Answer:
science is the systematic way of studying living and nonliving things in our environment
what type of chemical reactions do the 1-4 straight carbon chain alkanes undergo?
If heart rates is 76 beats per minute how many times the heart beat in a day
Answer:
109,440 beats per day
Explanation:
75 times 60 (the amount of minutes in an hour) equals 4,560
456p times 24 (the amount of hours in a day) equals 109,440
8
Select the correct answer.
Which statement best explains acceleration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is the total distance covered over a period of time.
It is a change in velocity over a period of time.
It is a change in displacement over a period of time.
It is a change in direction over a period of time.
Reset
Next
Answer:Acceleration is indeed a change in velocity over a period of time.
Explanation:
If a radiometric age can be determined is there any use for a relative age? Why or why not?
Answer:
Radiometric dating calculates an age in years for geologic materials by measuring the presence of a short-life radioactive element, e.g., carbon-14, or a long-life radioactive element plus its decay product, e.g., potassium-14/argon-40. The term applies to all methods of age determination based on nuclear decay of naturally occurring radioactive isotopes. Bates and Jackson (1984)
Explanation:
Hope this helps! <3
why the heart can be considered the muscle with the greatest elastic strength.
Answer:
Elastic strength is the ability of a muscle to absorb, store, and release energy. The more energy the muscle releases, the faster and more powerful the movement. The fact that the heart pumps 2,500 gallons (9,450 liters) of blood daily makes it the muscle with the greatest elastic strength.
Explanation:
4. The ATP yield from 2 moles of mitochondrial NADH under aerobic conditions in a eukaryotic cell would be: which option is correct a) 1 mole of ATP b) 2 moles of ATP c) 3 moles of ATP d) 4 moles of ATP e) 6 moles of ATP
The ATP yield from 2 moles of mitochondrial NADH under aerobic conditions in a eukaryotic cell is approximately 4 moles of ATP.
During oxidative phosphorylation, each mole of NADH can generate around 2.5 to 3 moles of ATP. Therefore, for 2 moles of NADH, the total ATP production would be in the range of 4 to 6 moles of ATP. While the more precise estimate falls within the 4 to 6 moles range, the closest option provided is 4 moles of ATP. It is important to note that the exact ATP yield can vary depending on factors such as the efficiency of the electron transport chain and the specific conditions within the cell.Since there are 2 moles of mitochondrial NADH, the total ATP yield would be around 4 to 6 moles of ATP. However, the most accurate option among the given choices is 4 moles of ATP.
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Which of the following best describes high G+C bacteria
a.) Gram-negative bacteria that include spirochetes, planctomycetes, and the CFB group
b.) A gram-positive group that includes Bacilli
c.) Gram-negative bacteria that include a large group composed of five classes of bacteria
d.) A gram-positive group that includes the Actinobacteria
Answer:
d.) A gram-positive group that includes the Actinobacteria
Explanation:
The best description of high G+C bacteria is option d) A gram-positive group that includes the Actinobacteria.
High G+C bacteria, also known as high guanine-cytosine bacteria, refer to a group of bacteria characterized by a high proportion of guanine (G) and cytosine (C) nucleotide bases in their DNA. This characteristic can be determined by analyzing the DNA composition of bacteria.
Option d) states that high G+C bacteria belong to a gram-positive group that includes the Actinobacteria. This is the most accurate description of high G+C bacteria. Actinobacteria are a phylum of gram-positive bacteria, known for their high G+C content. They are characterized by their filamentous growth and the formation of branching networks of hyphae, similar to fungi. Actinobacteria include a diverse range of organisms, such as the genus Streptomyces, which produce many antibiotics, and Mycobacterium, which includes the species responsible for tuberculosis and leprosy.
