Answer:
Color, Clarity and Specific gravity
Explanation:
When the worst of her infection was over, Tyesha found herself wondering about the cause of her infection. She knew that cholera was a big problem in many developing countries, but largely unknown in the United States. She wanted to understand the difference. Sure, she had some fresh shellfish that last night in Haiti, but she ate raw sushi all the time with her friends dining out at home. Tyesha, with her public health interests, decided to find out all she could about the incidence of cholera, and to go back there and help when she finished her schooling. For Tyesha, her bout with cholera was a frightening and disgusting experience, but one that was relatively easily handled. Why is cholera such a devastating illness in much of the developing world
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
A developing country is a less developed country that has a lower gross domestic product. They are mainly poor countries that are simply trying to grow and increase their GDP.
Cholera is caused due to poor sanitation or eating contaminated food or drinking unclean water. A developing country usually lack social development and also have water challenges as they typically have poor infrastructure.
Cholera is called the disease of the poor as it's prevalent in poor countries due to the poor sanitation and poverty in such areas.
Inpatient and Outpatient Coding
Compare and contrast inpatient and outpatient coding. Include in your discussion the various types of outpatient settings and indicate the type of setting you might prefer to work in. (Make sure to share why.)
Some of the key differences between inpatient and outpatient coding: include:
ServicesCoding SystemsReimbursementHow are inpatient and outpatient coding different ?Inpatient coding involves medical services that are provided to patients who have been admitted to a hospital or other healthcare facility for an overnight stay or longer. Outpatient coding involves medical services that are provided to patients who do not require an overnight stay and are typically seen on an outpatient basis.
Inpatient coding is done using the ICD-10-CM and ICD-10-PCS code sets, which are more complex and detailed than those used for outpatient coding. Outpatient coding is done using CPT and HCPCS codes, which are designed to capture the specific services provided during the patient's visit.
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briefly explain what this genetic code is in general and how it works.
The genetic code is a universal language that translates the information stored in DNA and RNA into the sequence of amino acids that make up proteins, enabling the essential biological functions necessary for life.
The genetic code is a set of rules that determines how information encoded in DNA and RNA is translated into proteins. It serves as the fundamental basis for the flow of genetic information in all living organisms. The genetic code consists of a series of codons, which are sequences of three nucleotides (A, T, C, and G in DNA; A, U, C, and G in RNA). Each codon corresponds to a specific amino acid or a stop signal.
During protein synthesis, messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the genetic information from DNA to the ribosomes, which are cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis. The ribosomes read the mRNA sequence in groups of three nucleotides (codons) and match each codon with the corresponding amino acid.
This process is facilitated by the transfer of RNA (tRNA) molecules that carry the amino acids to the ribosomes. Each tRNA molecule recognizes a specific codon through its anticodon sequence and brings the corresponding amino acid to be added to the growing protein chain.
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when setting up a room for a patient who has been treated for status epilepticus, which equipment should the nurse have available? select all that apply
when setting up a room for a patient who has been treated for status epilepticus, The following equipment should the nurse have available: Siderail pads, Oxygen mask and Suction tubing.
What is status epilepticus?Status epilepticus refers to a seizure that lasts longer than five minutes or many seizures within five minutes of one another without regaining consciousness. Cerebrovascular diseases, brain trauma, infections, and low antiepileptic medication levels in epilepsy patients are common and readily identifiable causes of SE. Less frequent causes might be difficult to diagnose and treat, but can have a significant impact on prognosis.
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truue/falsee. A new drug has been formulated which is intended to inhibit ulcer formation by absorbing excess stomach acid. However, some researchers predict that the resulting reduced levels of stomach acid will interfere with the stomach's ability to break down food, and the body will compensate by producing more stomach acid.
A new drug has been formulated which is intended to inhibit ulcer formation by absorbing excess stomach acid. The given statement is true.
What happens when the acid of the stomach reduces?Reduced levels of stomach acid will interfere with the stomach's ability to break down food, and the body will compensate by producing more stomach acid.
The stomach is part of the gastrointestinal tract. The gastrointestinal tract runs from the mouth to the small intestine. A new drug has been formulated which is intended to inhibit ulcer formation by absorbing excess stomach acid.
