Given the following information, what is the magnitude of the sum of the three
vectors?
Vector A: [13, 8, 0]
Vector B: [13, 0, 8]
Vector C: [0, 1, 8]

A. The average speed you can use to pull the safe is 1.02 m/s

B. The time needed to pull the safe up is 17.65 s

First, we shall obtain the force. This is shown below:

F = mg

F = 60 × 9.8

F = 588 N

Finally, we shall obtain the average speed. Details below:

Power = force × average speed

600 = 588 × average speed

Divide both sides by 588

Average speed = 600 / 588

Average speed = 1.02 m/s

The time needed to pull the safe up can be obtained as follow:

Time = Total distance / average speed

Time = 18 / 1.02

Time = 17.65 s

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Complete question:

You know you can provide 600 W

of power to move large objects. You need to move a 60-kg

safe up to a storage loft, 18 m

above the floor.

Part A

With what average speed can you pull the safe straight up?

Part B

What is the time needed to pull the safe up?

Answer:

Explanation:

Sure, I'd be happy to help you with the question!

Let's denote the input as x. According to the function machine, the input is multiplied by 6 and then 80 is subtracted from the result to obtain the output.

So, the function can be written as:

Output = (6 * x) - 80

Now, the problem states that the input is the same as the output. Therefore, we can set up the equation:

x = (6 * x) - 80

Let's solve this equation to find the value of x:

x = 6x - 80

Subtracting 6x from both sides, we get:

x - 6x = -80

Combining like terms, we have:

-5x = -80

Dividing both sides by -5, we find:

x = (-80) / (-5)

Simplifying the expression, we have:

x = 16

Therefore, the input (x) that results in the input being the same as the output is 16.

To work out these types of questions, it's important to carefully read the instructions and understand the operations being performed in the function machine. Then, you can set up an equation with the input and output, and solve for the unknown value. Always double-check your solution to ensure it satisfies the given conditions of the problem.

Answer:

16

Explanation:

(x*6) - 80 = x

Multiply the parentheses

6x - 80 = x
Add 80 to each side to get
6x = x + 80
Subtract x from both sides to get
5x = 80
Divide both sides by 5
x = 16

44.4  is the work done by friction  14.4  s the velocity of the block at point C . Correct Option a)

Friction is the force that prevents solid surfaces, fluid layers, and material components from moving against each other. There are various kinds of friction.

Dry friction is the force that resists the relative lateral motion of two in touch solid surfaces. Dry friction is further classified as static friction ("stiction") between non-moving surfaces and kinetic friction ("stiction") between moving surfaces. Dry friction, with the exception of atomic or molecular friction, is caused by the interplay of surface characteristics known as asperities . Fluid friction explains the friction that occurs between sliding segments of a thick fluid.

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Full Question: In the figure below, a block of mass 5.0 kg starts at point A with a speed of 15.0 m/s on a flat frictionless surface. At point B, it encounters an incline with a coefficient of kinetic friction uk = 0.15. The block makes it up the incline to B a second flat frictionless surface. The incline is 22 m long at an angle = 15° What is the total work done in joules when the block goes from A to C and what is the speed of the block at point C in m/s? (fist value is work, second is speed) A) 44.4; 14.4 B) 44.4, -14.4 C) 14.4, 44.4 D) 44.4, 14.4 E) 44.4, 44.4

Answer:

3.2 m/s

Explanation:

Given:

Δx = 1000 m

v₀ = 23 m/s

a = -0.26 m/s²

t = 76 s

Find: v

This problem is over-defined.  We only need 3 pieces of information, and we're given 4.  There are several equations we can use.  For example:

v = at + v₀

v = (-0.26 m/s²) (76 s) + (23 m/s)

v = 3.2 m/s

Or:

Δx = ½ (v + v₀) t

(1000 m) = ½ (v + 23 m/s) (76 s)

v = 3.3 m/s

Or:

v² = v₀² + 2aΔx

v² = (23 m/s)² + 2(-0.26 m/s²)(1000 m)

v = 3.0 m/s

Or:

Δx = vt − ½ at²

(1000 m) = v (76 s) − ½ (-0.26 m/s²) (76 s)²

v = 3.3 m/s

As you can see, you get slightly different answers depending on which variables you use.  Since 1000 m has 1 significant figure, compared to the other variables which have 2 significant figures, I recommend using the first equation.