Options a), b), and c) are not accurate descriptions of high G+C bacteria. Option a) mentions gram-negative bacteria and includes spirochetes, planctomycetes, and the CFB (Cytophaga-Flavobacterium-Bacteroides) group, which are not specifically associated with high G+C content. Option b) refers to a gram-positive group that includes the Bacilli, which generally do not have a high G+C content. Option c) mentions gram-negative bacteria composed of five classes, but it does not specifically address high G+C content.
Therefore, option d) is the most accurate description of high G+C bacteria, as it correctly identifies them as a gram-positive group that includes the Actinobacteria.
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How should food workers
keep garbage cans clean
and free of buildup?
a. Sanitize the cans daily
b. Use plastic liners in the cans
c. Keep food waste in outdoor
dumpsters
d. Apply a pesticide to the bottom of
the cans
Routinely clean trash cans. Put plastic liners inside the cans to stop drips, crumbs, and other filth from accumulating and luring bugs. Never leave full trash bags lying around your business or on the property; always carry them to the nearest skip.
What is the use for plastic liners?Polyethylene liners, often known as poly bin liners, are a type of plastic liner that can be used in a variety of situations. Bulk bags, boxes, and flexible intermediate bulk containers (also known as FIBCs) are all frequently used with them to add an extra lining and layer of protection. Flexible plastic liners made of polyethylene, often known as "poly liners," are created especially to line the interior of flexible intermediate bulk containers (also known as "bulk bags" or "FIBCs"). As a starting point for production, resin for can liners is employed. Low density polyethylene (LDPE), linear low density polyethylene (LLDPE), and high density polyethylene (HDPE) are the three distinct resin types utilised to make can liners.To learn more about plastic liner, refer to:
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Food workers can keep garbage cans clean and free from buildup by sanitizing the cans daily, using plastic liners in the cans, and moving food waste to outdoor dumpsters. Applying pesticide is not recommended.
Explanation:Food workers can keep garbage cans clean and free from buildup by employing a few practical measures.
Sanitizing the cans daily: This could involve washing the cans with hot soapy water and a brush to remove any residual waste and then applying a sanitizer/disinfectant.Using plastic liners in the cans: This helps to prevent direct contact of waste with the can, reducing chances of buildup and making the cans easier to clean.Moving food waste to outdoor dumpsters: Although this could help in reducing odor and pest problems in food service areas, one should also ensure these outdoor dumpsters are correctly handled and cleaned.Applying pesticide to the cans is not generally recommended as it could potentially contaminate food products if not used properly.
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Activity 3: Direction: Study the picture. Write the phases of the moon 1 new moon O first quarter O MOON PHASES last quarter waning crescent woving crescent Waning gibbous working globos
Answer:
1.full moon
2.waxing gibbous
3.first quarter
4.waning gibbous
5.new moon
6.wabing cresent
7.last quarter
8.waxing cresent
Which are vital signs?
O temperature, respiratory rate, and weight
O muscle mass, height, and weight
Oheart rate, temperature, and height
temperature, respiratory rate, and heart rate
The correct combination of vital signs is temperature, respiratory rate, and heart rate.
Vital signs are key measurements that provide important indicators of a person's physiological status and overall health. They help healthcare professionals assess and monitor a patient's condition. The vital signs typically include temperature, respiratory rate, heart rate, and blood pressure. Among the options provided, the correct combination of vital signs is temperature, respiratory rate, and heart rate.
Temperature is a measure of the body's internal heat. It can be measured orally, rectally, or with the help of infrared thermometers. Deviations from the normal range may indicate fever or hypothermia, which can be indicative of underlying health issues.
The respiratory rate refers to the number of breaths a person takes per minute. It provides insight into lung function and overall respiratory health. Abnormal respiratory rates may suggest respiratory distress or underlying pulmonary conditions.
Heart rate, also known as pulse rate, measures the number of times the heart beats per minute. It reflects cardiac activity and can be assessed by feeling the pulse at various points in the body. Deviations from the normal heart rate can indicate cardiovascular problems or other physiological abnormalities.
