How do you determine the
solution to a system of equations
when graphing? Is it possible to
have more than 1 solution when
graphing? Is it possible to have no
solutions? How?

two angles that add up to 90 degrees are called complementary angles.

Answer:

37 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

108 = x + 71

37 = x

0.0560 has 3 significant figures. The number 0.0560 has three significant figures. Significant figures are the digits in a number that carry meaning in terms of precision and accuracy.

In the case of 0.0560, the non-zero digits "5" and "6" are significant. The zero between them is also significant because it is sandwiched between two significant digits. However, the trailing zero after the "6" is not significant because it merely serves as a placeholder to indicate the precision of the number.

To understand this, consider that if the number were written as 0.056, it would still have the same value but only two significant figures. The addition of the trailing zero in 0.0560 indicates that the number is known to a higher level of precision or accuracy.

Therefore, the number 0.0560 has three significant figures: "5," "6," and the zero between them. This implies that the measurement or value is known to three decimal places or significant digits.

It is important to consider significant figures when performing calculations or reporting measurements to ensure that the level of precision is maintained and communicated accurately.

Learn more about significant figures here :-

https://brainly.com/question/29153641

#SPJ11

Equal sides are the paragraph's omission.

Common Side BA is the Missing Piece of the Proof.

The reasons given in the evidence are sufficient to demonstrate that BCA and BFA are similar.

ΔBFA≅ ΔBCA, but not sufficiently to demonstrate that BCA is compatible with BFA.

To demonstrate congruent triangles, we must demonstrate that the corresponding sides are likewise equal, so we must demonstrate that BA = BA (common side) before the Proof is complete.

Hence, Equal sides are the paragraph's omission.

To learn more about congruent triangles refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/28262429

#SPJ1

Answer:

in picture

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

44.4°

Step-by-step explanation:

Two complementary angles add up to 90°. Let's call one of the two x, and the second 90-x (in fact, \(x+(90-x) = 90\)).

At this point we can use the second condition: the first angle, plus 1.2°, is equal to the complementary.

\(x+1.2=90-x \rightarrow 2x=88.8 \rightarrow x = 44.4\)

Answer:

The inequality to describe the problem is 15 +c >25.

We must sell more than 5 cones to make a profit

Step-by-step explanation:

From this problem,  we can see that we need to sell a number of cones (c), that when added to the 15 cones that we have already sold, the result will be greater than 25.

To set up the inequality sign, we need to, first of all, know the inequality sign that we will be using. From the preceding statement, we can see that we need to sell greater than a certain number of cones.  

This should tell us that we will be needing the greater-than sign (>).

The next step is to know the format the equation should take:

We have sold 15 cones; We need to sell c more to make it greater than 25.

This will be 15 +c >25.

The inequality to describe the problem is 15 +c >25.

from this, we can see that c > 5 cones.

We must sell more than 5 cones to make a profit

The rate of change of the height of the top of the ladder above the ground at the instant when the base of the ladder is 30 ft. from the base of the building is -3 ft./min.

The rate of change of the height of the top of the ladder above the ground at the instant when the base of the ladder is 30 ft. from the base of the building is -3 ft./min. This rate takes into account the fact that the ladder is slipping at a rate of 3 ft./min. As the base of the ladder is slipping away from the building, the top of the ladder is moving down, hence the negative rate of change. This rate of change will remain the same until the base of the ladder has slipped the full 50 ft. from the base of the building. At this point, the rate of the change of the height of the top of the ladder will be 0, since the ladder will no longer be slipping.

The rate of change can be calculated as follows:

Rate of change = Change in height / Change in time

Change in height = Initial height - Final height

Initial height = 50 ft.

Final height = 50 ft. - 30 ft. = 20 ft.

Change in time = 30 ft. / 3 ft./min. = 10 min.

Rate of change = (50 ft. - 20 ft.) / 10 min. = -3 ft./min.

Learn more about rate here

https://brainly.com/question/13481529

#SPJ4

Exterior Angle property = sum of interior opposite angle is equal to the exterior Angle

x= 48+96

x= 144°

Answer:

144°

Step-by-step explanation:

x is an exterior angle of the triangle.

Angles 96° and 48° are interior angles of the triangle that are not adjacent to angle x. Angles 96° and 48° are called the "remote interior angles" of exterior angle x.

Theorem:

The measure of an exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the measures of the remote interior angles.

x = 48 + 96

x = 144

Answer: 144°

Answer:

i would say B pls mark brainlest!

Answer:

I would say it is B too.

The distribution of weight is based on a continuous random variable.

What is Continuous Random Variable?

In statistics, a continuous random variable can take on any value within a certain range, as opposed to a discrete variable, which can only take on a finite number of values.

Qualitative variables are categorical variables that do not have a numerical value, but instead represent characteristics or qualities of a population or sample.

Therefore, the weight of an offensive linesman is an example of a continuous random variable.

To know more about Continuous Random Variable:

https://brainly.com/question/17238189

#SPJ11

Answer: -3

Step-by-step explanation: EDGE 2022

Answer:

yo

Step-by-step explanation:

its -3

EDGENUINITY 2023

Answer: 7e-5 millimeters, and the nanometer scale is more appropriate

Step-by-step explanation: PLEASE MARK ME BRAINLIEST!!!!!!

-divide the length value by 1e+6

-The millimeter scale and the centimeter scale are two huge, while the nanometer scale is too small. The nanometer scale is often used to measure atoms and viruses.

Answer:

a) The length of the virus in millimetres is 0.000 07 mm.

b) Viruses are microscopic and so nanometres are the more appropriate unit for writing the length of the virus since the nanometre is a smaller unit of measurement than the millimetre.

Step-by-step explanation:

SI is the abbreviation for The International System of Units.

The SI base unit for length is metres (m).

Milli and nano are SI prefixes used to form decimal multiples or submultiples of SI units.

Therefore, to convert nanometres to millimetres, multiply the nanometres by 10⁻⁶:

So 70 nanometres is:

Viruses are microscopic and so nanometres are the more appropriate unit for writing the length of the virus since the nanometre is a smaller unit of measurement than the millimetre.

Josephine needs to invest an initial amount of approximately $13,427.11 to have $1,000,000 at retirement if she waits 20 years to invest and retires in 50 years from now with a 12% interest rate compounded semiannually.

We can use the formula for compound interest to find the initial investment that Josephine needs to make:

A = P(1 + r/n)^(n*t)

where A is the future value, P is the principal or initial investment, r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of times the interest is compounded per year, and t is the time period in years.

In this case, Josephine wants to have $1,000,000 at retirement, which is the future value. She will wait 20 years to invest and will retire in 50 years from now, which is a total time period of 50 - 20 = 30 years. The interest rate is 12% per year, compounded semiannually, which means n = 2 and r = 0.12/2 = 0.06.

Substituting these values into the formula, we get:

1,000,000 = P(1 + 0.06/2)^(2*30)

Simplifying the expression inside the parentheses, we get:

1 + 0.06/2 = 1.03

Substituting this value and simplifying further, we get:

1,000,000 = P(1.03)^60

Dividing both sides by (1.03)^60, we get:

P = 1,000,000/(1.03)^60

Using a calculator, we get:

P ≈ $13,427.11

Therefore, Josephine needs to invest approximately $13,427.11 initially.

To know more about Investment:

https://brainly.com/question/28458185

#SPJ4

Answer:

3/5 for 13

Step-by-step explanation:

add 2 to the numerator and the denominator

Answer:

greater average rate

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: function A is correct  g(x)=x2+4x−8

Step-by-step explanation: i just got it correct

Answer:  The slope-intercept form is y = -2x + 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: The y-intercept is the point where x=0, so that is (0,10)

Step 2: Use the points (-2,14) and (-1,12) to find the slope

Slope (m) = ΔY/ΔX = -2/1 = -2

Step 3: The slope-intercept form is:

y = mx+b

y = (step 2 value) x + (step 1 value)

y = -2x+10

Please remember to vote this as Brainliest if I earned it!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

no graph was shown

Solution of the expression are,

x = 4 and x = - 4

Given that;

Expression is,

- 2 |x - 2| + 3 = x - 5

Now, We can simplify the expression as;

