient to have regular follow-up appointments with their healthcare provider to ensure proper management of their condition.

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Cognitive behavioural therapy has an excellent record of success, particularly in
the treatment of ____.

Answers

Answer:

depression, anxiety, ptsd, phobias, eating disorders, ocd.

Explanation:

medical prescription: aminophylline 50 mg orally 8/8 hours. available: 5% aminophylline solution - 50ml bottles. how many ml should be given?

Answers

Answer:

To calculate how many mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given, we need to use the formula:

(amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available = volume of medication to be administered

Using this formula, we can calculate the volume of the aminophylline solution to be given as follows:

(amount of medication needed) = 50 mg (concentration of medication available) = 5% (volume of medication available) = 50 mL

First, we need to convert 50 mg to grams by dividing by 1000:

50 mg / 1000 = 0.05 g

Next, we need to calculate the amount of aminophylline solution required. We can do this by rearranging the formula as follows:

(volume of medication to be administered) = (amount of medication needed / concentration of medication available) x volume of medication available

(volume of medication to be administered) = (0.05 g / 0.05 g/mL) x 1 mL

(volume of medication to be administered) = 1 mL

Therefore, to administer 50 mg of aminophylline orally every 8 hours, 1 mL of the 5% aminophylline solution should be given.

Explanation:

Forensic linguistic evidence is only used as demonstrative evidence in courts of law.
False
True

Answers

Forensic linguistic evidence is only used as demonstrative evidence in courts of law. FALSE. This answer has been confirmed as correct and helpful.

Answer:

A.) False

I am pretty sure the answer is false

Morbid obesity due to excess calorie intake what is the main term?

Answers

Answer:

Class 3 obesity

Severe obesity and the technical code is E66. 01

The main term for morbid obesity due to excess calorie intake is "obesity."

Obesity is a medical condition characterized by the excessive accumulation of body fat, which can have significant negative effects on a person's health. When obesity is specifically attributed to excess calorie intake, it means that the individual is consuming more calories than their body requires for daily energy expenditure.

Excess calorie intake is a major contributor to weight gain and obesity. When a person consistently consumes more calories than their body needs for daily activities and functions, the excess calories are stored as fat. Over time, this can lead to significant weight gain and an increase in body fat percentage.

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What does this mean? Can someone do the first two? Thank you

What does this mean? Can someone do the first two? Thank you

Answers

The menu exchange diet calculations are a method of meal planning that involves grouping foods into categories or "exchanges" based on their macronutrient content. Each exchange represents a specific amount of carbohydrate, protein, and/or fat, and meals are planned by selecting a certain number of exchanges from each category.

In order to calculate the correct number of exchanges provided in the meal, we need to identify which category each food falls into and how much of each food is being consumed. Using the reference exchange food list and exchange chart, we can determine the number of exchanges for each food and add them up to get the total number of exchanges in the meal.

What is the Diet calculation  about?

Based on the provided menu and exchange food list, the number of exchanges provided in each meal are as follows:

Breakfast:

   2 starch/bread exchanges (1 cup oatmeal)

   1 fat exchange (1 tsp butter)

   1 fruit exchange (1/2 cup blueberries)

   1 milk exchange (1 cup 2% milk)

Lunch:

   2 starch/bread exchanges (2 slices whole wheat bread)

   2 meat exchanges (4 oz deli chicken and 1 slice Swiss cheese)

   1 fat exchange (1 Tbsp mayonnaise)

   1 vegetable exchange (1/2 cup carrot coins)

   1 fruit exchange (1/2 cup red grapes)

Supper:

   2 starch/bread exchanges (2/3 cup steamed rice)

   3 meat exchanges (4 oz broiled salmon)

   1 fat exchange (1 tsp butter and 1 Tbsp Ranch dressing)

   2 vegetable exchanges (1 cup salad greens and 1 cup broccoli)

   1 milk exchange (1 cup 2% milk)

Snack:

   1 fruit exchange (1 small apple)

   1 fat exchange (1 Tbsp peanut butter)

Using the chart and the number of exchanges provided in each meal, the total calories and macronutrient distribution for the day can be calculated as follows:

Breakfast:

   2 starch/bread exchanges (160 calories, 60% carb, 10% protein, 30% fat)    1 fat exchange (45 calories, 0% carb, 0% protein, 100% fat)    1 fruit exchange (60 calories, 90% carb, 5% protein, 5% fat)    1 milk exchange (90 calories, 50% carb, 30% protein, 20% fat)    Total: 355 calories, 57% carb, 14% protein, 29% fat

Lunch:

   2 starch/bread exchanges (160 calories, 60% carb, 10% protein, 30% fat)    2 meat exchanges (110 calories, 0-5% carb, 30-70% protein, 30-55% fat)    1 fat exchange (45 calories, 0% carb, 0% protein, 100% fat)    1 vegetable exchange (25 calories, 70% carb, 20% protein, 10% fat)    1 fruit exchange (60 calories, 90% carb, 5% protein, 5% fat)    Total: 400 calories, 57% carb, 22% protein, 21% fat

Supper:

   2 starch/bread exchanges (160 calories, 60% carb, 10% protein, 30% fat)    3 meat exchanges (165 calories, 0-5% carb, 45-105% protein, 105-165% fat)    1 fat exchange (45 calories, 0% carb, 0% protein, 100% fat)    2 vegetable exchanges (50 calories, 70% carb, 20% protein, 10% fat)    1 milk exchange (90 calories, 50% carb, 30% protein, 20% fat)    Total: 510 calories, 46% carb, 29% protein, 25% fat

Note that the macronutrient distribution for the meat exchanges is variable, depending on the type of meat (very lean, lean, medium-fat, or high-fat) and the number of exchanges consumed. For simplicity, I used the range of macronutrient distributions provided in the exchange chart for each category of meat. In practice, it may be necessary to adjust these values based on the specific type of meat and preparation method used.

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What does this mean? Can someone do the first two? Thank you

a public health nurse is using the epidemiological triad to better understand the factors that contributed to a disaster related to the production of harmful chemicals by a local factory. they know the presence of this factory is considered a(n): group of answer choices agent factor environmental factor host factor location factor

Answers

The presence of the local factory producing harmful chemicals would be considered an environmental factor in the epidemiological triad. Option B is correct.

According to the epidemiological triad model includes an external agent, a susceptible host, and an environment that brings the agent and host together. In this case, the harmful chemicals produced by the factory would be the external agent, while the individuals living in the area around the factory would be the susceptible hosts. The environment in this case, which is contaminated by the harmful chemicals produced by the factory, brings the agent and host together, leading to adverse health effects.

By using the epidemiological triad, the public health nurse can better understand the factors that contributed to the disaster related to the production of harmful chemicals by the local factory. This understanding can help the nurse to develop appropriate interventions to prevent or mitigate the negative health effects of the harmful chemicals on the susceptible host population. It is important to note that the epidemiological triad is just one model for understanding disease causation and is not always applicable to every situation. Option B is correct.

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a community health assessment is useful in identifying key problems and assets in a community. group of answer choices true false

Answers

a community health assessment is useful in identifying key problems and assets in a community. False

Steps in Health Status Assessment

Define the purpose of the assessment.

Define the population (and any comparative population)

Define the aspects of health to be considered.

Identify and review existing data sources.

Select the most appropriate existing data.

Make good use of the data.

These data can fill in gaps in secondary data sources, highlight critical issues or concerns, and provide opportunities for community members to actively engage in the community health assessment process (Listening to the Community).

A POPULATION HEALTH. ASSESSMENT APPROACH. A PHA approach uses population-based. indicators to describe, prioritize, and address specific health-related issues within economic, social, racial, environmental, or individual domains.

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TASK 1. STOP. LOOK. OBSERVE. Look at the pictures below. Try to differentiate them based on what you see. Do this in your activity notebook.I NEED ANSWER NOW Why were the Venezuelan immigrants ""fearful"" to re-enter Brazil on Sunday? Solve the system of equations.x=2-y1x-2y - 11=0 i need help asap. plsss give me the right answer 7th grade math help me please :) 2.What type of campaign does Professor Richard Slotkin say Burgoynes forces find themselves in? 3. General George Washington uses a new kind of soldier against Burgoynes troops. What tactics did these soldiers use? 5. Near Saratoga, how do Morgans soldiers break the rules of 18th-century warfare? What were the results of using this tactic? 8. Name two (2) of the four (4) things the French general Baron von Steuben does to improve the fighting ability of General Washingtons troops. 9. How had Washingtons army reinvented itself since its formation in 1776? What were the British officers worried the Patriots might capture and use against them at Yorktown? (Hint: The British said this would force them to surrender.) What role did von Steubens training play at the Battle of Yorktown? (von Steuben was the French general from Valley Forge.)? What is the IMA of an inclined plane that is 5m long and 2m high?A. 0.4B. 2.5C. 0.4m D. 2.5m What strategies are utilized to help keep the medical environment safe and secure? What plan do they make? Romeo and Juliet y 1642-4-224-2-4V-6What are the coordinates of point V?O A. (3,4)O B. (3,-4)Oc. (-3,-4)OD. (-4,-3)O E. (-4,3) https://gyazo.com/46ca31c22a7fbb58e5b42ba43088eb9f Aishas suitcase was too large to fit in the overhead bin phrase or clause Why do some conservatives believe that disadvantaged people are mostly if not entirely to blame for their own situation? Lynn had an opening balance of $179.30 in her checking account. She made deposits of $432 and had bank charges of $5.35. If her closing balance was $353.82, how much did she write in checks? Our ability to make our legs move as we walk across the room is controlled by the ________ nervous system.a. autonomic b. somaticc. sympatheticd. parasympathetic the nurse is discussing with a group of clients the various nutrients and the recommended intake of each. the nurse explains that the recommended intake of vitamin a is: The circumference of a circular glazed donut with rainbow sprinkles is 9.42 inches. What is the diameter and radius of the circular donut? if cost $25 per day to rent a tux plus a $50 cleaning fee. if samuel paid $200, how many days did he have the tux? choose the substance with the highest viscosity:A. C2H4CL2B. CF4C. (CH3CH2)2COD. C6H14E. HOCH2CH2CH2CH2OH Select the correct answer.While making an omelet, a strand of Sebastian's hair accidentally falls into the batter. What type of contaminant does he add to the omelet?A. a natural physical contaminantB. a biological contaminantC. a foreign physical contaminantD. a chemical contaminant