Weight, muscle mass, and height are not typically considered vital signs. They are important anthropometric measurements used for assessing overall body composition, growth, and nutritional status. While these measurements are relevant in healthcare, they are not classified as vital signs.
In summary, the vital signs include temperature, respiratory rate, and heart rate. Monitoring these parameters allows healthcare professionals to gain valuable insights into a patient's health status, identify potential issues, and make informed decisions regarding treatment and care.
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YOU GET 50 POINTS: Fill in the words
Answer:
meiosis
chromosome
partner
divides
chromosome
Four new cells
single set
13. List three organizations or agencies in your area that are involved in the conservation and protection of the environment. Describe the purpose of each agency/organization.
Answer:
Union of Concerned Scientists: Works for a healthier environment and a safer world. Through this renewal award, UCS conducts technical assessments on securing weapons material in the US.
Natural Resources Defense Council: Strives to rid our food, air, water, and household products from toxic chemicals. NRDC works to protect our world's oceans from pollution and exploitation.
Environmental Working Group: Protect human health and the environment and specializes in research and advocacy in the areas of agricultural subsidies, toxic chemicals, drinking water pollutants and corporate accountable.
Explanation:
Which of the following is NOT a difference between DNA and RNA? (A) DNA and RNA help make proteins (B)DNA uses Thymine and RNA uses Uracil (C)DNA contains genetic information and RNA does not (D)DNA is a double strand and RNA is one.
Answer:
A is false
Explanation:
List 3 properties of the
hair's cuticle
Answer:
Cuticle, Cortex, MedullaBUTProperties include: SmoothnessFlatnessMalleabilityExplanation:
These are the main three properties of the hair's cuticle.
Answer:
smoothness
Explanation:
elasticity, softness
what are the childhood disease?
Answer:
well childhood disease is diseases that happens in childhood like chickenpox and etc
I hope it helps
\(\huge\textbf{Answer :-}\)
\(\large\underline{\textsf{\textbf{Childhood Diseases}}}\) are diseases that mainly occur or become symptomatic when a person is a child (0 - 18) years. The term is quite self-explanatory. Few examples will be ➟ Common Cold, whopping cough etc. Most of the childhood diseases are not dangerous.
____________________
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꧁❣ ʀᴀɪɴʙᴏᴡˢᵃˡᵗ2²2² ࿐
You see an entire pond, with the same plant across most of it. The plant seems to be surviving very well. Which adaptation does the plant most likely have?
Group of answer choices
Waterproof Leaves
Big Leaves
Short Roots
Cactus Spines
Quagga mussels, an invasive species of mollusk originally from
Russia, have been introduced to the lake after being carried in on
the hulls of boats. An assessment of the size of the quagga
mussel problem is needed, along with suggestions to curb their
population growth.
what field of science is this?
This is a problem in the field of ecology.
The problem of quagga mussels in the lake is an ecological issue that requires scientific assessment and management.
It falls under the discipline of ecology, which studies the relationships between organisms and their environment.
Ecologists investigate the impacts of invasive species on the ecosystem and devise strategies to control their spread and minimize their effects.
In this case, scientists will need to examine the size of the quagga mussel population, their distribution, and their ecological interactions with native species.
They will also need to recommend measures to prevent further introduction of quagga mussels and to manage their population growth, such as using chemical treatments or biological controls.
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Q1) Based on the information in the unit, explain why the number of predators is declining in the
Appalachian region. What effects might this have on the forest?
Q2) Why is it important that diverse areas of the forest are monitored when counting trees? What
could happen if this wasn't done?
Q3) The unit discusses measuring growth in forests. Where else might it be important to measure
the growth of trees? Why?
Q4) If trees in a timber cruise were found to be of many different species, would that mean that the
forest could be used for timber? Explain your answer.
Q5) Why do you think that biodiversity is good for ecosystems?
