how would the results be affected if the solid sphere were replaced by a hollow conducting sphere of the same radius r

Answer:

40m approximately

Explanation:

Given

Force =377N

Mass =86.5kg

Velocity =13.2m/s

Required

Radius of the track

The expression for the centripetal force acting on the cyclist is

F=mv²/r

Make r subject of the formula

r= mv²/F

Substitute

r=86.5*13.2²/377

r= 15,071.76/377

r=39.97

r=40m approximately

The radius of track will be "40 m".

Given:

Force,

Mass,

Velocity,

As we know the formula,

→ \(F = \frac{mv^2}{r}\)

or,

→ \(r = \frac{mv^2}{F}\)

By substituting the values, we get

     \(= \frac{86.5\times 13.2^2}{377}\)

     \(= \frac{15071.76}{377}\)

     \(= 39.97\)

or,

     \(= 40 \ m\)

Thus the above answer is right.

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The telescope that is the best option if visible radiation is blocked is b. infrared telescope

If visible light is obscured, an infrared telescope is generally used. Since infrared radiation has longer wavelengths than visible light, infrared telescopes are made to detect and study this type of electromagnetic energy. They may also view various celestial things and phenomena that mostly emit infrared light thanks to this.

While radio telescopes are employed to determine and study radio waves, X-ray telescopes are used to watch X-rays, and UV telescopes are utilized to observe ultraviolet light. None of these alternatives is intended to deal with the situation where visible radiation is blocked. However, in these circumstances, infrared telescopes can still deliver useful observations.

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Complete Question:

Which of the following telescope is the best option if visible radiation is blocked?

a. ultraviolet telescope

b. lnfrared telescope

c. radio telescope

d. ray telescope

If you are told that an object that weighs 20 Newtons is raised a distance of 10 meters, you know that the force of gravity on the object is 20 Newtons. Thus, the correct option is A.

A force is an influence- a push or a pull that can change the motion of an object. A force can cause an object with a given mass to change its velocity, and to undergo acceleration. A force has both the magnitude as well as the direction which make it a vector quantity.

Weight is a form of force which is applied by the gravity on an object with certain mass.

W = mg

where, W = weight of the object,

m = mass of the object,

g = acceleration due to gravity.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

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a) The momentum of trolley A before the collision is (2 kg) * (5 m/s) = 10 kg*m/s.

b) The momentum of trolley A after the collision is (2 kg) * (2 m/s) = 4 kg*m/s.

c) The kinetic energy of trolley A before the collision is 1/2 * (2 kg) * (5 m/s)^2 = 25 J.

d) The kinetic energy of trolley A after the collision is 1/2 * (2 kg) * (2 m/s)^2 = 2 J. And the kinetic energy of trolley B after the collision is 1/2 * (3 kg) * (2 m/s)^2 = 3 J.

e) The amount of kinetic energy that is unaccounted for is the difference between the initial kinetic energy of trolley A and the final kinetic energy of trolley A and trolley B. This is 25J - (2J + 3J) = 20 J.

It's important to note that the total momentum of the system is conserved during the collision, meaning that the momentum of trolley A before the collision is equal to the total momentum of trolley A and B after the collision. Also the total kinetic energy of the system is not conserved during the collision as some of the energy is transferred to internal energy of the system and other forms of energy.

Answer:

the ancer is c I know it because I had the same test or it might have been different but it looks familiar to me

Answer:

ITS 20

Explanation:

The angle in radians through which the wheel rotates can be determined using the formula:

Angle (in radians) = (Number of revolutions) × (2π)

Given that the wheel is rotating at a rate of 16 rev/s for a time interval of 9 seconds, we can calculate the number of revolutions by multiplying the rate by the time:

Number of revolutions = (16 rev/s) × (9 s) = 144 rev

Substituting this value into the formula, we can find the angle in radians:

Angle (in radians) = (144 rev) × (2π) = 288π radians

Therefore, in a time interval of 9 seconds, the wheel rotates through an angle of 288π radians.

To understand why we use the formula Angle (in radians) = (Number of revolutions) × (2π), it's important to note that one revolution corresponds to an angle of 360 degrees or 2π radians. In this case, the wheel is rotating at a given rate, so multiplying the rate by the time gives us the number of revolutions. Multiplying the number of revolutions by 2π gives us the angle in radians.

By performing the calculations without using the listed phrases, we arrive at the result of 288π radians for the angle through which the wheel rotates in a time interval of 9 seconds.