Answer: D. 6.1 m/s^2

Explanation:

The frictional force of the wind on water produces surface currents that travel in a pattern analogous to "wind currents".

Wind, temperature, water density, and the moon's gravitational pull may all affect ocean currents.

Wind-driven waves, sometimes referred to as surface waves, are created by friction between the wind and the water's surface. When wind constantly disturbs the surface of an ocean or lake, a wave crest is created.

Friction slows the wind, which also changes its direction. This phenomenon might lead to surface roughness variations along regional boundaries or turbulence in winds near the surface. Turbulence stirs the lower atmosphere.

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Answer:

Agua

Explanation:

Answer:

In a material, the magnetic behavior depends on the alignment of magnetic moments of the atoms. Magnetic moments are generated by the motion of the electrons in the atoms. When the magnetic moments of atoms in a material are aligned in a specific pattern, it creates a magnetic field which results in the material being magnetic.

In many materials, the magnetic behavior arises due to the alignment of magnetic domains, which are regions of atoms with magnetic moments aligned in the same direction. When many domains with aligned magnetic moments are present in a material, the material becomes magnetic.

The magnetic behavior of a material depends on the number of electrons and the arrangement of those electrons in the atoms. In particular, for an atom to have a magnetic moment, it must have unpaired electrons, meaning electrons that are not paired with another electron with the opposite spin. When these unpaired electrons in the atoms are aligned, they generate a magnetic moment. If all electrons are paired, there will not be a net magnetic moment, so the material will not be magnetic.

So, in summary, the magnetic behavior of a material is determined by the alignment of magnetic moments of atoms. When the magnetic moments of many atoms in a material align in the same direction, it creates a magnetic field, leading to a material being magnetic. This alignment is usually present in magnetic domains consisting of atoms with unpaired electrons.

A source travelling in the direction of the observer causes Doppler blueshift.

When an object is moving towards us, the light from the object is known as blueshift.

The phrase refers to any relative motion, that causes a decrease in the wavelength and rise in frequency, including those that take place outside of the visible spectrum.

During the motion of the object towards us, blueshift will happen, thus shifting light to shorter wavelengths on the blue side of the spectrum.

This causes the color to shift from the red to the blue end of the spectrum in visible light.

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In electromagnetic waves, energy is transferred through vibrations of electric and magnetic fields. ... In sound waves, energy is transferred through vibration of air particles or particles of a solid through which the sound travels.

Answer:

because vibration waves are made by sound

The answer for the experiment is obtained by the principle of Newton's law of cooling. The initial temperature of the Room is taken as 32°C.

The ice cubes are mixed with room-temperature water, the ice starts to melt and the water becomes cold. This is because the ice and water have two different temperatures and when they are mixed there is an exchange of heat is taken place. When the ice cubes mixed with water the room temperature is decreases from 32°C. After stirring the mixture because of the heat released, the temperature increases.

When the ice-water mixture is stirred, the heat energy is evolved which melts the ice in the mixture, and therefore the temperature increases gradually. And stirring of water for every 5 minutes leads ice cubes to melt completely to form water and the level of water increases in the final stage. This was given by Newton's law of cooling.

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The change in potential energy ΔU of a system where a charge q moves through a potential difference ΔV is:

The work needed to move a charge q through a potential difference ΔV is the same as the change in potential energy of the system. Then, replace q=767.1kC and ΔV=567.78V to find the work needed to complete the described process:

Therefore, the amount of work needed to complete such a process is approximaely 435,544 kiloJoules.

The final velocity of the 1.2 Kg cart is  3.1 m/s. The final velocity of the coupled mass of cars can be determined using the conservation of momentum. The final velocity is 10 m/s.