Answer:
Q1) The number of predators is declining in the Appalachian region due to factors such as habitat loss, hunting, and disease. This can have significant effects on the forest ecosystem, as the absence of predators can lead to an increase in the populations of their prey. This can, in turn, cause a decrease in the populations of other species that rely on those prey for food, and can also result in an overgrazing of certain plant species, leading to a disruption in the balance of the forest ecosystem.
Q2) It is important to monitor diverse areas of the forest when counting trees because different areas may have different types of trees or different densities of trees. Focusing on only one type of area or tree species could result in an inaccurate count and misrepresentation of the forest's overall health. If diverse areas of the forest are not monitored, it could lead to an incomplete understanding of the forest's ecosystem, and potentially lead to poor management decisions.
Q3) It is important to measure the growth of trees in other areas such as urban environments, parks, and nature reserves. This is because trees provide essential benefits such as shade, air purification, and carbon sequestration, and monitoring their growth can help determine their health and inform management decisions. In urban environments, for example, trees can help mitigate the effects of heat islands and improve air quality.
Q4) The presence of multiple species in a timber cruise does not necessarily mean that the forest can be used for timber. The species of trees, their size, and their density all play a role in determining the economic viability of a timber harvest. Additionally, other factors such as the terrain and accessibility of the forest also need to be considered.
Q5) Biodiversity is important for ecosystems because it provides stability and resilience. A diverse ecosystem can better withstand environmental stressors such as climate change, disease, and natural disasters, as different species may have different adaptations and roles within the ecosystem. Biodiversity can also provide important ecosystem services such as pollination, nutrient cycling, and pest control. Furthermore, a diverse ecosystem can be more aesthetically pleasing and provide recreational opportunities for people.
How much time is needed for a 15,000 W engine to do 1,800,000 J of work ? (Power: P = W/t)
Answers:
T =120s
Explanation:
P=15,000
W=1,800,000 J
P=W/T
T=W/P
T=1,800,000 J/15,000W
=120s
1. Convert 4.52 x 10 26 atoms of gold to moles of gold.
Answer:
7.5056365964E-24 Moles
Explanation:
who developed the unit for measuring amplitude?
(A.) Alexander Graham Bell
(B.) Thomas Edison
(C.) Nikola Tesla
(D.) Antonio Meucci
Answer: (C.) Nikola Tesla
Explanation: SOMETHING I DONT UNDERSTAND! I'm 4yrs old and my 13yrs old sis told me she was on her perio d but then I told her there was this thing called subject and predicate and how she isnt supposed to have a period at the end of her statement because it wouldnt make any sense... and ya, it didnt go well cause' she put on a tantrum.
But the weird thing is that Google said this "Tantrums are most common between the ages of one and four, then decrease when children start school." SO HOW COME I DIDN"T HABE A TANTRUM!!.. life makes no sense
Which of the following is a BEHAVIORAL adaptation?
O Forward-facing eyes
O Long fur
O Digging:
O Sharp Claws
Help
Answer:
Forward Facing Eyes
duh how much more does it needs to be obvious
Describe way in which plants are adapted to swed dispersal by animals give an example
Some seeds feature barbs or hooks that cling to an animal's skin, fur, or feathers. Birds can carry away the sticky seeds of plants like pittosporum.
How do plants adapt to animal seed dispersal?Seeds from plants that rely on animals for distribution are made to fit either within or outside of the animal. Burr- or hook-shaped seeds can cling to an animal's fur. Plants give seeds that are carried internally an enticing fruit pulp reward in exchange for the journey.
What kind of animal dispersal are examples?Mangoes, guavas, breadfruit, carob, and several fig species are some examples. Aardvarks and the desert melon (Cucumis humifructus) share a symbiotic connection in South Africa, where the mammals consume the fruit for food.
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Part A
Which Of The Following Student-Drawn Cell Models Contain Two Chromosomes? Select All That Apply.
Answer:
the last one , the second to last one and the first one I am pretty sure
A, C and D are the student-Drawn Cell Models that Contain Two Chromosomes.
Every cell in your body has DNA, which is the form in which your genetic code is stored. It creates your body's manual of operations. Each cell's nucleus contains chromosomes, which are structures that resemble threads and contain the DNA molecule.
A chromosome is referred to be a "homologous chromosome" if it has a similar genetic makeup but also includes replication-induced variations. Sister chromatids are the two halves of a certain chromosome that are joined at the centromere. Chromosomes known as "replication chromosomes" arise after the cell has undergone the process of DNA replication to prepare for cell division.
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HURRY PLEASE I HAVE BARELY ANYTIME LEFT
What is the point of meiosis?
A. Cause mutations in which the DNA content of the gene is altered
B. Creation of somatic cells for growth and repair
C. Segregation of sister chromatids
D. Increased genetic variation by crossing over and fertilization
Answer:
D. increased genetic variation by crossing over and fertilization
Does following a schedule
Appeal to you, or
Cramp you?
Following a schedule does not cramp me, rather it appeals to me.
Why schedules appeal to meA schedule is a plan that specifies the time and duration of activities, events, or tasks that need to be accomplished. It can be in the form of a calendar, planner, or list of tasks to be done at specific times.
Several reasons make having a schedule important include:
Managing time efficiently and effectively is vital for success. One way to do this is by prioritizing tasks and allocating the right amount of time to complete them. This helps in avoiding procrastination and ensures a timely completion. Create a schedule and stick to it to make the most of your time.By preventing individuals from taking on too many tasks simultaneously, a schedule is integral to optimizing productivity. A schedule ensures that tasks are completed promptly and efficiently.By creating order and control, a schedule can greatly reduce feelings of stress. The stress of last-minute rushes and deadlines can be avoided with the aid of a schedule.Learn more on schedules here https://brainly.com/question/31388638
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During normal mitosis, a parent cell that has eight chromosomes will produce ________, containing ______ each.
A. 2 cells, 8 chromosomes.
B. 4 cells, 4 chromosomes.
C. 4 cells, 8 chromosomes.
Answer:
A. 2 cells, 8 chromosomes
Explanation:
Mitotic cell division is the division of one parent cell to create two daughter cells. It replicates its DNA so each cell has the same amount of chromosomes as the parent cell.
Which of the following is a difference between radiation and conduction
Answer:
radiation is the transfer of heat by E.M radiation through indirect contact ex. the sun is transferring heat while
conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact ex. eggs cooking on a frying pan
Explanation:
hope this helps!
Please help I’ve been stuck on this for so long please and thanks
2. From the details provided about the lower jaw, it can be concluded that the lower jaw belongs to a young adult female.
3. From the details provided about the femur, it can be concluded that the femur belongs to an aged individual.
What are the characteristic features of the femur?The femur comprises a long shaft in the middle and two rounded ends. It's the traditional form that bones take in cartoons: a tube with two rounded protrusions on either end.
The femoral neck supports the femoral head, which is the most distal part of the femur.
The ligamentum teres act as an attachment point for the femoral head, which is approximately spherical but contains a medial dip known as the fovea capitis femoris.
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The interior of the phospholipid bilayer is _______ meaning it repels polar molecules, such as water
The cell membrane's inside is hydrophobic, meaning that water won't cling to it. In order to effectively separate fluid inside the cell from fluid outside the cell, phospholipids form a two-layer cell membrane.
Why do polar molecules repelled by the phospholipid bilayer?Large hydrophilic polar or ionic molecules find it difficult to pass through the phospholipid bilayer. The cell membrane prevents the passage of any size charged atoms or molecules.
What component of the phospholipid bilayer is water-repellent?While the tails (the lipid component) are non-polar, the heads (the phospho part) are polar. The tails, which face the inside of the cell membrane, are "hydrophobic" (fearful of water), whereas the heads, which make up the exterior and inner linings, are "hydrophilic" (lovers of water).
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