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Answer:

The resultant displacement of the airplane in 4 hours is 212.8 km.

Explanation:

The components of the airplane's velocity and wind's velocity are:

Airplane:

\( v_{a_{x}} = v_{a}cos(45) = 70 km/h*cos(45) = 49.50 km/h \)

\( v_{a_{y}} = v_{a}sin(45) = 70 km/hsin(45) = 49.50 km/h \)

Wind:

\( v_{w_{x}} = 0 \)

\( v_{w_{y}} = v_{w} = -30 km/h \)

Now, to know the new velocity of the airplane we to find the result vector:

\( v_{x} = v_{a_{x}} + v_{w_{x}} = 49.50 km/h + 0 = 49.50 km/h \)

\(v_{y} = v_{a_{y}} + v_{w_{y}} = 49.50 km/h - 30 km/h = 19.50 km/h\)  

Now, the magnitude of the new speed of the airplane is:

\( v_{a} = \sqrt{v_{x}^{2} + v_{y}^{2}} = \sqrt{(49.50 km/h)^{2} + (19.50 km/h)^{2}} = 53.20 km/h \)

Finally, after 4 hours the resultant displacement of the airplane is:

\( x = v*t = 53.20 km/h*4 h = 212.8 km \)

Therefore, the resultant displacement of the airplane in 4 hours is 212.8 km.

I hope it helps you!                                        

The warning advises against heating the can because if the can is heated, the pressure inside it can increase, causing it to burst and potentially causing injury.

Heating the can cause the pressure inside it to increase, leading to a dangerous and potentially explosive situation. This is because the aerosol can contains a mixture of ingredients that are pressurized, including a volatile propellant, the sunblock product, and possibly other chemicals.

When the can is heated, the pressure inside it can rise to a level that exceeds the strength of the can, causing it to burst. This can release the contents of the can rapidly and forcefully, posing a risk of injury to anyone nearby. Therefore, it's important to avoid heating the can and to handle it with care, following the manufacturer's instructions and warnings.

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The steel ball has an initial potential energy of 638 J, and it loses 280 J of kinetic energy as it sinks 0.700 m into the sand.

We can use the principle of conservation of energy to solve this problem. Initially, the steel ball has potential energy due to its height above the box of sand, and no kinetic energy. At the moment the ball hits the sand, all of its potential energy is converted to kinetic energy. As the ball sinks into the sand, some of its kinetic energy is converted to work done on the sand by the ball, which slows it down until it comes to a stop. At this point, all of the ball's kinetic energy has been converted to heat and sound energy.

Using the formula for gravitational potential energy, we can calculate the initial potential energy of the ball:

PE = mgh

PE = (4.90 kg)(9.81 m/s^2)(13.0 m)

PE = 638 J

This initial potential energy is equal to the kinetic energy of the ball just before it hits the sand:

KE = 1/2 m\(v^2\)

where v is the speed of the ball just before it hits the sand. Since the ball is dropped from rest, its initial speed is zero, and we can simplify the equation to:

KE = 1/2 \(mv^2\) = 1/2 (4.90 kg) \(v^2\)

Setting PE equal to KE and solving for v, we get:

v = √(2PE/m) = √(2gh) = √(2(9.81 m/\(s^2\))(13.0 m)) = 10.1 m/s

The ball sinks 0.700 m into the sand before stopping, so the work done by the ball on the sand is:

W = Fs

where F is the force exerted by the ball on the sand, and s is the distance over which the force is applied. Assuming the force is constant over the distance the ball sinks into the sand, we can approximate the force as:

F = ma

where a is the acceleration of the ball while it is sinking into the sand. We can calculate the acceleration using the formula:

\(v^2 = u^2 + 2as\)

where u is the initial velocity of the ball (10.1 m/s), v is its final velocity (zero), and s is the distance it sinks into the sand (0.700 m). Solving for a, we get:

a = (\(v^2 - u^2\)) / 2s = (0 - (10.1 m/s\()^2\)) / (2(0.700 m)) = -81.5 m/\(s^2\)

The negative sign indicates that the acceleration is in the opposite direction to the velocity of the ball (i.e. upward).

Using F = ma and the value of a we just calculated, we can find the force exerted by the ball on the sand:

F = ma = (4.90 kg)(-81.5 m/\(s^2\)) = -400 N

The negative sign indicates that the force is directed upward, opposite to the direction of the ball's motion.