Momentum of an object is the product of mass and velocity of the object. In a collision, the total momentum is conserved.

Here, initially the carts were rest. Hence, their initial momentum is zero.

then  (1.2 kg × v) + (2.5 kg × 1.5 m/s) = 0

then , velocity of 1.2 kg = (2.5 × 1.5)/1.2 = 3.1 m/s.

Similarly the total initial momentum of the two car of mass 6000 kg is equal to the their final momentum.

The initial momentum of the stationary car is  zero.

then (6000 kg × 20 m/s) + 0 = (6000 + 6000 kg)v.

The final velocity of the coupled mass v is then calculated as:

v =  (6000 kg × 20 m/s)/12000 kg = 10 m/s.

Therefore, the final velocity of the coupled mass will be 10 m/s.

Using conservation of momentum concept all others can be found.

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Answer:

The formula is a = F m so in this case a = 5 10 = 0.5 m s 2

Explanation:

Answer:

x3

Explanation:

trying to find the inetria magnitude of the wheel

Answer:

Explanation:

If we ASSUME that a CCW torque is positive

τ = 10sin135[8.0] - 16sin90[4.0] + 19sin160[3.0] = 12 N•m

as the result is positive, the net torque is CCW.

Wavelength of the given wave is 8 cm and frequency is  37.5 *\(10^{8}\) Hz.

The number of vibrations counted per second is called frequency. A wave is a group of vibrations that are referred to as energy. The bottom node is known as the crest, and the top node is known as the trough.

The frequency of an alternating current is the number of full cycles per second. The hertz, also known as Hz, is the accepted unit of frequency. The frequency of a current is 1 Hz if one cycle is completed per second; 60 cycles per second equals 60 Hz.

There are 8 waves so assume one wave is 1 cm so wavelength is 8 cm and frequency of wave = speed of light/ wavelength

frequency = \(3*10 ^{8} / .08\)

Frequency = 37.5 *\(10^{8}\) Hz

Wavelength of the given wave is 8 cm and frequency is  37.5 *\(10^{8}\) Hz.

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Answer:

Velocity of the two balls after collision: \(60\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}\).

\(100\; \rm J\) of kinetic energy would be lost.

Explanation:

Because the question asked about energy, convert all units to standard units to keep the calculation simple:

The two balls stick to each other after the collision. In other words, this collision is a perfectly inelastic collision. Kinetic energy will not be conserved. The velocity of the two balls after the collision can only be found using the conservation of momentum.

Assume that the system of the two balls is isolated. Thus, the sum of the momentum of the two balls will stay the same before and after the collision.

The momentum of an object of mass \(m\) and velocity \(v\) is: \(p = m \cdot v\).

Momentum of the two balls before collision:

Based on the assumptions, the sum of the momentum of the two balls after collision should also be \(30\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}\). The mass of the two balls, combined, is \(0.1\; \rm kg + 0.4\; \rm kg = 0.5\; \rm kg\). Let the velocity of the two balls after the collision \(v\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}\). (There's only one velocity because the collision had sticked the two balls to each other.)

These two values are supposed to describe the same quantity: the sum of the momentum of the two balls after the collision. They should be equal to each other. That gives the equation about \(v\):

\(0.5\, v = 30\).

\(v = 60\).

In other words, the velocity of the two balls right after the collision should be \(60\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}\).

The kinetic energy of an object of mass \(m\) and velocity \(v\) is \(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2}\, m \cdot v^{2}\).

Kinetic energy before the collision:

The two balls stick to each other after the collision. Therefore, consider them as a single object when calculating the sum of their kinetic energies.

Sum of the kinetic energies of the two balls right after the collision:

\(\displaystyle \frac{1}{2} \, m \cdot v^{2} = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.5\; \rm kg \times \left(60\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}\right)^2 = 900\; \rm J\).

Therefore, \(1000\; \rm J - 900\; \rm J = 100\; \rm J\) of kinetic energy would be lost during this collision.

Answer:

water

Explanation:

hope this helps

The initial rotational kinetic energy of the yo-yo is equal to ½ × 3.5 ×10-5 kg×m2 ×(0.70m/ 0.008m)2 = 0.000912 Joules.

Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. It is the energy an object has due to its motion. Kinetic energy can be calculated by multiplying the mass of an object with the square of its velocity. Kinetic energy is a form of energy that is associated with the movement of objects. It is released when objects collide or when objects are deformed. Kinetic energy can also be converted into other forms of energy, such as thermal energy, sound energy and electrical energy.

The initial gravitational potential energy of the yo-yo is equal to the change in height multiplied by the weight of the yo-yo. The weight of the yo-yo can be calculated using the equation W = m × g, where m is the mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Therefore, the initial gravitational potential energy of the yo-yo is equal to 0.05 kg ×9.8 m/s2 ×0.70 m = 0.343 Joules.

b. Calculate the initial rotational kinetic energy of the yo-yo.

The initial rotational kinetic energy of the yo-yo is equal to ½Iω2, where I is the rotational inertia and ω is the angular velocity. The angular velocity can be calculated using the equation ω = v/r, where v is the linear velocity and r is the radius of the yo-yo. Therefore, the initial rotational kinetic energy of the yo-yo is equal to ½ × 3.5 ×10-5 kg×m2 ×(0.70m/ 0.008m)2 = 0.000912 Joules.

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9514 1404 393

Answer:

Explanation:

The remaining amount, in terms of t half-lives, is ...

  q(t) = 60·(1/2)^t

We want t when q(t) = 10, so ...

  10 = 60·(1/2)^t

  1/6 = (1/2)^t . . . . . . divide by 60

  log(1/6) = t·log(1/2) . . . . take logs

  t = log(1/6)/log(1/2) = -0.778151/-0.30103 ≈ 2.58496

It will take about 2.58 half-lives for there to be 10 grams remaining.

In years, that is 2.58×30 = 77.5 years.

Programmable Array Logic (PAL) has a programmable AND array and a fixed OR array.

Programmable Array Logic (PAL)  is a logic device.

Hence PAL has programmable AND array and a fixed OR array.

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Answer:

The graph of the velocity of an object in free fall would look like a straight line sloping downward. As the object falls, its velocity increases at a constant rate, so the graph of its velocity versus time will be a straight line with a negative slope. This is because acceleration due to gravity is a constant -9.8 meters per second squared, so the velocity of a free-falling object will increase by 9.8 meters per second every second.

Therefore, the graph that shows the change in velocity of an object in free fall is a straight line with a negative slope. Here is an example of such a graph:

Free Fall Velocity Graph

Explanation:

third and fifth option along with the first one are right

A. The period of the motion is 4.18 s

B. The frequency of the oscillations

Hz is 0.2393 Hz

C. The first time the mass is at the position

x = 0 is 2.09 s

D. The first time the mass is at the site of maximum compression of the spring is 6.27s

a) The period of motion is given by the time it takes for the mass to complete one full oscillation. From the equation given, x = (8.8 cm)cos[2t/(4.18 s)], we can see that the function is in the form x = A cos(ωt + φ). The period of the motion T is given by the reciprocal of the angular frequency ω, which is T = 2π/ω.

In this case, the angular frequency is given by the coefficient of t in the argument of the cosine function, 2t/(4.18 s). So,

T = 2π/(2/(4.18 s)) = 4.18 s

b) The frequency of oscillations, f, is given by the reciprocal of the period, so

f = 1/T = 1/4.18 s^-1 = 0.2393 Hz

c) To find the first time the mass is at the position x = 0, we need to find the value of t when the cosine function is equal to 1.

x = (8.8 cm)cos[2t/(4.18 s)] = 8.8cm * 1 = 8.8cm

so,

cos[2t/(4.18 s)] = 1

t = (4.18 s)/2 = 2.09 s

d) To find the first time the mass is at the site of maximum compression of the spring, we need to find the value of t when the cosine function is equal to -1.

x = (8.8 cm)cos[2t/(4.18 s)] = 8.8cm * (-1) = -8.8cm

so,

cos[2t/(4.18 s)] = -1

t = (4.18 s) + (2.09 s) = 6.27s

It should be noted that the mass will be at the site of maximum compression at t = 6.27s and t = 2.09s + 4.18s = 6.27s + 4.18s = 10.45s and so on.

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a. the landing ramp should be placed at 276.298 ft horizontally from the launch point.

(b) the angle of the landing ramp is 30°.

(a)

Launch speed = 55.0 mph * (1.467 ft/s)

= 80.685 ft/s

Horizontal distance = Launch speed * Time of flight

Vertical velocity = Launch speed * sin(30.0°)

Time to reach maximum height = Vertical velocity / g

Vertical distance = (1/2) *g * t²

and Time = √(2 * Vertical distance / g)

Total time of flight = 2 * Time to reach maximum height + Time for descent

Horizontal distance = Launch speed * Total time of flight

The Vertical velocity = 80.685 ft/s * sin(30.0°)

= 40.3425 ft/s

Time to reach maximum height = 40.3425 ft/s / 32.2 ft/s²

Time to reach maximum height  = 1.253 s

Time of descent = √(2 * 25.0 ft / 32.2 ft/s²)

Time of descent  = 0.913 s

Total time of flight = 2 * 1.253 s + 0.913 s

Total time of flight = 3.419 s

In conclusion, the horizontal distance = 80.685 ft/s * 3.419 s

horizontal distance = 276.298 ft

b.

the angle of the landing ramp is  30.0 be the same as the launch angle.

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The approximate heat transfer through 1.65 cm of air with a temperature difference of 23.0 °C is approximately 24.4 J/s.

To approximate the heat transfer through the air layer in the double-paned window, we can assume that the glass layers have a negligible impact on the heat flow. The heat transfer can be calculated using Fourier's Law of Heat Conduction, which states that the heat flow (Q) is proportional to the temperature difference (ΔT) and inversely proportional to the thickness (L) and thermal conductivity (k) of the material.

First, we need to calculate the effective thermal conductivity of the air layer due to its thickness and the thermal conductivity ratio between air and glass. Let's denote the thermal conductivity of air as k_air and the thermal conductivity of glass as k_glass. Since glass has a thermal conductivity roughly 36 times greater than air, we have k_glass = 36 * k_air.

Next, we calculate the effective thermal conductivity of the air layer as:

k_eff = (k_air * L_air) / (L_air + k_glass)

Substituting the given values, we have:

k_eff = (k_air * 0.0165 m) / (0.0165 m + 0.005 m) = 0.01309 * k_air

Now, we can calculate the heat flow per second through the air layer using the formula:

Q = (k_eff * A * ΔT) / L_air

Substituting the given values, we get:

Q = (0.01309 * k_air * 0.760 m^2 * 23.0 K) / 0.0165 m = 24.4 J/s

Therefore, the approximate heat transfer through 1.65 cm of air with a temperature difference of 23.0 °C is approximately 24.4 J/s.

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42 times must he repeat this exercise to burn off the energy in one slice of pizza.

What is energy?

Energy is the ability or capability to do tasks, such as the ability to move an item (of a certain mass) by exerting force. Energy can exist in many different forms, including electrical, mechanical, chemical, thermal, or nuclear, and it can change its form.

Energy burn by the weightlifter = potential energy

Potential energy = mgh

Potential energy = 25.(9.8)(0.50)

Potential energy = 122.5 Joule.

Assume 25% of efficiency so energy burn = 122.5*25/100

energy burn = 30.625 joule

Number of times = 1260/30.625

Number of times = 42 times.

42 times must he repeat this exercise to burn off the energy in one slice of pizza.

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Answer:

a protractor

Explanation:

because protractors measure angles

Answer:

0.65 sec

Explanation:

V = L*ΔI/Δt

so Δt = L*ΔI/V = 1.20 * (7.00 - 1.00)/11.00 = 0.65 sec