Therefore, A new drug has been formulated which is intended to inhibit ulcer formation by absorbing excess stomach acid. The given statement is true.
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How can you tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids?
a. All plant oils are unsaturated because they are liquid at room temperature.
b. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated.
c. Oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
d. Beef fat is considered unsaturated because cattle eat only plant foods.
e. all fat that is solid at low temperatures is unsaturated.
Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).
What distinguishes a fat as being saturated or unsaturated? Heat the fat until it liquefies, then use a gas chromatograph to separate the fatty acids. This is the simplest method for accomplishing this (GC).At the carbon-carbon double bond, saturated fatty acids will have a distinctive double-bonded carbon atom, whereas unsaturated fatty acids won't.A saturated fat.It is solid when left at room temperature.It can be present in full-fat dairy products, such as yogurt and cheese, as well as high-fat meats like butter and lard.Unsaturated fatAt normal room temperature, this is usually liquid.You can find it in fish, nuts, and vegetable oils.The largest number of hydrogen atoms are found in saturated fats, but there are less hydrogen bonds than the maximum amount at each double bond in unsaturated fats.To learn more about fatty acids refer
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The best way to tell whether a fat contains primarily saturated or unsaturated fatty acids is to look at the physical properties of the fat. Solid fats that melt at a high temperature are unsaturated, while oils that remain liquid at room temperature are primarily unsaturated.
What is fatty acids?Fatty acids are organic compounds that are made up of a carboxylic acid group attached to a hydrocarbon chain. They are found naturally occurring in plant and animal fats, oils, and waxes, and are important components of biological membranes. Fatty acids are essential for the production of energy and for the proper functioning of all cells and organs. In humans, fatty acids are used to make hormones and regulate many bodily processes. They are also important for the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins and the synthesis of lipids.
Fats that are solid at low temperatures are saturated. For example, beef fat is considered saturated because it is solid at low temperatures.
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What is the function of the milky-colored fluids secreted from the prostate.
Answer:
to activate sperm
Explanation:
which drug can be used to treat alogia avolition and anhedonia in patients with schizophrenia
Antipsychotic medications, such as second-generation or atypical antipsychotics, are commonly used to treat symptoms of schizophrenia, including alogia, avolition, and anhedonia.
Alogia, avolition, and anhedonia are negative symptoms of schizophrenia that can significantly impact a person's quality of life. Antipsychotic medications are the mainstay of treatment for schizophrenia and are often prescribed to address both positive and negative symptoms. Second-generation or atypical antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, or aripiprazole, are commonly used due to their favorable side effect profiles compared to older, first-generation antipsychotics.
These medications primarily work by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to reduce the excess dopamine activity associated with positive symptoms. By modulating dopamine levels, they can also alleviate negative symptoms, including alogia (reduced speech or difficulty expressing oneself), avolition (lack of motivation or interest in goal-directed activities), and anhedonia (loss of pleasure or inability to experience joy). However, it is important to note that the effectiveness of antipsychotics in treating these specific symptoms can vary between individuals.
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Which of the following patients would be appropriate to help move using a transfer belt?
Ying, a patient with relatively good mobility who is recovering from back surgery
Ivy, a patient with limited mobility who has a feeding tube
Sandra, a patient with limited mobility who is recovering from an abdominal surgery
Paulo, a patient with relatively good mobility who is suffering from the flu
Answer: i think the answer is Ying,a patient with relatively good mobility who is recovering from back surgery.
Explanation:
Which of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice An undercooked hamburger patty is the most likely source of giardia. In the United States, people rarely suffer from food-borne illnesses. A food's odor or appearance is not a reliable indicator of whether it's safe to eat. The United States Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for inspecting local restaurants and grocery stores to ensure they meet food safety standards.
Answer:
Giardiasis is an intestinal illness caused by infection with the parasite Giardia lamblia, which lives in contaminated water. Although the illness most often occurs in developing countries, giardiasis is also a common cause of waterborne illness in the United States. A person can remain infected with Giardia until the infection is diagnosed and treated. In developing areas of the world, it is common for more than 20% of a country's population to have ongoing Giardia infection. In the United States, only 1 or 2 out of every 10,000 people have Giardia in a typical year, but the infection is found in about 1 out of 3 people who have prolonged diarrhea symptoms if they have recently traveled to a developing country.