Finally, we can calculate the work done by the ball on the sand:

W = Fs = (-400 N)(0.700 m) = -280 J

The negative sign indicates that the work is done by the ball on the sand, and is equal in magnitude to the decrease in the ball's kinetic energy as it sinks into the sand.

Therefore, the steel ball has an initial potential energy of 638 J, and it loses 280 J of kinetic energy as it sinks 0.700 m into the sand.

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The area of the ripple at t = 2 is : area = 8.49056 × 10³ inch²

When A is a function of B, it signifies that every value of B has a single, well defined corresponding value in mathematics. I'm done now. To say that X is a function of time is to say that X has a single, clearly defined value for every instant of time.

The following are time-related functions: A particle's distance from time 0 to time t is given by s(t). The velocity of a particle is given by v(t). a(t) is the particle's acceleration at time t.

Given: radius as a function of time = 25 t + 2

And the time given is t = 2

Thus r (t) = 25 t + 2

and r( t = 2 ) =  25 * 2 + 2

r = 52 inch

Since we have to find the area

we will use the formula

Area = πr²

Area = 3.14 × 52 × 52

thus area = 8490.56 inch²

or

area = 8.49056 × 10³ inch²

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Answer:

Acceleration is 0.

Explanation:

Since the girl is running with a uniform velocity, meaning she is moving at a constant rate, she is not accelerating. Acceleration only occurs when the speed of an object increases, decreases, or if there is a change in direction.

1. The wavelength of the wave is 0.4 m

2. The frequency is 10 Hertz

3. The wavelength will be half the original wavelength.

4. The frequency of the wave is 0.05 Hertz

The wavelength of the wave can be obtain as follow:

Velocity (v) = wavelength (λ) × frequency (f)

800 = wavelength × 2000

Divide both sides by 2000

Wavelength = 800 / 2000

Wavelength = 0.4 m

The frequency of the wave can be obtain as illustrated below:

Velocity (v) = wavelength (λ) × frequency (f)

10 = 1 × frequency

Frequency = 10 Hertz

The wavelength of the wave can be obtain as shown below:

v = fλ

Since v is constant, we have

f₁λ₁ = f₂λ₂

Thus, we have:

f × λ = 2f × λ₂

Divide both sides by 2f

λ₂ = fλ / 2f

λ₂ = λ / 2

Thus, we can conclude that the wavelength will be half the original wavelength

The frequency of the wave can be obtain as shown below:

Frequency = Number of wave / time taken

Frequency = 6 / 120

Frequency = 0.05 Hertz

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Answer:

1. The wavelength of the wave is 0.4 m

2. The frequency is 10 Hertz

3. The wavelength will be half the original wavelength.

4. The frequency of the wave is 0.05 Hertz

1. How do i determine the wavelength?

The wavelength of the wave can be obtain as follow:

Frequency of wave (f) = 2.0 KHz = 2.0 × 1000 = 200- Hz

Speed of wave (c) of = 800 m/s

Wavelength (λ) = ?

Velocity (v) = wavelength (λ) × frequency (f)

800 = wavelength × 2000

Divide both sides by 2000

Wavelength = 800 / 2000

Wavelength = 0.4 m

2. How do i determine the frequency?

The frequency of the wave can be obtain as illustrated below:

Speed of wave (v) = 10 m/s

Wavelength of wave (λ) = 1 m

Frequency of wave (f) =?

Velocity (v) = wavelength (λ) × frequency (f)

10 = 1 × frequency

Frequency = 10 Hertz

3. How do i determine the wavelength?

The wavelength of the wave can be obtain as shown below:

Initial frequency (f₁) = f

Initial wavelength  (λ₁) = λ

Speed = Constant

New frequency (f₂) = 2f

New wavelength (λ₂) =?

v = fλ

Since v is constant, we have

f₁λ₁ = f₂λ₂

Thus, we have:

f × λ = 2f × λ₂

Divide both sides by 2f

λ₂ = fλ / 2f

λ₂ = λ / 2

Thus, we can conclude that the wavelength will be half the original wavelength

4. How do i determine the frequency?

The frequency of the wave can be obtain as shown below:

Time taken = 2 minutes = 2 × 60 = 120 seconds

Number of wave = 6 complete waves

Frequency =?

Frequency = Number of wave / time taken

Frequency = 6 / 120

Frequency = 0.05 Hertz

Explanation:

The canoe's velocity after traveling 32 m is 9.4 m/s.