- 2 |x - 2| + 3 = x - 5

- 2 |x - 2| = x - 5 - 3

- 2 |x - 2| = x - 8

|x - 2| = 4 - x/2

This gives two solutions as;

x - 2 = 4 - x/2

x + x/2 = 6

3x/2 = 6

3x = 12

x = 4

And, x - 2 = - (4 - x/2)

x - 2 = - 4 + x/2

x - x/2 = - 4 + 2

x/2 = - 2

x = - 4

Thus, Solution of the expression are,

x = 4 and x = - 4

Learn more about the mathematical expression visit:

brainly.com/question/1859113

#SPJ1

Answer:

40 percent of 155 is 62

40%

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation for "what percent of x is y" can be written as:

\(\frac{y}{x}*100\)

where \(y\) is the part and \(x\) is the whole.

This formula calculates the percentage of y with respect to x. Multiplying the quotient of y/x by 100% converts the fraction to a percentage.

In this example we have "What percent of 155 is 62?"

So

\(y=62\\x=155\)

\(\frac{62}{155}*100\)

\(0.4*100\)

40%

The probability that the medication is effective in 45 of the 50 patients is approximately 0.0204, or 2.04%.

To calculate the probability that the medication is effective in 45 of the 50 patients, we can use the binomial distribution formula. The binomial distribution formula calculates the probability of getting a specific number of successes (in this case, effectiveness) in a fixed number of trials (in this case, patients).

The formula is:

P(X=k) = (n choose k) * p^k * (1-p)^(n-k)

where:

P(X=k) is the probability of getting k successes (45 in this case)

n is the number of trials (50 in this case)

k is the number of successes (45 in this case)

p is the probability of success in each trial (0.8 in this case)

Plugging in the numbers:

P(X=45) = (50 choose 45) * 0.8^45 * (1-0.8)^(50-45)

P(X=45) = (50 choose 45) * 0.8^45 * (1-0.8)^5

P(X=45) = 0.0204

So the probability that the medication is effective in 45 of the 50 patients is approximately 0.0204, or 2.04%.

For more questions like Probability click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/30034780

#SPJ4

Therefore , the solution of the given problem of unitary method comes out to be Mr. Tan makes a total of $30 Plus $18 = $48.

To finish the job using the unitary technique, the equation from this nano section should be multiplied by two. In essence, when a wanted object is present, both the characterised by either a group and the pigment sections are omitted from the unit method. A variable fee of Inr ($1.01), for instance, would be paid for 40 pens. It's conceivable that one nation will have complete control over the strategy used to achieve this. Almost all living things have a unique trait.

Here,

Let's name the CDs' pre-tax cost "x" for simplicity. The overall cost of the CDs before tax is two times because Lena purchased two of them for the same price. The cost of the Discs, with the addition of the $1.80 sales tax, is:

=> 2x + $1.80

Given that we know the final price, including tax, was $23.40, we can create the following equation:

=> 2x + $1.80 = $23.40

By deducting $1.80 from each half, we arrive at:

=> 2x = $21.60

When you divide both parts by 2, you get:

=> x = $10.80

As a result, each Disc cost $10.80 before taxes.

We can create another equation now that we know his revenues from selling apple juice are $12 higher than his profits from selling lemon juice:

=> 30n - 18n = 12

=> 12n = 12

=> n = 1

As a result, Mr. Tan sells 2n + 5n = 7n = 7 glasses of juice, for a total profit of 30n = $30 from the sale of apple juice and 18n = $18 from the sale of lemon juice.

Therefore, Mr. Tan makes a total of $30 Plus $18 = $48.

To know more about unitary method  visit:

https://brainly.com/question/28276953

#SPJ1

The quotient of the polynomials is 6x^2 - 2x + 5 with a remainder of -50.

To find the quotient of the polynomials  ÷ (2x + 5), you can use polynomial long division as follows:

       6x^2 - 2x + 5

 -----------------------

2x + 5 | 12x^3 + 26x^2 + 25

- (12x^3 + 30x^2)

---------------

-4x^2 + 25

- (-4x^2 - 10x)

--------------

35x + 25

- (35x + 75)

-------------

-50

Therefore, the quotient of the polynomials is 6x^2 - 2x + 5 with a remainder of -50.

False. We do not always evaluate just the specific result obtained in an experiment.

In scientific experiments, we do not just evaluate the specific result obtained in the experiment. Instead, we evaluate the entire experimental design, including the methods used, the sample size, and the statistical analysis.

For example, suppose a researcher conducts an experiment to test a new drug's effectiveness in treating a particular disease. If the result of the experiment shows that the drug is effective, the researcher cannot simply conclude that the drug works based on this one result. Instead, the researcher must evaluate the experimental design to ensure that the result is reliable and valid.

This evaluation includes examining the study's methods to determine if they are appropriate and if the sample size is large enough to produce meaningful results. It also involves statistical analysis to assess the strength of the relationship between the treatment and the outcome and to determine if the result is statistically significant.

Therefore, evaluating just the specific result obtained in an experiment is not sufficient. We must also consider the experimental design, methods used, sample size, and statistical analysis to draw valid and reliable conclusions from the experiment.

To learn more about sample size click here, brainly.com/question/30174741

#SPJ11

The transformation t that reflects points through the horizontal axis and then reflects points through the line is a rotation about the origin by an angle of 180 degrees.

First, note that reflecting a point through the horizontal axis is equivalent to multiplying its y-coordinate by -1, while reflecting a point through the line y=x is equivalent to swapping its x and y coordinates. So, if we start with a point (x,y), the two reflections will give us the point (-x,-y), which is just a rotation of the original point by 180 degrees about the origin.

To see why this is true, consider the point (x,y) on the coordinate plane. We can represent this point as a complex number x + yi, where i is the imaginary unit. Multiplying by -1 reflects the point across the real axis, which corresponds to multiplying the complex number by -1, giving us -x - yi.

Swapping the x and y coordinates corresponds to multiplying the complex number by i, giving us y + xi. Therefore, the composition of these two reflections is equivalent to multiplying the complex number x + yi first by -1 and then by i, which corresponds to a rotation by 180 degrees about the origin. Hence, the angle of rotation is 180 degrees.

Learn more about Angle of Rotation:

https://brainly.com/question/2078551

#SPJ4

The coordinates of point P are (8, 12).

To find the coordinates of point P, we can use the fact that opposite sides of a parallelogram are parallel and equal in length.

Additionally, we know that P and Q are opposite vertices of the parallelogram.

Point Q: (0, -2)

Point R: (5, 3)

Point S: (3, 7)

Since opposite sides of a parallelogram are parallel, we can find the length and direction of the vector from Q to R and apply the same vector to point S to find point P.

Find the vector QR:

QR = (5, 3) - (0, -2) = (5, 5)

Apply the vector QR to point S to find point P:

P = S + QR = (3, 7) + (5, 5) = (8, 12)

Therefore, the coordinates of point P are (8, 12).

We can also verify that PQRS is a parallelogram by checking that opposite sides are parallel and equal in length:

Length of PQ = Length of RS = √[(8-0)² + (12-(-2))²] = √(64 + 196) = √260

Length of QR = Length of PS = √[(5-3)² + (3-7)²] = √(4 + 16) = √20

Since opposite sides PQ and RS are parallel and equal in length, and opposite sides QR and PS are parallel and equal in length, PQRS is indeed a parallelogram.

For similar question on coordinates.

https://brainly.com/question/31293074  

#SPJ8

Answer:

w * (1 + 0.17) or w + (w * 0.17)

Step-by-step explanation:

Here are two expressions that represent the retail price of an item with an original cost of w dollars, assuming that the store marks up the price by 17%:

Retail price = w * (1 + 0.17)

This expression shows that the retail price is equal to the original cost multiplied by the markup percentage (0.17) plus 1. For example, if the original cost of the item is $100, the retail price would be $100 * (1 + 0.17) = $117.

Retail price = w + (w * 0.17)

This expression shows that the retail price is equal to the original cost plus the markup amount (which is equal to the original cost multiplied by the markup percentage). For example, if the original cost of the item is $100, the retail price would be $100 + ($100 * 0.17) = $117.