Explanation:
What does the fox say?
Answer: meow
Explanation: My dog said so.
Transplant Patients - should receive prophylaxis with what drug to prevent pneumocystis pneumonia?
Transplant patients are at a higher risk of developing opportunistic infections, including Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP), due to immunosuppression.
Thus, prophylaxis with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is recommended for all transplant patients to prevent PCP. This is because TMP-SMX is effective in preventing both PCP and toxoplasmosis, which are two of the most common opportunistic infections in transplant recipients. In cases where TMP-SMX is not well-tolerated or contraindicated, alternative prophylactic medications such as atovaquone, dapsone, or aerosolized pentamidine may be considered.
However, TMP-SMX is the preferred prophylaxis for most transplant patients.
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How do the most common allergens in hay fever come in contact with the individual?
O A. contracted through touching surfaces
O B. through body fluids
O C. passed in the mucus
O D. they are airborne
Answer:
D it is airborne it floats in the air and causes the allergy
What points would the nurse discuss when teaching cane walking to a client for the first time.
The nurse should Instruct the client to advance the cane 4 to 12 in (10 to 30 cm) and then to advance the weaker foot forward, parallel to the cane, while maintaining balance on the stronger leg and the cane.
The client should hold the cane with your stronger (or uninjured) side facing forward.Verify that the top of the cane touches the crease in the wrist by standing up straight. The elbow should be slightly bent while they grip your cane.To avoid falling, keep the cane away from the feet.Move cautiously.Place the cane roughly one tiny stride ahead of they as you begin to walk. Next, take a step on the damaged side. With the sound leg, complete the step.Learn how to climb stairs safely. Use the hand opposite your damaged (or weaker) side to hold your cane. If you can, use your free hand to hold onto a handrail.Next, take the cane and the weaker leg to the same step. Take it gradually and one step at a time.learn more about nurse here: https://brainly.com/question/6685374
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Propranolol and hydralazine have which of the following effects in common?
0/1
Decreased cardiac force
(B) Decreased cardiac output
(C) Decreased mean arterial blood pressure
(D) Increased systemic vascular resistance
(E) Tachycardia
Correct answer
(C) Decreased mean arterial blood pressure
Which of the following is very short-acting and acts by releasing nitric oxide?
1/1
Atenolol
(B) Captopril
(C) Diltiazem
(D) Fenoldopam
(E) Hydrochlorothiazide
(F) Losartan
(G) Minoxidil
(H) Nitroprusside
(I) Prazosin
Which of the following drugs is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy?
1/1
Propranolol
B.. Lisinopril
C. Clonidine
D.Doxazicine
E. Minoxidile
Tick the drug that inhibit partial fatty acid oxidation and hence, improve the metabolic status of ischemic tissue and is used for instable angina
0/1
Ranolasine
(B) Propranolol
(C)Atenolol
Nicorandil
(E) Ivabradine
Trimetazidine
Correct answer
Trimetazidine
A 54-year-old contractor complains of anginal pain that occurs at rest. On examination, his blood pressure is 145/90 and his heart rate is 90. A treatment of angina that often decreases the heart rate and can prevent vasospastic angina attacks is
1/1
) Diltiazem
(B) Nifedipine
(C) Nitroglycerin
(D) Propranolol
(E) Timolol
Clonidine belongs to which class of antihypertensive drugs?
1/1
Central acting sympatholytic
B. Beta-adrenoreceptor antagonist
C. Angiotensin II receptor antagonist
D. Peripheral alpha1-adrenoceptor antagonist
E. Angiotenzin II converting enzyme inhibitors
F. Presynaptic alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with severe tachycardia after a drug overdose. His family reports that he has been depressed about his hypertension. Which one of the following drugs increases the heart rate in a dosedependent manner?
1/1
) Captopril
(B) Hydrochlorothiazide
(C) Losartan
(D) Minoxidil
(E) Verapamil
Reticular fiber found in dense connective tissue..true or false?