To find the velocity, we can use the formula:

v = u + at,

where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity (assumed to be zero as the canoe starts from rest), a is the acceleration, and t is the time.

In this case, the initial velocity u is 0 m/s, the acceleration a is 0.45 m/s², and the distance traveled d is 32 m. We need to find the final velocity v.

We can rearrange the formula as:

v = √(u² + 2ad).

Since u = 0, the formula simplifies to:

v = √(2ad).

Plugging in the values, we get:

v = √(2 × 0.45 m/s² × 32 m) ≈ 9.4 m/s.

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The magnetic field strength created at the center of the circular loop is 0.26 T (Tesla).

Suppose that inside a motor 29 a passes through a 250 turn circular loop that is 10.5 cm in radius. The magnetic field strength created at its center can be calculated using Ampere’s law. The Ampere's Law states that the magnetic field around a closed loop is proportional to the electric current passing through the loop. The proportionality constant is µ0, the permeability of free space. Thus the integral form of Ampere's law can be written as ∮B·dl = µ0I Where, B is the magnetic field, dl is an infinitesimal length element along the closed path, I is the electric current enclosed by the path and µ0 is the permeability of free space. Since the circular loop is of radius r, the circumference is 2πr.

Thus, the magnetic field can be calculated as B. 2πr = µ0NIwhere, N is the number of turns in the circular loop. So, the magnetic field at the center of the circular loop can be calculated as: B = µ0NI/2rThe magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the circular loop. Given the current passing through the loop, the number of turns and the radius of the loop, the magnetic field can be calculated. Using the formula, the magnetic field can be calculated as B = µ0 x 29 x (250/2π x 0.105)T Thus, the magnetic field strength created at the center of the circular loop is 0.26 T (Tesla).

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Answer:

The arrangement of the following from loudest to softest include:

crowd at sporting event

airplane

rainfall

whisper

Explanation:

When it comes to the arrangements, the pitch of the noise which emerge is what was considered. For example, crowd at sporting event has the highest pitch especially during football matches followed by the airplane sounds during its take-off and landing in the airports. As for whisper, it happens to be the one with softest sound.

Answer:

Airplane. 1

Whisper. 4

Crowd at sporting event. 2

Rainfall. 3

Explanation:

hope this helps

Answer:

B

Explanation:

if the object has momentum it can be any other answer except at rest. if it's at rest, it does not have momentum

Answer:

1) 364,564 houses

2) Approximately 2.7 × 10⁸ litres of water annually

Explanation:

The power consumption of the average household = 10,972 kWh/year

The power consumption, \(P_{(consumed/house)}\) of the average household = 914 kWh/month

The amount of power produced, \(P_{produced}\), by the Hoover Dam = 4×10⁹ kW/year

1) The number of houses, n, the Hoover Dam can power is given by the relation;

\(n = \dfrac{P_{produced}}{P_{(consumed/house)}} = \dfrac{4 \times 10^9}{10972} = 364,564.35 \ houses\)

Which is approximately 364,564 houses

2) Given the height, h = 15 m

We have at 100% efficiency,

The potential energy of the water per year = 10,972 kWh

The potential energy of the water = m×g×h

Where:

g = Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s²

∴ The potential energy of the water  = m×9.81×15

Therefore, we have;

m×9.81×15 = 10,972 kWh = 10972×60 min/hour ×60 seconds/minute Joules

m×9.81×15 = 39,499,200 kJ = 39,499,200,000 J

m = 39,499,200,000/(9.81 × 15) = 268,428,134.6 kg

The volume, V, of water that would have to drop out of the dam to power a house for a year is given by the relation;

Volume = (Mass of water)/(Density of water)

V = (268,428,134.6 kg)/(1000 kg/m³)

V = 268,428.135 m³ ≈ 2.7 × 10⁸ litres of water annually.

Answer:

a 15.6voltz

i Hope this helps

Answer:

I'm pretty sure it's false

Explanation:

.

If you start with 1,000 grams of erbium-165, the time it  will take to have 125 grams of erbium-165 left in the sample is 20.8 hours.

option D is the correct answer.

Half life is the time that it takes for half of the original value of some amount of a radioactive element to decay.

