I don’t know this one I need help

Velocity is defined as the rate of change of displacement. It's a vector quantity that specifies both speed and direction. The x-component of the velocity vector is 1.3 m/s², and the y-component of the velocity vector is -1.4 m/s².

To determine the direction of the resultant velocity vector with respect to the + x‐axis, we need to calculate the angle made by the vector with the x-axis.

The tangent of the angle is the ratio of the y-component of the velocity to the x-component of the velocity.

tan θ = (-1.4 m/s²) / (1.3 m/s²)
θ = tan⁻¹ (-1.4/1.3)
θ = -49.78°

Therefore, the direction of the resultant velocity vector with respect to the + x‐axis is -49.78°.

Note: The negative sign in the answer represents that the angle is measured clockwise from the + x-axis.

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Answer:

\(0.78m \: per {s}^{2} \)

In order to compare the numbers, let's put all of them into the decimal form:

We can see that the greater one is 26.8 (all other numbers are close to 2, and this one is close to 27).

The numbers in decrescent order are:

26.8, 271%, 2.62, 2 2/5, 2.26.

Answer:

26.8

Explanation:

2.26 < 2.4 < 2.62 < 271/100 = 2.71 < 26.8

Answer:

D. All of the above

Explanation:

Because it's the most logical answer.

The expression for the buoyant force is F = ρghs²

Buoyant force is the force exerted on a object by a liquid.

Given that the pressure from the fluid at a certain depth is given by P = P₀ + ρgh where

We know that the buoyant for is due to the pressure difference frm the top and bottom of the fluid.

Since

P = P₀ + ρgh

P - P₀ = ρgh

ΔP =  ρgh

Now, we know that pressure difference, ΔP = F/A where

So, making F subject of the formula, we have that

F = ΔPA

Now since the object is a perfect cube of length, s, its area at its bottom surface perpendicular to F is A = s²

So, F = ΔPA

F = ΔPs²

So, substituting ΔP into the equation, we have that

F = ΔPs²

F = ρghs²

So, the buoyant force is F = ρghs²

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Answer:

Destructive interference

Explanation:

At a node, there is complete destructive interference at all times, so the displacement is zero. Why does a node in a standing wave have zero displacement? As the siren moves away, each wave front produced by the siren is farther from the previous wave front than if the siren were standing still.

A node in a standing wave has zero displacement because it is the point where two waves traveling in opposite directions cancel each other out, resulting in destructive interference and no movement of particles from their equilibrium position.

In a standing wave, nodes are points that do not experience any displacement. This occurs due to the interference of two waves traveling in opposite directions. When two waves with the same amplitude and frequency pass through each other, they create a standing wave pattern.

The nodes are the points where the two waves cancel each other out, resulting in zero displacement. At these points, the crest of one wave coincides with the trough of the other wave, causing destructive interference. As a result, the particles at the nodes do not move from their equilibrium position and remain at zero displacement.

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Answer:

Dark matter?

Explanation:

Answer:

matter

Explanation:

Planes primarily operate in the troposphere because this is the layer of the atmosphere that is closest to the Earth's surface and it's where most of our weather occurs. The troposphere extends from the Earth's surface up to about 7-20 km (5-12 miles) and it contains about 80% of the total mass of the atmosphere. The air is also denser in this layer, making it easier for planes to generate lift and fly efficiently. Additionally, the troposphere is where the majority of commercial and civilian air traffic occurs, as it is the layer that is best suited for takeoff, landing and cruising of planes. Planes are able to fly in higher layers of the atmosphere, but the conditions become more challenging and it's less common for commercial planes to operate in those layers because it would require specialized equipment and training.

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The pressure 30.0 meters under water which is 396 kPa, is approximately 3.91 atm and 2970.25 mmHg.

To convert the pressure 30.0 meters under water, which is 396 kPa, to atm and mmHg:

1. To Convert kPa to atm
To convert the pressure from kPa to atm, you can use the following conversion factor:
1 atm = 101.325 kPa

So, divide the pressure in kPa (396 kPa) by the conversion factor (101.325 kPa/atm):
396 kPa / 101.325 kPa/atm = 3.91 atm (approximately)

The pressure 30.0 meters under water in atm is approximately 3.91 atm.

2. To Convert kPa to mmHg
To convert the pressure from kPa to mmHg, you can use the following conversion factor:
1 kPa = 7.50062 mmHg

Multiply the pressure in kPa (396 kPa) by the conversion factor (7.50062 mmHg/kPa):
396 kPa * 7.50062 mmHg/kPa = 2970.25 mmHg (approximately)

The pressure 30.0 meters under water in mmHg is approximately 2970.25 mmHg.

In summary, the pressure 30.0 meters under water, which is 396 kPa, is approximately 3.91 atm and 2970.25 mmHg.

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Answer:

The two types of forces are related; a moving magnet can make electrical charges move, cause an electric current, and in turn cause magnetism. ... Objects that have the same charge, both positive or both negative, repel each other, and those with opposite charges attract each other.

Explanation:

Answer:

ANSWER:

(a) 1.88 m/s²

(b) 17.14 s

STEP-BY-STEP EXPLANATION:

Given:

Distance (d) = 276 m

Initial speed (u) = 0 m/s

Final speed (v) = 116 km/h

We convert from km/h to m/s, as follows:

(a)

We calculate the acceleration as follows:

(b)

Finally, we calculate the time, just like this:

The induced emf in the coil is calculated using the formula emf = -N * dI / dt. Given the values N = 250 turns and dI / dt = -48 A/s, the induced emf is determined to be 12000 V.

The emf induced in the coil by the changing current is given by the following formula:

emf = -N * dI / dt

where:

N is the number of turns in the coil

dI / dt is the rate of change of the current in the coil

In this problem, we are given that:

N = 250 turns

dI / dt = -1.60 * 30.0 = -48 amperes / second

The current is decreasing, so dI / dt is negative.

The induced emf is then:

emf = -250 * -48 = 12000 volts

Therefore, the induced emf in the coil is 12000 volts.

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Answer:

B

Explanation:

One object speeds up before it slows to a stop.

When reading this type of graph, we know that when the points are far apart, then the object is definitely moving quickly. Also again, we know that when the points are besides each other, then we say that the object is moving slow. When the distance that is between the points are changed, the velocity of the object subsequently changes too, and therefore, we say that the object is accelerated. When there are lots of points in one location, we will see that the object is not moving.

This then translates into that

The object(s) at the top begins to slow, eventually, it increases in its speed, going forward, it slows down again, before it finally halts. The object at the bottom on the other hand, starts fast, before slowing down.

then:

"One object speeds up before it slows to a stop "

Answer:

250N

Explanation:

w = mg

m=25

g = 10

w=25x10

w=250

If a student is pulling on an object that has a mass of 25 kg across the floor. Assuming gravity to be 10 m/s², then the weight of the object would be 250 N , therefore the correct answer is option C.

It can be defined as the force by which a body attracts another body toward its center as the result of the gravitational pull of one body and another.

As given in the problem, a student is pulling on an object that has a mass of 25 kg across the floor. Assuming gravity to be 10 m/s2,

The weight of the object = 25 × 10

                                          = 250 N

Thus,  the weight of the object would be 250 N , therefore the correct answer is option C.

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Around a positive charge, the electric field lines radiate outward in all directions. The values of the electric field are the same at all points that lie on a sphere centered on the positive charge. This is because the electric field strength is determined by the charge magnitude and the distance from the charge, and at any point on the sphere, the distance from the charge is the same.

The electric field values are different at points that are located at different distances from the positive charge. The strength of the electric field decreases with increasing distance from the charge. Closer to the charge, the electric field is stronger, and farther away, it becomes weaker.

In summary, the electric field values are the same at all points on a sphere centered on the positive charge, but they differ at points that are located at different distances from the charge.

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The centripetal acceleration of the car is 3.56 m/s².

The centripetal acceleration of an object moving in a circular path is given by the formula:

a = v²/r

where "v" is the speed of the object, and "r" is the radius of the circular path.

In this problem, the car is moving at a constant speed of 14 m/s around a circle with radius 55 m. Plugging in the values, we get:

a = (14 m/s)² / 55 m = 3.56 m/s²

Therefore, the centripetal acceleration of the car is 3.56 m/s².

centripetal acceleration is the rate at which a body moves through a circle. Due to the fact that velocity is a vector quantity (i.e., it has both a magnitude, the speed, and a direction), when a body travels in a circle, its direction is continually changing, which causes a change in velocity, which results in an acceleration. The circle's centre is where the acceleration is pointed radially. The centripetal acceleration, denoted by the symbol ac, has a magnitude equal to the square of the body's velocity along the curve divided by the radius of the circle, denoted by the symbol r. This is also known as the formula ac = v2/r. Units for centripetal acceleration are metres per second squared. The force causing this acceleration is known as the centripetal force and is also directed towards the centre of the circle.

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In relation to line locators, conductive refers to a direct connection between the pipe and transmitter. Conductive locating involves connecting a transmitter to a metallic pipe or cable and then using a receiver to detect the signal transmitted through the pipe or cable.

The transmitter sends an electrical signal through the conductive material, which is then picked up by the receiver. This technique is particularly useful when locating pipes or cables that are buried underground or hidden behind walls. By using conductive locating, line locators can accurately determine the location, depth, and direction of the pipe or cable. In contrast, an indirect connection with radio waves, as in option B, is referred to as inductive locating, which involves detecting the electromagnetic field around the pipe or cable. While inductive locating can be useful in some situations, such as locating non-conductive pipes or cables, it is less accurate than conductive locating. Overall, conductive locating is a key technique used by line locators to accurately and efficiently locate buried or hidden pipes and cables.

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Answer:

it have magnitude but not direction

The velocity of the water at the given points (2.0, 4.0) is approximately 5.06 m/s.

To find the velocity of the water at the point (2.0, 4.0), we need to calculate its components: the horizontal velocity (v_x) and the vertical velocity (v_y).

Given that v_x is constant at 5.0 m/s, the horizontal velocity component remains the same regardless of the position.

To find the vertical velocity component, we can differentiate the equation for the path of the water with respect to x:

y = 4.0 + 0.8x - 0.40x^2

Differentiating both sides with respect to x:

dy/dx = d/dx (4.0 + 0.8x - 0.40 \(x^2\))

= 0 + 0.8 - 0.80x

Now, substitute the x-coordinate of the point (2.0, 4.0) into the derivative:

dy/dx at x = 2.0 = 0.8 - 0.80(2.0)

= 0.8 - 1.6

= -0.8 m/s

Therefore, the vertical velocity component (v_y) at the point (2.0, 4.0) is -0.8 m/s.

To find the resultant velocity (v) at that point, we can use the Pythagorean theorem:

v = \(\sqrt{v_x^2 + v_y^2}\)

\(= \sqrt{5.0^2 + (-0.8)^2}\)

\(= \sqrt{25.0 + 0.64}\)

\(= \sqrt{25.64}\)

\(\approx 5.06 , \text{m/s}\)

Hence, the velocity of the water at the point (2.0, 4.0) is approximately 5.06 m/s.

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Answer:

D. The rock cycle takes too long to be able to observe it in entirety.

Explanation: is answer

In an eclipsing binary system, the two stars orbit each other in such a way that they periodically pass in front of each other from the perspective of an observer on Earth. As one star eclipses the other, the combined brightness of the system changes, resulting in a characteristic light curve.

Eclipsing binaries can have their sizes measured directly by photometry. This is because an eclipsing binary is a system where the two stars orbit each other in such a way that one star passes in front of the other from our line of sight on Earth. By measuring the decrease in brightness as the star passes in front of each other, we can determine the size of the stars and their relative distance from each other using photometry. On the other hand, virtual astrometric and visual spectroscopic binaries require more complex methods to determine their sizes and distances.

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Venus must go backwards around the inferior conjunction. Therefore, option E is correct.

Copernicus' explanation, Retrograde motion is when a planet appears to be moving backward as compared to the background stars. When Venus passes between the Earth and the Sun at the inferior conjunction, Venus begins its retrograde motion.

Venus appears to slow down, stop, and then move backward for a brief time before resuming its usual speed at this time when it is closest to the Earth. This phenomena explains the heliocentric model of solar system.

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Complete question - According to Copernicus, retrograde motion for Venus must occur around:

A. Quadrature, when the planet is 90 degrees away from the sun

B. Opposition, when the planet lies opposite the sun in the sky

C. Greatest elongation, when the planet is farthest from the sun

D. Superior conjunction, when the planet is on the far side of the sun

E. Inferior conjunction, when it passes between us and the sun

Answer:

the energy that is transmitted through free space or through a material medium in the form of electromagnetic waves

Explanation:

A wave is a disturbance that propagates through space and time, typically with transference of energy.

The answer is 86.4 degrees north of east. To arrive at the destination, the plane must fly in a direction that is a combination of its air speed and the wind direction.

Let's call the direction the plane must fly "x" degrees north of east. The plane's ground speed is the vector sum of its air speed and the wind speed. Since the wind is blowing due west and the plane is flying directly north, the wind will have no effect on the plane's northward speed. However, the wind will reduce the plane's eastward speed.

Using trigonometry, we can find that the plane's ground speed is approximately 424.3 km/hr. Since the plane needs to travel 500 km, it will take approximately 1.178 hours to reach its destination.

During that time, the wind will have pushed the plane 11.78 km to the west. We can use trigonometry again to find that the angle whose tangent is 11.78/500 is approximately 1.34 degrees.

Therefore, the plane must fly in a direction that is 90 degrees minus 1.34 degrees, or 88.66 degrees, north of east. Rounding to one decimal place, the answer is 86.4 degrees north of east.

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Answer:

C=F×W

so, W=C/F

Explanation:

frequency=F

wavelength=W

speed of light =C in that medium