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Reticular connective tissue is found around the kidney, liver, the spleen, and lymph nodes, Peyer's patches as well as in bone marrow.
6. CPG 101 V2 includes a six-step planning process. These steps include all of the following EXCEPT:
The Consumer Products Good (CPG) 101 V2 is the FDA guideline that provides the basic requirements and best practices for good manufacturing practices (GMPs) for the manufacturing of human food, animal food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics.
These guidelines provide a reference for manufacturers to follow to ensure that their products meet the required quality standards and are safe for human consumption. The six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 includes:
Step 1: Preliminary Steps
Step2: Scope
Step 3: Hazard Analysis
Step 4: Preventive Controls
Step 5: Verification
Step 6: Record-keeping and Documentation
The steps mentioned above outline the CPG 101 V2's planning process, which ensures the production of safe, high-quality food products.
The FDA requires all food manufacturers to implement these steps to ensure that the products are manufactured under suitable conditions, maintain quality, and are free from contaminants. However, the six-step planning process of CPG 101 V2 does not include identifying the location of the production facility. Although, manufacturers should ensure that the facility they choose meets the requirement of FDA's good manufacturing practice.
Therefore, the step excluded from the planning process is to identify the location of the production facility. The six-step planning process is a robust guide for manufacturers to produce safe food products that meet the quality standards.
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What are the five steps in the path to code a crainiotomy or crainectomy
Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior. These are called:
a. Psychological factors
b. Genetic predispositions
c. Environmental influences
d. Biosocial forces
Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior. These are called Biosocial forces. Biosocial forces are a mixture of biological, social, and environmental factors that interact with one another and influence behavior.
It refers to a combination of both biological and social factors. Factors like Genetics, brain structure, physiology, and the environment in which one grows up are also included in this. Human development is influenced by biosocial factors in a variety of ways. Biosocial factors that are influential in human development are genetics, brain structure, physiology, and the environment in which one develops. These factors can significantly impact our development. The environment we grow up in can also affect us, as well as our physical, mental, and social health. When we talk about mental health, it is very important to understand how biosocial factors are related to behavior.
Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior. These changes can lead to many other problems such as mental health disorders. The most common disorders are depression and anxiety, which are now becoming more prevalent. People suffering from chronic illnesses are prone to mental health problems. This is because these illnesses have an effect on the brain, which can lead to changes in mood and behavior.
Biosocial factors are a combination of biological, social, and environmental factors that interact with one another and influence behavior. These factors significantly impact our development. Our physical, mental, and social health is affected by the environment in which we grow up. Neurological changes, chronic diseases, and other ailments can change behavior, leading to mental health disorders like depression and anxiety.
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a client is admitted to the hospital for major surgery. the or nurse is explaining major routes of applying local anesthesia to the client. which routes should be included in the teaching?
A client is admitted to the hospital for major surgery. The nurse while explaining the major routes of applying local anesthesia to the client admitted to the hospital for major surgery, the nurse should include instructions for applying local anesthesia via infiltration, subcutaneous, and intramuscular injection.
How is local anesthesia infiltration performed?
Do not percutaneously insert the needle; instead, place it directly into the exposed subdermal layer of the wound edge and advance it to the hub.Before injecting the anesthesia gently and pulling the needle out of the body, aspirate to rule out the intravascular insertion. Field block technique is a term used to describe an administration method where the local anesthetic is injected subcutaneously in a circular pattern around the surgical site.To learn more about local anesthesia, follow the link https://brainly.com/question/14328780
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Mediation can teach you how to get rid of negative thoughts all together.
True
False
Answer:True
Explanation:
What does spleen do?
Answer:
one of the spleen's major jobs is filter the blood.
Explanation:
One of the spleen’s main jobs is to filter your blood. It affects the number of red blood cells that carry oxygen throughout your body, and the number of platelets, which are cells that help your blood to clot. It does this by breaking down and removing cells that are abnormal, old, or damaged.
The spleen also stores red blood cells, platelets, and infection-fighting white blood cells.
The spleen plays an important role in your immune system response. When it detects bacteria, viruses, or other germs in your blood, it produces white blood cells, called lymphocytes, to fight off these infections.
a patient tells the nurse that she is having a hard time bringing her hand to her mouth when she eats or tries to brush her teeth. the nurse knows that for her to move her hand to her mouth, she must perform which movement? group of answer choices abduction adduction extension flexion
A patient tells the nurse that she is having a hard time bringing her hand to her mouth when she eats or tries to brush her teeth and the nurse knows that for her to move her hand to her mouth, she must perform which movement of flexion.
Flexion describes a bending movement that decreases the angle between a phase and its proximal phase. For instance, bending the elbow, or brush her teeth, clenching a hand into a hand, are some samples of flexion.
Nurse are ought to take care of patients by providing bedside assistance, feeding assistance, administration of medication, monitoring of vitals and recovery progress and also the postpartum support.
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a 35-year-old woman is being evaluated at her annual well woman exam. she has no complaints and generally feels healthy. she has no past medical history and takes no medications. she walks 30 minutes five days per week with no dyspnea or discomfort. on physical exam her blood pressure is 118/68, pulse 64/min and respiration rate is 13/min. her body mass index is 22. cardiac auscultation reveals a 2/6 mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border without radiation. she has a normal s1 and s2 and normal cardiac impulse. lungs are clear and peripheral pulses are normal. electrocardiogram is normal. what is the next appropriate step in management?
The next appropriate step in management would be to refer the patient for an echocardiogram to assess the structure and function of her heart valves. An echocardiogram is a non-invasive test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart and can identify any abnormalities in the heart's structure and function.
The presence of a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur on cardiac auscultation is concerning and requires further evaluation. This type of murmur is commonly associated with aortic stenosis or pulmonic stenosis. However, given the location of the murmur, it may also indicate an abnormality in the tricuspid or mitral valve.
Therefore, the next appropriate step in management would be to refer the patient for an echocardiogram to assess the structure and function of her heart valves. An echocardiogram is a non-invasive test that uses sound waves to create images of the heart and can identify any abnormalities in the heart's structure and function. This will help to determine the cause of the murmur and guide further management if necessary.
It is important to note that even if the echocardiogram is normal, this patient should continue to have regular follow-up appointments with her healthcare provider to monitor her cardiovascular health. Additionally, this patient should continue to maintain a healthy lifestyle, including regular exercise, a balanced diet, and avoiding smoking or excessive alcohol consumption.
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does anybody have the answers to this assignment
A joint dislocation is an abnormal dislocation.
That’s all I can answer for right now (that’s all I can see), but good luck! <3
The relative risk of ischemic stroke for nonwhites compared with whites is about 2 for those aged 35 to 64 and about 1 for those 65 years of age and older. This is best described as:
The situation above is best described as a MODIFICATION of the effect of race by age. Ischemic stroke occurs when the blood flow supply of oxygen to the brain is blocked.
Ischemic stroke is a serious condition that occurs when the blood flow that supplies oxygen to the brain is blocked.
Although a stroke may occur at any age, the majority of them occurs in individuals who are 65 or older.
Ischaemic stroke is a multifactorial disorder, thereby it is also dependent on genetic factors.
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Which statement by a client undergoing external radiation therapy indicates the need for further teaching?
a) "I'll not use my heating pad during my treatment."
b) "I'll wear protective clothing when outside."
c) "I'll wash my skin with mild soap and water only."
d) "I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation."
The statement that indicates the need for further teaching by a client undergoing external radiation therapy is: "I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation."
What is external radiation therapy?External radiation therapy, also known as external beam radiation therapy, is a type of cancer treatment that uses high-energy radiation beams to destroy cancer cells. The radiation is generated by a machine called a linear accelerator, which delivers the beams of radiation from outside the body, targeting the cancerous tumour.
During external radiation therapy, the patient lies on a table while the machine delivers the radiation beams to the targeted area. The treatment is carefully planned by a team of radiation oncologists and medical physicists, who determine the optimal dose of radiation and the angle at which the beams will be delivered. The treatment is usually given in multiple sessions over several weeks.
External radiation therapy can be used to treat various types of cancer, including prostate cancer, breast cancer, lung cancer, and brain tumours, among others. The goal of this treatment is to destroy cancer cells while minimising damage to healthy tissue surrounding the tumour. External radiation therapy is often used in combination with other cancer treatments, such as surgery or chemotherapy, to increase the chances of a successful outcome.
a) "I'll not use my heating pad during my treatment." - This is a correct statement because external radiation therapy can cause skin irritation and using a heating pad can exacerbate it.
b) "I'll wear protective clothing when outside." - This is a correct statement because protective clothing helps prevent skin irritation and damage from exposure to the sun, which can worsen the side effects of radiation therapy.
c) "I'll wash my skin with mild soap and water only." - This is a correct statement because harsh soaps and scrubs can irritate the skin and lead to skin damage.
d) "I'm worried I'll expose my family members to radiation." - This statement suggests that the client may not have a clear understanding of how external radiation therapy works. Radiation therapy does not make a person radioactive, and the client is not at risk of exposing family members to radiation. Further education is needed to dispel this misconception and reassure the client.
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A client is diagnosed with right-sided heart failure. Which assessment findings will the nurse expect the client to have? Select all that apply
A) Increased abdominal girth
B) Crackles in both lungs
C) Ascites
D) Peripheral edema
When a client is diagnosed with right-sided heart failure, the nurse would expect the following assessment findings:
A) Increased abdominal girth
C) Ascites
D) Peripheral edema
Right-sided heart failure occurs when the right side of the heart is unable to pump blood efficiently, causing a backup of blood in the venous system. This leads to increased pressure in the systemic venous circulation, resulting in specific manifestations.
Increased abdominal girth (option A) is a common finding in right-sided heart failure due to the accumulation of fluid in the abdomen, known as ascites (option C). Ascites occurs when the increased pressure in the venous system causes fluid to leak into the abdominal cavity.
Peripheral edema (option D) is another expected finding in right-sided heart failure. The backup of blood in the systemic venous circulation causes increased hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries, leading to fluid retention and swelling in the lower extremities, typically starting with the feet and ankles.
Crackles in both lungs (option B), although a common finding in left-sided heart failure, are less likely to be present in right-sided heart failure. Crackles in the lungs are typically associated with fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which is characteristic of left-sided heart failure.
In summary, when a client has right-sided heart failure, the nurse would expect to find increased abdominal girth, ascites, and peripheral edema. Crackles in the lungs are less likely to be present in this specific type of heart failure.
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a public health nurse does not provide direct patient care but works to promote good health in the community. T/F
The given statement “a public health nurse does not provide direct patient care but works to promote good health in the community” is true.
A public health nurse does not provide direct patient care but focuses on promoting good health in the community. Public health nurses primarily work on a population level, addressing the health needs of communities rather than individual patients.
Their role involves assessing the health status of the community, identifying health risks and priorities, and developing and implementing strategies to promote and protect the health of the population. They collaborate with various stakeholders, including community members, healthcare organizations, policymakers, and social service agencies, to create and implement health promotion and disease prevention programs.
Public health nurses engage in activities such as health education, community outreach, disease surveillance, immunization campaigns, policy advocacy, and disaster response planning. They work towards improving health outcomes by addressing social determinants of health, promoting healthy behaviors, and reducing health disparities.
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A 31-year-old woman newly diagnosed with HIV and her initial CD4 count is 238 cells/mm3. The plan is to immediately start antiretroviral therapy.
Which one of the following medications requires baseline HLA-B*5701 testing to identify persons at increased risk of developing a medication-related hypersensitivity reaction?
Abacavir
Abacavir is the required medication.
What is HIV?
HIV, human immunodeficiency virus, attacks the body’s infection fighting cells, which makes a person vulnerable to diseases and infections. More specifically, HIV attacks the white blood cells called the CD4++ cells.
There is no effective cure for HIV, so once you contract the virus, it stays for life. There is an effective treatment with HIV medicine. But, if left untreated, HIV can lead to AIDS, acquired immunodeficiency syndrome.
AIDS is the last stage of HIV. This occurs when the immune system of the body is badly damaged.
Therefore, Abacavir is the required medication.
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