Given
f'(-1) = 2 and f(-1) = 4.
Find f'(x) = _____
and find f(1) = ____

Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

8x + 4x = 0

12x = 0

x = 0/12

x = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

\(8x + 4x = 0\)

\(12x = 0\)

\( \frac{12x}{12} = \frac{0}{12} \)

\( \frac{12x}{12} = \frac{0}{12} \)

\(x = \frac{0}{12} \)

which is basically 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Plot 213, −56, and −312 on the number line.

Answer:

5 km = 5000 m

Hope this helps : )

Hello there! :)

The highest common factor of 9, 12, and 15 is 3.

To find the HCF (also called the GCF) of two or more numbers, we list their factors:

9: 1, 3, 9

12: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12

15: 1, 3, 5, 15

Can you see that 3 is their GCF?

Hope this helps!

~Just a determined gal

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\(MysteriousNature\)

Using the scale factor, we found the volume of the larger cylinder as 70 m³.

One of the most fundamental curvilinear geometric shapes, a cylinder has historically been a three-dimensional solid. It is regarded as a prism with a circle as its base in basic geometry. One of the fundamental three-dimensional shapes in geometry is the cylinder, which has two distant, parallel circular bases. At a predetermined distance from the centre, a curved surface connects the two circular bases. The axis of the cylinder is the line segment connecting the centres of two circular bases. The height of the cylinder is defined as the distance between the two circular bases.

Given,

The scale factor of the cylinders = 5:2

The scaling factor indicates how much a figure has increased or decreased from its initial value.

The volume of the smaller cylinder = 28 m³

We are asked to find the volume of the larger cylinder.

let the volume of the larger cylinder be x.

x / 28 = 5/2

x  =(5/2) × 28 = 70

Therefore using the scale factor, we found the volume of the larger cylinder as 70 m³.

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Step-by-step explanation:

1. 60 apples

2. 60-4=56

3. 56+200=256

200/60

60/4

60+60=120

120+60=180

I think either 13.

the probability that the diameter of a elected bearing is greater than 85 millimeter P(diameter > 85) = P(z > (85-81)/4) = P(z > 1) = 0.1587

The diameter of ball bearings is normally distributed, with a mean of 81 millimeters and a variance of 16.

To calculate the probability that a selected bearing has a diameter greater than 85 millimeters, we first calculate the z-score for 85 millimeters.

We subtract 81 from 85 to get 4, and divide by 4 to get 1 for the z-score.

We the look up the probability for a value of 1 in the z-table, which is 0.1587.

This is the probability that a selected bearing has a diameter greater than 85 millimeters, rounded to four decimal places.

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Answer:

x = 2

Step-by-step explanation:

19x - 7x + 8x = 48 - 8

20x = 40

20x/20 = 40/20

x =2

Answer:

x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

\(19x + 8 - 7x = 48 - 8x \\ ⟹ 12x + 8 = 48 - 8x \\ ⟹ 12x + 8x = 48 - 8 \\ ⟹20x = 40 \\ ⟹ x = \frac{40}{20} \\ ⟹x = 2\)

1) The amplitude c+ is c+l

2) The expectation value is 0

3) The uncertainty ΔSX is √(3/7) c+.

Now, we know that any wave function can be written as a linear combination of two spin states (up and down), which can be written as:

Ψ = c+ |+> + c- |->

where c+ and c- are complex constants, and |+> and |-> are the two orthogonal spin states such that Sx|+> = +1/2|+> and Sx|-> = -1/2|->.

Hence, we can write the given wave function as:Ψ = c+|+> + i/√7|->

Now, we know that the given wave function has been defined in Sx basis, and not in the basis of |+> and |->.

Therefore, we need to write |+> and |-> in terms of |l> and |r> (where |l> and |r> are two orthogonal spin states such that Sy|l> = i/2|l> and Sy|r> = -i/2|r>).

Now, |+> can be written as:|+> = 1/√2(|l> + |r>)

Similarly, |-> can be written as:|-> = 1/√2(|l> - |r>)

Therefore, the given wave function can be written as:Ψ = (c+/√2)(|l> + |r>) + i/(√7√2)(|l> - |r>)

Therefore, we can write:c+|l> + i/(√7)|r> = (c+/√2)|+> + i/(√7√2)|->

Comparing the coefficients of |+> and |-> on both sides of the above equation, we get:

c+/√2 = c+l/√2 + i/(√7√2)

Therefore, c+ = c+l

The amplitude c+ is a real number and is equal to c+l

The expectation value of the operator Sx is given by: = <Ψ|Sx|Ψ>

Now, Sx|l> = 1/2|r> and Sx|r> = -1/2|l>

Hence, = (c+l*) + (c+l) + (i/√7) - (i/√7)(c+l*)= -i/√7(c+l*) + i/√7(c+l)= 2i/√7 Im(c+)

As c+ is a real number, Im(c+) = 0

Therefore, = 0

The uncertainty ΔSX in the state |Ψ> is given by:

ΔSX = √( - 2)

where = <Ψ|Sx2|Ψ>and2 = (<Ψ|Sx|Ψ>)2

Now, Sx2|l> = 1/4|l> and Sx2|r> = 1/4|r>

Hence, = (c+l*) + (c+l) + (i/√7) - (i/√7)(c+l*)= 1/4(c+l* + c+l) + 1/4(c+l + c+l*) + i/(2√7)(c+l* - c+l) - i/(2√7)(c+l - c+l*)= = 1/4(c+l + c+l*)

Now,2 = (2i/√7)2= 4/7ΔSX = √( - 2)= √(1/4(c+l + c+l*) - 4/7)= √(3/14(c+l + c+l*))= √(3/14 * 2c+)= √(3/7) c+

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Answer:

1024 pi

Step-by-step explanation:

r = 32 units.

Area = pi * r^2

Area = 3.14 * 32^2

Area = 1024 * pi

Tt = pi??

Answer:

y + 7 = -1/2 ( x - 17)

Step-by-step explanation:

y-y₁=m(x-x₁)

\(x_{1\\} = 17\)

\(y_{1}\) = -7

y - (-7) = -1/2(x - 17)

y + 7 = -1/2(x -17)

Answer:

y = -x - 9

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope of the given line is -1

The coordinate given is ( -7 , -2 )

Since the line is parallel, we can plug in the slope into the equation:

y = -1x + b, simplified to y = -x + b

To calculate the y-intercept, you simply put the coordinates into the equation and solve for b:

-2 = - ( -7 ) + b

-2 = 7 + b

-2 - 7 = b

-9 = b

Now put the b value into the equation and you have the answer:

y = -x - 9

Answer:

\(u^{2n+1}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming you mean \(u^nu^{n+1}\), then \(u^nu^{n+1}=u^{n+n+1}=u^{2n+1}\).

Answer:

\(\Longrightarrow: \boxed{\sf{u^2^n+1}}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

This equation can be solved simply by multiplying by the variable to isolate them on one side.

\(\Longrightarrow: \sf{u^n*u^n+1}\)

\(\sf{u^n*u^n=u^2}\\\\\\\sf{= (u^2)^n}\)

Solve.

\(\sf{\left(u^2\right)^n=u^{2n}=\boxed{\sf{u^{2n}+1}}\)

Therefore, the final answer is \(\boxed{\sf{u^{2n}+1}}\).

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

One way to see if two ratios are proportional is to write them as fractions and then reduce them. If the reduced fractions are the same, your ratios are proportional.

Answer:

A. Each value is an equivalent ratio

Step-by-step explanation:

This image shows that the only possible answer would be A.

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

steps are = to 9

Answer:

What is the value of x in the proportion below?

StartFraction 180 kilometers over 3 hours EndFraction = StartFraction 540 over x EndFraction Option  B

(B) 9             100% Answer    

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-3/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The model represents the following equation:

Correct choice is B

Answer:

Y= 2/4x + -3

Step-by-step explanation:

To answer the questions related to the probability of droplet sizes, we'll use the normal distribution with the given mean and variance. Let's solve each part of the question:

a. Probability that the size of a single droplet is less than 1500 μm:

To find this probability, we need to calculate the cumulative distribution function (CDF) of the normal distribution up to 1500 μm. We'll use the z-score formula:

z = (x - μ) / σ

Where:

x = droplet size (1500 μm)

μ = mean (1050 μm)

σ = standard deviation (square root of the variance, which is sqrt(22500 μm))

Calculating the z-score:

z = (1500 - 1050) / sqrt(22500)

= 450 / 150

= 3

Using the z-score table or a calculator, we can find that the cumulative probability corresponding to z = 3 is approximately 0.9987.

Therefore, the probability that the size of a single droplet is less than 1500 μm is approximately 0.9987.

b. Probability that the size of a single droplet is between 1000 and 1500 μm:

Similar to part (a), we need to calculate the cumulative probability for two values: 1000 μm and 1500 μm. Let's calculate the z-scores for both values:

For 1000 μm:

z_1000 = (1000 - 1050) / sqrt(22500)

For 1500 μm:

z_1500 = (1500 - 1050) / sqrt(22500)

Once we have the z-scores, we can find the corresponding cumulative probabilities using the z-score table or a calculator. Then, we subtract the probability for 1000 μm from the probability for 1500 μm to find the probability between the two values.

c. Characterizing the smallest 2% of all droplets:

To characterize the smallest 2% of droplets, we need to find the droplet size that corresponds to the 2nd percentile of the normal distribution. In other words, we need to find the value x such that the cumulative probability up to x is 0.02. We can use the z-score formula to solve for x:

z = (x - μ) / σ

We'll find the z-score corresponding to the cumulative probability 0.02 using the z-score table or a calculator. Then, we can rearrange the formula to solve for x:

x = z * σ + μ

d. Probability that at least one of five independently selected droplets exceeds 1500 μm:

To find this probability, we'll use the complement rule. The probability that none of the five droplets exceed 1500 μm is the complement of the probability that at least one of them exceeds 1500 μm. We can calculate this probability by subtracting the probability of none from 1. We'll use the probability obtained in part (a) for a single droplet.

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Answer:

calculate the volume of big semi Circle and then Subtract the volume of small semi circle from big semicircular

Step-by-step explanation:

The basic formula for volume is length × width × height.

Answer:

2400

which is not having any remainder as 2400÷60=40

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Show a photo

Step-by-step explanation:

The limit of the sequence is 1. This means that as n gets larger and larger, the terms of the sequence get closer and closer to 1.

The limit of the sequence with the nth term an = (7n+5)/7n can be found by taking the limit as n approaches infinity.

To do this, we can divide both the numerator and denominator by n, which gives:
an = (7 + 5/n)/7

As n approaches infinity, 5/n approaches 0, and we are left with:
an = 7/7 = 1

Therefore, the limit of the sequence is 1. This means that as n gets larger and larger, the terms of the sequence get closer and closer to 1.

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The length of segment CE is approximately 7.8 cm.

Since triangle BCD has been scaled by a factor to create triangle ACE, we can use the corresponding side lengths of the two triangles to find the length of segment CE.

Let the scale factor be "k". Then, we have:

BC * k = AC

CD * k = CE

Substituting the given values, we get:

5k + 2.75k = 22

Simplifying the equation, we get:

7.75k = 22

Dividing both sides by 7.75, we get:

k = 2.8387 (approx.)

Now, we can find the length of CE by multiplying CD by the scale factor:

CE = CD * k

CE = 2.75 cm * 2.8387

CE = 7.79975 cm (approx.)

Therefore, the length of segment CE is approximately 7.8 cm.

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The statement that in a group of 20 people and friendship is mutual, there must exist two people who have the same number of friends is, True.

A general rule, called the pigeonhole principle, is that if there are more pigeons than holes , there should be at least one hole with at least two pigeons. The pigeonhole principle guarantees what will happen in the worst case.

We have a group of 20 people , so N = 20

Each person can have 0 to 19 friends. But if someone has 0 friends, then no one can have 19 friends and similarly you cannot have 19 friends and no friends. So, there are only 19 options for the number of friends and 20 people. By the Pigeonhole Principle, our assumption that distinct friends is not true has been proven false, because according to the principle of withdrawal, there are at least two people who have the same number of friends as he, thus it must be indeed true. Hence, the number of possibilities for the number of friends the 20 people at the party have must be less than 20. Hence two people at the party have the same number of friends at the party.

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the line of best is y = 0.20x + 5.43 and it will take 7.5 min to get to work in week 10.

A mathematical notion called the line of the best fit connects points spread throughout a graph. It's a type of linear regression that uses scatter data to figure out the best way to define the dots' relationship.

\(\rm m = \dfrac{n\sum xy-\sum x \sum y}{n\sum x^2 - (\sum x)^2}\)

\(\rm c = \dfrac{\sum y -m \sum x}{n}\)

The question is incomplete.

The complete question is in the picture, please refer to the attached picture.

We have the data shown in the picture.

Let's suppose the line of best is:

y = mx + c

We can calculate the value of m and c using the formula.

m =  0.20

c =  5.43

The line of best will be:

y = 0.20x + 5.43

Plug x = 10 in the line of best fit:

y = 0.20(10) + 5.43

y = 7.43 ≈ 7.5 min

Thus, the line of best is y = 0.20x + 5.43 and it will take 7.5 min to get to work in week 10.

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