If you start with 1,000 grams of erbium-165, the time it  will take to have 125 grams of erbium-165 left in the sample is calculated as follows;

1,000 ---------- 0 time

500 ----------- 10.4 hours

125 ------------- 20.8 hours

Thus, from the calculation done above, we can see that If you start with 1,000 grams of erbium-165, the time it  will take to have 125 grams of erbium-165 left in the sample is 20.8 hours.

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Each polarizing filter will only allow light waves that are oscillating in a plane perpendicular to its axis to pass through, while blocking those oscillating parallel to its axis.

Since the axis of each filter is rotated by 15 degrees with respect to the previous filter, the intensity of the light passing through will decrease by a factor of cos^2(15) for each filter, where cos(15) is the cosine of 15 degrees. Therefore, the intensity of the light emerging from the last filter will be I_0 * cos^2(15) raised to the power of 7, as there are 7 filters in the stack. This can be calculated as approximately 0.048 I_0 or about 4.8% of the original intensity I_0.

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The forces that act on the ball as it is held motionless is the weight and the normal reaction.

We now that force is a vector quantity. This implies that force has magnitude and it also has direction. The direction of the force is what makes it possible for us to resolve a force into its components in the vertical and the horizontal planes.

In this case, when we hold the ball motionless, the forces that act on the ball are the weight of the ball and the normal reaction on the ball. The weight acts downwards while the normal reaction acts upwards.

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without additional information, we cannot calculate the exact magnitude of the torque required to hold the loop in the given position.

To find the magnitude of the torque required to hold the loop in the given position, we need to consider the relationship between the magnetic field, the area vector of the loop, and the torque acting on the loop.

The torque acting on a loop of area A in a magnetic field B can be calculated using the formula:

τ = B * A * sin(θ)

where:

τ is the torque,

B is the magnitude of the magnetic field,

A is the area vector of the loop,

θ is the angle between the magnetic field and the area vector.

Since the position of the loop is not described in the question, we cannot determine the angle θ or the area vector A.

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Answer:

About 3 trips

Explanation: if we do 2.5m*1.6m*0.75 it equals to 11000 then we divide that to 11m3 and it gives you 3.6 so it will be about 3 times

Thx

Answer:

Using the equation for orbital speed

orbital speed= square root of GM/r

Where

G= Gravitational Constant = 6.674x10^-11m^3/kg.s^2

M= mass of The Earth=5.972x10^24 kg

r= the combined radius of The Earth and the height of the satellite above The Earth=6378km+ 3600km= 9978km converting to meters gives (1000m=1km) 9978km*1000m/1km= 9,978,000m or 9.978x10^6m

orbital speed = square root of (6.674x10^-11*5.972x10^24/9.978x10^6= 63198m/s

Answer:

Divide by the number 100

Explanation:

Since there are 100 centimeters in 1 meter, we can see that if you are given a number in centimeters, the number of meters is that number divided by 100. Hope this helps!

Answer:

Divide by 100

Explanation:

The repulsive force between charges Q1 and Q2 will be 8 N when their separation is decreased so that their final separation is 68% of their initial separation.

To calculate the repulsive force between charges Q1 and Q2, we can use Coulomb's Law. Coulomb's Law states that the force between two charges is directly proportional to the product of their magnitudes and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Let's denote the initial separation as d1 and the final separation as d2, where d2 = 0.68 * d1. The initial force is given as 16 N.

Using Coulomb's Law, we can express the force as:

F = (k * |Q1 * Q2|) / d^2

where k is the electrostatic constant.

We can rewrite the equation as:

F = (k * |Q1 * Q2|) / (d1^2)

To find the force at the final separation, we substitute d2 into the equation:

F2 = (k * |Q1 * Q2|) / (d2^2)

Since we want to find the force when the final separation is 68% of the initial separation, we have:

d2 = 0.68 * d1

Substituting this into the equation, we have:

F2 = (k * |Q1 * Q2|) / ((0.68 * d1)^2)

We can simplify this equation to:

F2 = (0.68^2) * [(k * |Q1 * Q2|) / (d1^2)]

Given that F1 (initial force) is 16 N, we can equate the two equations:

F2 = (0.68^2) * F1

Calculating the value, we find:

F2 = (0.68^2) * 16 N

F2 ≈ 8 N

Therefore, the repulsive force between charges Q1 and Q2 is 8 N when their separation is decreased to 68% of their initial separation.

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Answer:

Option C would be the correct alternative.

Explanation:

The other choices offered aren't relevant to the existing contract below in the description section.

Answer:

c

Explanation: