HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) must use its own genetic material to reproduce.
HIV is a retrovirus, which means that it carries its genetic material in the form of RNA rather than DNA. Once HIV enters a human cell, it uses an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA, which can then be integrated into the host cell's DNA. This allows HIV to use the cell's own machinery to reproduce and make copies of itself.
HIV can also use the host cell's membrane to produce new viral particles, which are then released to infect other cells in the body. The replication of HIV is a complex process that involves multiple steps and requires the virus to hijack the host cell's machinery to complete its life cycle.
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HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a type of virus that specifically targets the immune system, leading to its eventual decline. To reproduce, HIV must use its own enzyme called reverse transcriptase.
When HIV infects a host cell, such as a CD4+ T cell, it injects its genetic material (RNA) into the cell. The virus then utilizes reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA into DNA, which is compatible with the host cell's genetic material. Once the RNA has been converted to DNA, the viral DNA integrates into the host cell's DNA using another viral enzyme called integrase. This integrated viral DNA is referred to as a provirus. The host cell then reads the provirus and creates viral proteins using its own cellular machinery. These viral proteins are assembled into new HIV particles, which are released from the host cell to infect other cells. This process allows HIV to reproduce and spread throughout the body, gradually weakening the immune system and leading to the development of AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome). In summary, HIV uses its own enzyme, reverse transcriptase, to reproduce within host cells. This enzyme is responsible for converting the virus's RNA into DNA, which is integrated into the host cell's genetic material, allowing the virus to replicate and spread.
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why is s. pneumoniae not able to be classified by the lancefield system
S. pneumoniae is not able to be classified by the Lancefield system because it does not possess the cell wall antigens that are used to categorize other streptococci.
Streptococci are a group of bacteria that are characterized by their spherical or oval shape and their tendency to grow in chains or pairs. There are many different species of streptococci, some of which are harmless and others that can cause serious infections. Streptococcal infections can affect various parts of the body, including the throat, skin, and bloodstream, and can range in severity from mild to life-threatening. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, although some streptococcal infections, such as rheumatic fever, may require long-term management. Streptococcal infections can be prevented through good hygiene practices, such as frequent handwashing and avoiding close contact with people who are sick.
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according to the excerpt, what is one of the major problems in detecting ad?
5-azacytidine has demonstrated promise in the treatment of which form of cancer
5-azacytidine has shown promise in treating myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), a type of blood cancer.
5-azacytidine is a chemotherapy drug that works by inhibiting the activity of DNA methyltransferase, an enzyme that adds methyl groups to DNA. This leads to the re-expression of silenced tumor suppressor genes, which can help slow or stop the growth of cancer cells. In clinical trials, 5-azacytidine has shown promising results in the treatment of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS), a type of blood cancer that affects the production of healthy blood cells.
MDS is a rare disease, but it can progress to acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in some cases. 5-azacytidine has been approved by the FDA for the treatment of MDS, and it is often used as a first-line therapy for patients who are not eligible for bone marrow transplantation. While 5-azacytidine can have side effects, such as nausea and low blood cell counts, it has been shown to be an effective treatment option for some MDS patients.
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why is the impaired nurse neither praised nor looked upon with reverence like his/her peers?
Impairment among nurses poses significant risks to patient safety, professional reputation, and personal well-being, leading to potential disciplinary action and legal consequences.
Impairment among nurses is a major concern that has contributed to the decline in the reputation of nurses in the healthcare field. Impairment is the inability to practice safely and competently as a result of a variety of circumstances, including substance abuse, mental health problems, or physical illness.
A nurse with an impairment is not regarded with a reverence like his or her peers and is not praised because impairment impedes the nurse's ability to practice safely. Furthermore, the reputation of the nurse is diminished, and the nurse is no longer regarded as trustworthy or reliable.
Impaired nurses are not praised nor looked upon with reverence like their peers due to the following reasons: Impairment affects the nurse's ability to practice safely and competently. Nurses are entrusted with people's health and lives; thus, an impaired nurse could pose a serious threat to patient safety. Impaired nurses pose a risk to the reputation of the profession as a whole.
As a result, when an impaired nurse is discovered, the incident is viewed as a threat to the profession's credibility and reputation. Impairment not only endangers the patient's life, but it also jeopardizes the nurse's career. When a nurse's impairment is discovered, the nurse's employment and professional license are at risk. Impaired nurses are frequently subject to disciplinary action, including the loss of their nursing licenses.
Impaired nurses may become the subject of malpractice suits, which can have long-term financial and legal consequences. In addition to the patient and professional consequences, nurses with impairments must deal with the personal consequences of their condition. Impaired nurses frequently experience feelings of guilt, shame, and anxiety.
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The degree of closeness of measurements of quantity to that quantity actual (true) value
NADH: Oxidized: Physical Activity pyruvate reduced Risk factors eating satiety Skin calipers Strength Thermic effect of food Transition reaction Underwater weighing Waist to hip ratio Weight loss What would the approximate weight gain be in one month for a person who consistently consumes 1200 calories in excess of their daily needs
Answer:
3.6 pounds.
Explanation:
If a person consumes 1200 calories more than their daily needs so in a month he will gains about 3.6 pounds weight because these extra calories stored in the body in the form of fats. According to a research, if a person consumes 1000 calories extra than their daily needs so the person will gain 3 pounds of weight which is equals to 1.4 kilograms so on the basis of this study we can conclude that the person gains about 3.6 pounds of weight which is equals to 1.6 kilograms.
Why might autoimmune diseases develop in the human body?
Answer:
When the body senses danger from a virus or infection, the immune system kicks into gear and attacks it. its called an immune response. Sometimes, healthy cells and tissues are caught up in this response, resulting in an autoimmune disease.
Explanation:
I HOPE THIS HELPS!!!
Autoimmune diseases develop in the body because the immune system of the body fights against the health issues of the body.
What are autoimmune diseases?Autoimmune diseases are diseases caused when the immune system of the body attacks the healthy cells of the body. Arthritis is an autoimmune disease.
When our immune system feels danger it attacks, but sometimes it attacks the healthy cells, which causes autoimmune diseases.
Thus, because the immune system of the body battles against the body's health problems, autoimmune illnesses begin to develop in the body.
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Jack finds any mention of male femininity offensive. His therapist suggests that, in actuality, this may be Jack's way of reducing anxiety from his true fear of being a homosexual. If so, according to Freud, what defense mechanism is Jack using?
Answer:
According to Freud, the defense mechanism that Jack is using is called projection. Projection is a psychological defense mechanism in which an individual unconsciously attributes their own thoughts, feelings, or impulses onto others. In Jack's case, his therapist suggests that he is projecting his fear of being homosexual onto others by finding any mention of male femininity offensive. By doing this, he is able to distance himself from his own fear and reduce his anxiety.
Projection is one of several defense mechanisms that Freud identified as being commonly used by individuals to protect themselves from anxiety or distress. Other defense mechanisms include repression, in which an individual unconsciously pushes uncomfortable thoughts or feelings out of their awareness, and denial, in which an individual refuses to acknowledge the reality of a situation. These defense mechanisms are typically unconscious processes, and individuals may not be aware that they are using them to cope with anxiety or distress.
The protective technique Jack is employing, according to Freud, is referred to as projection.
What is a defense mechanism?A person may unintentionally ascribe their own thoughts, feelings, or desires to others as a psychological defense strategy.
In Jack's instance, his therapist contends that by finding any discussion of male femininity offensive, he is projecting his fear of becoming homosexual onto others. He is able to separate himself from his own dread and lessen his worry by doing this.
Other forms of protection include repression, which is the unconscious suppression of unpleasant ideas or feelings, and denial, which is the refusal to acknowledge or accept.
Therefore, One of the many defense mechanisms Freud noted as being frequently utilized by people to shield themselves from anxiety or distress is projection.
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Which of the following is the best measure of aerobic fitness?A. 1 repetition maximumB. BMIC. Maximum Heart rateD. Maximum oxygen uptakeE. None of the above
The best measure of aerobic fitness among the given options is D. Maximum oxygen uptake, also known as VO2 max.
VO2 max represents the maximum amount of oxygen an individual can utilize during intense exercise. It is an important indicator of a person's aerobic capacity and overall cardiovascular fitness. A higher VO2 max value means that the person can consume more oxygen during exercise, leading to better endurance and performance.
In contrast, the other options are less suitable for measuring aerobic fitness. Option A, 1 repetition maximum, is a measure of muscular strength, not aerobic fitness. Option B, BMI (Body Mass Index), is an estimate of body fat based on height and weight, and is not directly related to aerobic fitness. Option C, Maximum Heart Rate, is the highest heart rate an individual can safely reach during exercise, but it is not as accurate or reliable as VO2 max for assessing aerobic fitness. Option E, None of the above, is not applicable since VO2 max is indeed an appropriate measure of aerobic fitness.
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which animal foods are high in carbonhydrate?
Answer:Dairy- This is the one animal food that contains carbohydrate. Milk, cheese, and yogurt contain naturally-occurring lactose. If dairy (like yogurt) is sweetened, then it will also contain added sugar like sucrose (white cane sugar) or fructose and glucose (honey and/or HFCS).
The main source of carbohydrates in livestock feed are grains such as oats, wheat, barley, corn, sorghum etc. forages and hay. Fats are an important part of the animal diet; nevertheless, they are needed in small amounts.
Emma Jones, a geriatric patient, arrives at the office for her yearly exam. When she checks in, you notice that she appears shaky and her skin is very pale. She needs to balance herself by leaning on the check-in counter.
As the person checking her in for her appointment, what actions do you take? What would you say to her? Why?
Answer:
r u ok do u need a doc boc
Explanation:
the nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving trihexyphenidyl (artane) to treat parkinsonism. the patient reports having a dry mouth, and the nurse notes a urine output of 300 ml in the past 8 hours. which action will the nurse perform?
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving trihexyphenidyl (Artane) to treat parkinsonism.
The patient reports having a dry mouth, and the nurse notes a urine output of 300 mL in the past 8 hours. That action the nurse will perform is: Report the urine output to the provider.
Who is a nurse?
Within the healthcare industry, the nursing profession focuses on providing care for people, families, and communities so that they can attain, maintain, or recover optimal health and quality of life.When it comes to patient care, training, and practise scope, nurses may be different from other healthcare professionals.The majority of healthcare facilities are primarily staffed by nurses, yet there is evidence of a global shortage of skilled nurses.To know more about nurse, click the link given below:
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Osteoporosis tends to lead to fractures in older people, and older adults experience pain from osteoarthritis. What can a younger adult do to prevent the progression of these diseases and keep the body more movable while aging?
Overall, maintaining a healthy lifestyle that includes regular exercise, a balanced diet, and avoiding unhealthy habits can help prevent the progression of osteoporosis and osteoarthritis and keep the body more mobile while aging.
How to prevent osteoarthritis?There are several things younger adults can do to prevent the progression of osteoporosis and osteoarthritis and keep their bodies more mobile as they age:
Exercise regularly: Regular physical activity can help build and maintain bone density and improve joint flexibility and strength. Aim for at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity exercise, such as brisk walking, cycling, or swimming, most days of the week.
Eat a healthy diet: A balanced diet that includes adequate amounts of calcium, vitamin D, and protein can help maintain strong bones and support joint health. Foods rich in calcium include dairy products, leafy greens, and fortified foods. Vitamin D can be found in fatty fish, egg yolks, and fortified foods.
Avoid smoking and excessive alcohol consumption: Smoking and excessive alcohol consumption can increase the risk of osteoporosis and osteoarthritis.
Maintain a healthy weight: Excess weight can put extra stress on joints and increase the risk of osteoarthritis. Maintaining a healthy weight through a balanced diet and regular exercise can help prevent or manage osteoarthritis.
Get regular check-ups: Regular visits to the doctor can help identify any underlying conditions or risk factors for osteoporosis and osteoarthritis. Your doctor may also recommend bone density scans or other tests to monitor your bone health.
Practice good posture: Good posture can help reduce the risk of developing osteoporosis and osteoarthritis. Make sure to sit and stand up straight, and avoid slouching or hunching over.
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The brain is the seat of _______________ and _______________.
Which body plane(s) will be required to create a section showing the tongue and the nose in the same section?
Hey there!
The answers are:
Nose and Tongue
Hope it help you
A person is having trouble breathing and is rushed to the hospital. Which body cavity will the doctors most likely check first to find the problem?
Explanation:
1.Chest X-ray. It can show the
doctor signs of conditions such
as pneumonia or other heart
and lung problems. ...
2.Oxygen test. Also called pulse
oximetry, this helps your
doctor measure how much
oxygen is in your blood. ...
3.Electrocardiography (EKG).
I hope it will help....
Answer:
the thoracic cavity
Explanation:
Compare the duration of actions of warfarin (Coumadin) and Enoxaparin(Lovenox) and explain the reason the provider switched to Enoxaparin at this time
Answer:
The duration of the effect of Warfarin is prolonged for 2 to 5 days, while the effect of enoxaparin can be maintained for a maximum of 24 hours. The provider probably switched to Enoxaparin to better control the anticoagulant effect.
Explanation:
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an orally administered anticoagulant that indirectly interferes with the action of vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors II, VII, IV and X. The effect as an anticoagulant can begin after 8 hours of administration, reaching a maximum effect in 72 hours, and an effect that can last up to five days.
Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is an anticoagulant administered subcutaneously, whose effect is to inhibit the activity of coagulation factor Xa. Its effect is rapid after administration, and its half-life is relatively short —about 4 to 6 hours— so that the effect can remain for no more than 24 hours.
When a provider switchs the indication of warfarin to enoxaparin, it is to achieve better control of anticoagulation, use it for a limited time or without affecting other mechanisms of blood coagulation.
In which patient groups should you obtain a follow-up CXR? You may pick one or more answers.
A) Yes, on all patients. It is standard of care
B) On all patients over the age of 40
C) On patients with recurrent pneumonias
D) Only in children
E) On patients whose symptoms do not resolve
The patient groups should you obtain a follow-up CXR are patients with recurrent pneumonia and patients whose symptoms do not resolve.
While it is important to obtain a follow-up CXR (chest x-ray) in certain patient groups, it is not necessary for all patients. A follow-up CXR is typically recommended for patients with recurrent pneumonia, as this may indicate an underlying lung condition that requires further evaluation. Additionally, a follow-up CXR should be obtained in patients whose symptoms do not resolve, as this may indicate that the initial treatment was not an effective and further intervention is needed.
Therefore, options A, B, and D are not correct. It is not standard of care to obtain a follow-up CXR on all patients, nor is it necessary to obtain a follow-up CXR on all patients over the age of 40 or only in children. And the correct answer is C and E.
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A client has been diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma which information should the nurse remember when planning care?
When planning care for a client with squamous cell carcinoma, the nurse should consider the type and location of the cancer, assess risk factors and medical history, educate about sun protection, and coordinate appropriate treatment and follow-up care.
1. Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that typically arises from the squamous cells in the outer layer of the skin. It can also develop in other areas, such as the lining of the organs or the respiratory and digestive tracts.
2. Risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma include prolonged sun exposure, fair skin, a history of sunburns, exposure to radiation, a weakened immune system, and exposure to certain chemicals.
3. The nurse should assess the client's overall health and gather information about their medical history, including any previous skin cancers or precancerous lesions.
4. Treatment options for squamous cell carcinoma may include surgery to remove the cancerous cells, radiation therapy, chemotherapy, targeted therapy, or immunotherapy. The choice of treatment depends on the location, size, and stage of the cancer.
5. The nurse should educate the client about the importance of sun protection measures, such as using sunscreen with a high SPF, wearing protective clothing, seeking shade, and avoiding tanning beds.
6. Regular follow-up visits with the healthcare provider are essential for monitoring the client's condition and detecting any recurrence or new lesions.
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What is provides a reference for coding outpatient services such as vaccinations, ear canal irrigation, and osteopathic manipulation services?
The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code system provides a reference for coding outpatient services such as vaccinations, ear canal irrigation, and osteopathic manipulation services.
What is the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code system?The Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code system is a standardized medical code set used to describe and report medical, surgical, and diagnostic procedures and services provided by healthcare professionals in outpatient settings in the United States.
The CPT codes are maintained by the American Medical Association (AMA) and are regularly updated to reflect changes in medical practices and technology. CPT codes are used for billing and reimbursement purposes by insurance companies, Medicare, and Medicaid, and they provide a common language for communication among healthcare providers, patients, and payers.
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- All are true about attack rate EXCETP:
It is type of prevalence rate
incidence
It is measure of risk
c) Expressed as percentage
Used for a limited period of time
What is the advantage of working within the code of ethics for
Medical Assistants?
The advantage of working within the code of ethics for Medical Assistants is Professionalism, reliability and compliance.
The code of ethics promotes professionalism in medical assistant practise by establishing professional standards. Respecting these guidelines improves the standing of medical assistants and the medical field as a whole. The code of ethics places a strong emphasis on patient-centered care, maintaining patient confidence, and safeguarding confidentiality.
Medical assistants can help patients feel safe and trusted by upholding patient rights and well-being through the application of ethical standards. Medical assistants can grasp and uphold their ethical and legal commitments with the guidance of the code of ethics. In order to keep Medical Assistants within the law, it offers instructions on proper conduct, confidentiality, respect for patient autonomy, and ethical decision-making.
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This structure is a capillary bed from which blood is filtered into the nephron.
Glomerulus
Glomerulus is the structure which is a capillary bed from which blood is filtered into the nephron.
What is glomerulus?The kidney's filtering system, the glomerulus, is made up of a network of capillaries and highly differentiated epithelial cells called podocytes that control the selective filtration of blood into an ultrafiltrate that will eventually turn into urine.What role does the glomerulus play?Your blood is filtered by the glomerulus.Blood enters the glomerulus, a collection of small blood veins, as it enters each nephron. Smaller molecules, wastes, and fluid—mostly water—can pass through the glomerulus thin walls and into the tubule. Proteins and blood cells, which are larger molecules, remain in the blood vessel.What are the glomerulus three functional components?The glomerular podocytes, fenestrated capillary endothelial cells, and mesangial cells are the three main cell types of importance in the glomerulus.What components make up glomerulus?Endothelial cells, podocytes, and mesangial cells are the three types of cells that make up the glomerulus.To learn more about glomerulus visit:
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Think back to when you were a 7-year-old child. How did you think, feel, and act differently then than you do now? Take a recent experience and imagine how you would react to that experience as a 7-year-old child. What would be different in your reactions? What would be the same?
If we were to picture how a 7-year-old child might experience a recent incident, we may anticipate that they might have a more rapid and powerful emotional response and that they might find it difficult to comprehend the complicated aspects involved.
They could also need greater assurance and assistance from adults to handle the issue successfully. On the other hand, they could also have a stronger sense of surprise and interest in the world around them, which might result in imaginative answers and ground-breaking concepts.
Children's cognitive skills continue to advance quickly around age 7, and they begin to think more rationally and abstractly. They could, however, still have trouble with difficult problem-solving exercises and have short attention spans.
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5
Select the correct answer.
Cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby's cerise is a new mother. She wants to stimulate her baby’s visual development. Which is the best way for her to do that?
A. by letting the baby watch television programs
B. by exposing the baby to fast moving objects
C. by limiting the baby's exposure to bright colors
D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors
Answer:
D. by exposing the baby to objects of bright colors
Explanation:
Newborns find high contrast colors easier to pick out.
They cannot see far away (more than 30 cm), so answer A is incorrect. Newborn sight is fuzzy and they are just learning to track objects with their eyes, so answer B is also incorrect.
The nurse has just received report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse see first? O 1 Client 2 days post hip replacement who is reporting intense itching at the incision site 2. Client receiving normal saline IV at 250 ml/hr who is reporting puffy legs and a new cough 3. Client who is becoming increasingly angry due to a 2-hour delay in being discharged 04. Client with a potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) receiving NS with 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L) potassium chlorid - > End Suspend FI
The nurse should see first the Client receiving normal saline IV at 250 ml/hr who is reporting puffy legs and a new cough. The correct option is 2 client.
Who is a nurse?A nurse is someone who has completed a basic, generalized nursing education program and is licensed to practice nursing in their country by the appropriate regulatory authority.
Nurse take care of the medicines of the patient, he/she take care of the patient's mental health, and his checkups and needs.
Thus, the correct option is 2 client.
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What would happen if Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company, based on what she learned about Mr. Campbell’s insurance with the same company?
If Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company it is attainable for Portia Milstine the MA (Medical Assisstant) at the front table to commit miscalculation of faulty categorization by presumptuous that Mrs. Hilbert's edges are identical as that of Josiah Campbell.
The fact that they're colleagues within the same place of labor, with an equivalent form of card doesn't mean that they need an equivalent medical cowl or health advantages.
Should the caregiver proceed to bill Mrs. David Hilbert on an equivalent basis, as Mr. Josiah, she would be committing a charge error. There are different varieties of billing errors that are common among medical assistants. They are:
Wrong Patient information
Duplicate billing
Balance billing
The question is incomplete, complete question is here
Patient Kenya Hilbert arrives for an appointment and gives the medical assistant, Portia Milstine, MA, her insurance card. Portia notices that the insurance company is Healthy Way Insurance and that Ms. Hilbert works for the Exact Accounting Company, a large company near the medical clinic. She recalls that this morning Josiah Campbell came in and that he also had Healthy Way Insurance and also works for the Exact Accounting Company. When she verified his benefits, she learned that preventive care is covered at 100 percent, and for other services, patients must pay a $20.00 copayment. The office is busy this afternoon, so Portia wonders if she really needs to take the time to verify the benefits for Ms. Hilbert. After all, it looks like she has the exact same insurance that Mr. Campbell had, and she already verified his benefits.
What would happen if Portia told Ms. Hilbert that her visit today will be covered 100 percent by her insurance company, based on what she learned about Mr. Campbell’s insurance with the same company?
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short tribute speech about the health workers who lost their lives during the pandemic
Answer:
Rest in peace to the heroes that lost their lives on the front lines of the covid-19 pandemic helping every moment that their bodies could handle.
HURRY
Which trait gained during childhood will help a young adult succeed?
A child’s increase in fine motor skills will allow for lasting friendships in adulthood.
A child’s sense of right and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.
A child’s increase in gross motor skill will allow for vision acuity in adulthood.
A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.
Answer: B
A child's sence of rights and wrong will allow for a stronger memory in adulthood.
Answer:
the last one A child’s decrease in dependency on his parents will allow for greater independence in adulthood.
Explanation:
Cause and effect if a child is lease dependent on their parents, that will allow for more things without their parents like money.
You are manning a telephone hotline in a city experiencing an outbreak of pandemic flu. You have been given a set of questions to ask callers (for example, do you have a fever?) and information to provide depending on the expressed concerns of callers.
Answer:
what is the question that is being asked here?
Explanation: