Geometry

Please answer with respect. Thank you!

Answer:

A. 28.1 cm^2

Step-by-step explanation:

a = bh

a = (7.6)(3.7)

a = 28.12 cm^2

a = 28.1 cm^2

Answer:C

Step-by-step explanation: You want to add up all the marbles, and then take the red marbles and divide by all the marbles 7/20

Answer: 0.2 square meters.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the equation:

3600b² = hw

We need to find the value of b, given that h = 168 cm and w = 60 kg.

First, we need to convert the height from centimeters to meters:

h = 168 cm = 1.68 m

Substituting the given values:

3600b² = (1.68)(60)

3600b² = 100.8

b² = 100.8/3600

b² = 0.028

Taking the square root of both sides:

b = √0.028

b ≈ 0.167

Rounding to the nearest tenth:

b ≈ 0.2

Therefore, the body surface area of a person who is 168 centimeters tall and weighs 60 kilograms is about 0.2 square meters.

The answer is A.) \(\frac{1}{49}\)

Hope that helps :)

Answer: The answer is 0

Step-by-step explanation:

You can put it into an online calculator and it makes 0

12.5ml of a 60% solution is required to create 50ml of a 15% amount solution. You can compute this using a proportion.

50% x 15% = 7.5 ml, and 7.5 ml x 60% = 12.5 ml

12.5ml of a 60% solution is required to create 50ml of a 15% solution. You can compute this using a proportion. To begin with, we must ascertain how much of the 15% solution is required to make 50ml. To accomplish this, multiply 50 ml by 15%, which yields the answer of 7.5 ml. This means that to make 50ml, 7.5ml of the 15% solution is required. The next step is to calculate how much of the 60% solution is needed to create 7.5ml. To do this, divide 7.5 ml by 60%, which yields the result 12.5 ml. This indicates that in order to create 50ml of the 60% solution, 12.5ml of the 60% solution

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Each person who buys a ticket can expect to lose 45 cents. This can be answered by the concept of Average.

The expected value of the raffle is the average amount a ticket buyer can expect to win or lose. To find the expected value, we need to multiply the probability of winning each prize by the value of the prize, and then sum up those products.

Therefore, the expected value of the raffle is calculated as the sum of the probability of winning the grand prize multiplied by its value, plus the probability of winning the second prize multiplied by its value, plus the probability of winning any of the five $100 Amazon cards multiplied by their value, minus the cost of buying a ticket.

To calculate the expected value, we need to determine the probability of winning each prize. Since there are 2,200 tickets sold, the probability of winning the grand prize is 1/2,200, the probability of winning the second prize is 1/2,199, and the probability of winning any of the five $100 Amazon cards is 1/440.

Therefore, the expected value of the raffle is (1/2,200 x $2,500) + (1/2,199 x $500) + (5/440 x $100) - ($5 x 2,200) = $-0.45. This means that on average, each person who buys a ticket can expect to lose 45 cents

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The value of 2+8+32+128…..,n=9 is 174762

The series is given as:

2+8+32+128…..,n=9

Start by calculating the common ratio (r)

r = 8/2

r = 4

The sum of the series is then calculated as:

\(S_n = \frac{a *(r^n - 1)}{r -1}\)

This gives

\(S_9 = \frac{2 *(4^9 - 1)}{4 -1}\)

Evaluate the difference

\(S_9 = \frac{2 *( 262143)}{3}\)

Evaluate the quotient

\(S_9 = 174762\)

Hence, the value of 2+8+32+128…..,n=9 is 174762

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Answer:

264 pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

Write the question in the form of a ratio:

Natasha: Krutika: Jim

1:3:6

Now, we divide the amount of 880 in the ratio.

there are 10 parts in total.

1 part = 880 divided by 10 = 88.

since Krutika gets 3 parts, she gets 88 x 3 = 264

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

50% because when there is only 2 variables and they are each 1 cup there is an even amount of stuff and when you ask for only one percentage that would be 50% because everything is even. Even if you asked for the percentage for the cup of raisins it would also be 50%. Hope this helps <3

Answer:

15 and np

Step-by-step explanation:

add 5 + 5+ 5

A. The maximum mean weight of the passengers cannot exceed 3500 lb if the gondola is filled to its capacity of 25 passengers.

B. To calculate the probability that the mean weight of 25 randomly selected skiers exceeds the maximum weight from part A, we need to use the Central Limit Theorem and standardize the sample mean using z-scores.

C. If the weight assumptions are revised so that the new capacity becomes 20 passengers, the probability that the mean weight of 20 randomly selected skiers exceeds 175 lb can be calculated by standardizing the sample mean using z-scores.

D. To assess the safety of the new capacity of 20 passengers, we need to determine the probability of exceeding the load limit of 3500 lb.

A. Let's denote the mean weight of the passengers as μ and the standard deviation as σ. We know that μ = 180 lb and σ = 38 lb. Since the gondola can carry 25 passengers, the total weight can be calculated as 25 * μ.

To ensure that the total weight does not exceed 3500 lb, we can set up the following inequality:

25 * μ ≤ 3500

Substituting the given values, we have:

25 * 180 ≤ 3500

4500 ≤ 3500

This inequality is not true, which means that the maximum mean weight of the passengers cannot exceed 3500 lb.

B. To determine the probability that the mean weight exceeds the value from part A, we need to calculate the probability distribution of the sample mean.

Now we can calculate the probability that the mean weight exceeds the value from part A, which is the maximum mean weight we found in part A. Let's denote this value as x.

P(x-bar > x) = P(x-bar > 3500 / 25)

To find this probability, we need to standardize the sample mean using z-scores. The formula for the z-score is:

z = (x - μ_x-bar) / σ_x-bar

Substituting the values, we have:

z = (x - 180) / 7.6

We can then look up the corresponding probability in the standard normal distribution table or use statistical software to find the probability.

C. The mean weight of the passengers (μ) remains the same at 180 lb, and the standard deviation (σ) remains at 38 lb. However, since the capacity has changed to 20 passengers, the sample size (n) is now 20.

μ_x-bar = μ = 180 lb

σ_x-bar = σ / √n = 38 lb / √20 ≈ 8.5 lb

Now we can calculate the probability that the mean weight exceeds 175 lb. Let's denote this value as x.

P(x-bar > x) = P(x-bar > 175)

Similarly to part B, we need to standardize the sample mean using z-scores:

z = (x - 180) / 8.5

Then, we can look up the corresponding probability in the standard normal distribution table or use statistical software to find the probability.

D. Is the new capacity of 20 passengers safe? Since the probability of overloading is (under 5%, over 50%), the new capacity (does not appear, appears) to be safe enough.

To calculate this probability, we need to find the probability that the total weight of the 20 randomly selected skiers exceeds 3500 lb. This requires considering the distribution of the sum of 20 normally distributed variables.

The total weight of the 20 skiers can be calculated as 20 * μ, where μ is the mean weight of the passengers (180 lb).

Let's denote the total weight as X. We need to calculate:

P(X > 3500)

To find this probability, we can standardize the variable X using z-scores and then look up the probability in the standard normal distribution table or use statistical software.

If this probability is less than 5%, it indicates that the probability of overloading is under 5%, suggesting that the new capacity of 20 passengers appears to be safe enough. Conversely, if the probability is greater than 50%, it suggests a high risk of overloading.

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Complete Question:

A ski gondola carries skiers to the top if a mountain. assume the weights of skiers are normally distributed with a mean of 180 lb and a standard deviation of 38 lb. the gondola has a stated compacity of 25 passengers, and the gondola is rated fir a load limit of 3500 lb

A. Given that the gondola is rated for a load limit of 3500 lb what is the max mean weight of the passengers if the gondola is filled to the capacity of 25 passengers?

B. If the gondola is filled with 25 randomly selected skiers, what is the probability that their mean weight exceeds the value from part A.

C. If the weight assumptions were revised so that the new capacity became 20 passengers and the gondola is filled with 20 randomly selected skiers, what is the probability that their mean weight exceeds 175 lb, which is the max weight hat does not cause the total load to exceed 3500lb

D. Is the new capacity of 20 passengers safe? Since the probability of overloading is (under 5%, over 50%) the new capacity (does not appear, appears) to be safe enough.

Answer:

Diagram number 3 is not a function.

Step-by-step explanation:

It isn't a function because C goes to 2 different numbers.

Explanation:

For choice (3), the input C maps to more than one output (The values 1 and 3 at the same time). A function must have each input map to one and only one output. So this is why relation (3) is not a function.

The other answer choices (1), (2) and (4) have each input point to exactly one output. So these are functions that can be ruled out.

Answer:

1. 29 2. 35

Step-by-step explanation:

check the attached file

Reactions at points A, C, and F are as follows: RA = -RC, RAy = RCy, and RF = 10 kN.

To determine reactions at points A, C, and F for the assembly consisting of two 10mm diameter rods (A-B and C-D), a 20mm diameter rod (E-F), and a rigid bar (H), with point G located midway between points E and F, and a force of 10 kN applied:

First, calculate the cross-sectional areas of the rods:
A1 = π(10mm)² / 4 = 78.54 mm² (for rods A-B and C-D)
A2 = π(20mm)² / 4 = 314.16 mm² (for rod E-F)

Next, calculate the effective modulus of elasticity for each rod:
E1 = E2 = 101 GPa

Now, use equilibrium equations to determine reactions at points A, C, and F:
ΣFx = 0: RAx + RCx = 0
ΣFy = 0: RAy + RCy + RF = -10 kN
ΣMG = 0: (RAy)(L/2) - (RCy)(L/2) = 0

Solving the equilibrium equations, we get:
RAx = -RCx
RAy = RCy
RF = 10 kN

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The circumcenter of a triangle is the point in the plane equidistant from the three vertices of the triangle.

In geometry, the circumscribed circle or circumcircle of a polygon is a circle that passes through all the vertices of the polygon. The center of this circle is called the circumcenter and its radius is called the circumradius.

Not every polygon has a circumscribed circle. A polygon that does have one is called a cyclic polygon, or sometimes a concyclic polygon because its vertices are concyclic. All triangles, all regular simple polygons, all rectangles, all isosceles trapezoids, and all right kites are cyclic.

A related notion is the one of a minimum bounding circle, which is the smallest circle that completely contains the polygon within it, if the circle's center is within the polygon. Every polygon has a unique minimum bounding circle, which may be constructed by a linear time algorithm.

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Answer:

1 : 2

Step-by-step explanation:

π / 2π = 1/2

1 : 2

To determine the price the student-athlete should charge for each hot dog to break even, we need to consider the total costs she incurs, including the vendor fee, equipment cost, and the cost per hot dog. By dividing the total costs by the anticipated number of hot dogs sold, we can find the price per hot dog that would allow her to break even.

The total costs for the student-athlete include the vendor fee of $3000 and the equipment cost of $4500, which sums up to $7500 for the season. Additionally, she incurs a cost of $0.35 per hot dog sold. With an anticipation of selling 2000 hot dogs, the total cost for the hot dogs would be 2000 x $0.35 = $700.

To break even, the total revenue from selling the hot dogs should cover the total costs. Therefore, the price per hot dog should be set in such a way that the revenue from selling 2000 hot dogs equals $7500. Dividing the total costs ($7500) by the number of hot dogs (2000), we find that the student-athlete should charge $3.75 per hot dog in order to break even. This price per hot dog would allow her to cover all her expenses and reach the break-even point.

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A po pa brainliest

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To find the average value of x^2 in the one-dimensional infinite potential energy well, we need to use the wave function for the particle in the well, which is given by:

ψn(x) = sqrt(2/L) * sin(nπx/L)

where n is a positive integer and L is the width of the well.

The probability density of finding the particle at a position x is given by:

|ψn(x)|^2 = (2/L) * sin^2(nπx/L)

Using this probability density, we can find the average value of x^2 by integrating x^2 multiplied by the probability density over the entire well:

= ∫(x^2)(2/L) * sin^2(nπx/L) dx from 0 to L

Using the trigonometric identity sin^2θ = (1/2) - (1/2)cos(2θ), we can simplify the integral as follows:

= (1/L) * ∫(x^2) dx from 0 to L - (1/L) * ∫(x^2)cos(2nπx/L) dx from 0 to L

The first integral is simply the average value of x^2 over the entire well, which is L^2/3. The second integral can be evaluated using integration by parts, resulting in:

(1/L) * ∫(x^2)cos(2nπx/L) dx = (L^2/2nπ)^2 * [sin(2nπx/L) - (2nπx/L)cos(2nπx/L)] from 0 to L

Plugging this into our original equation, we get:

= L^2/3 - (L^2/2nπ)^2 * [sin(2nπ) - 2nπcos(2nπ)] + (L^2/2nπ)^2 * [sin(0) - 0]

Since sin(0) = 0 and sin(2nπ) = 0, the equation simplifies to:

= L^2/3 - (L^2/2nπ)^2 * (-2nπ) = L^2/3 + (L^2/2) * n^2π^2

Finally, we can substitute L^2/4π^2 for 1/2 in the expression above to get:

= L^2/3 + L^2/4 * n^2π^2 - L^2/4π^2 * n^2π^2

Simplifying further, we get:

= L^2/3 - L^2/4π^2 * n^2π^2

which is the desired result.
To show that the average value of x^2 in a one-dimensional infinite potential energy well is L^2(1/3 - 1/2n^2 π^2), we need to follow these steps:

Step 1: Define the wave function.
For an infinite potential energy well of width L, the wave function Ψ_n(x) is given by:
Ψ_n(x) = √(2/L) sin(nπx/L)

Step 2: Compute the probability density function.
The probability density function, ρ(x), is given by the square of the wave function, |Ψ_n(x)|^2:
ρ(x) = (2/L) sin^2(nπx/L)

Step 3: Calculate the expectation value of x^2.
The expectation value (average value) of x^2, denoted as , is given by the integral of the product of x^2 and the probability density function over the width of the well (0 to L):
= ∫[x^2 ρ(x)] dx from 0 to L

Step 4: Perform the integral.
= ∫[x^2 (2/L) sin^2(nπx/L)] dx from 0 to L

After solving this integral, you will find that:

= L^2(1/3 - 1/2n^2 π^2)

This confirms that the average value of x^2 in the one-dimensional infinite potential energy well is indeed L^2(1/3 - 1/2n^2 π^2).

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Explanation:

First we have to see that there's a first transformation from triangle ABC to triangle A'B'C'. This first transformation is a translation. Since the units are not shown in the graph I can only tell the direction of the translation: it's a translation to the right and down (more units to the right than down).

Then there's a final transformation from triangle A'B'C' to triangle A''B''C'', which is a reflection over the y-axis

Answer:

0. Translation to the right and down

1. Reflection over the y-axis

The boat travels at  18 miles per hour.

What is speed?

Speed is calculated as follows: speed = distance / time. Knowing the units for distance and time is necessary to calculate the units for speed.

The rate at which an object travels a certain distance can be described using the speed formula. The distance that a body travels in a certain amount of time is a common way to measure speed.

Given:  A boat travels 30 miles up the river in the same amount of time it takes to travel 42 miles down the same river. The current is 3 miles per hour.

From the above information we can write,

Let, u is the boat speed in still water, then

\(\frac{30}{u-3} = \frac{42}{u+3}\)

Taking cross multiplication,

30(u + 3) = 42(u - 3)

Solving,

30u + 90 = 42u - 126

42u - 30u -126 -90 = 0

12u = 216

u = 18

Therefore, the speed of boat in still water is, 18 miles per hour.

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Answer:

2.0 x \(10^{1}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

1. length = 3.2 x \(10^{5}\) m

width = 1.6 x \(10^{4}\) m

Area of a rectangle = length x width

                                = (3.2 x \(10^{5}\)) x (1.6 x \(10^{4}\))

                                = 5.12 x \(10^{9}\) \(m^{2}\)

2. length = 1.28 x \(10^{7}\) m

   width = 8 x \(10^{3}\) m

Area of a rectangle = length x width

                                 = (1.28 x \(10^{7}\)) x (8 x \(10^{3}\))

                                 = 1.024 x \(10^{11}\) \(m^{2}\)

\(\frac{Area of rectangle 2}{Area of rectangle 1}\) = \(\frac{1.024*10^{11} }{5.12*10^{9} }\)

                       = 20

                       = 2.0 x \(10^{1}\)

Thus,

The area of rectangle 2 is 2.0 x \(10^{1}\) times greater than the area of rectangle 1.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Candice = 25mph for 4 hours.

Candice has driven= 25 * 4= 100miles.

Liz =50mph

Liz time to catch up to candice= 50 * 2= 100miles.

Therefore, It would have taken Liz two hours to catch up with Candice

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Answer:

x = 4, y = -18 or (4, -18).

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

5x + y = 2

2x - 3y = 62

We can use substitution to solve this problem. Rearrange the first equation in terms of y:

5x + y = 2 ---> y = -5x + 2

Substitute in this equation for y into the second equation:

2x - 3(-5x + 2) = 62

Distribute -3:

2x + 15x  - 6 = 62

Combine like terms:

17x - 6 = 62

Add 6 to both sides:

17x = 68

Divide both sides by 17:

x = 4.

Plug in this value for x into an equation to solve for y:

5(4) + y = 2

20 + y = 2

y = -18.

Therefore, the solutions to this system of equations are:

x = 4, y = -18 or (4, -18).

The factorization of 81x² - 4 is (9x + 2)(9x - 2).

Factorization, also known as factoring, is the process of expressing a number or an algebraic expression as a product of two or more factors that are smaller than the original number or expression.

We can factorize 81x² - 4 by recognizing that it is a difference of squares, which can be factored as:

a² - b² = (a + b)(a - b)

In this case, a = 9x and b = 2, so we can write:

81x²- 4 = (9x + 2)(9x - 2)

Therefore, the factorization of 81x² - 4 is (9x + 2)(9x - 2).

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The positive solution to the equation \(-x^{2} +2x+1=0\) is \(x=1+\sqrt{2}\).

Given quadratic equation is:

\(-x^{2} +2x+1=0\)

The general form of a quadratic equation is \(ax^{2} +bx+c=0\) and \(a\neq 0\).

On comparing with general form of quadratic equation

a = -1

b = 2

c = 1

So, from the Shreedharacharya formula,

\(x = \frac{-b+-\sqrt{b^{2} -4ac} }{2a}\)

\(x = \frac{-2+-\sqrt{2^{2} -4(-1)(1)} }{2*(-1)}\)

\(x = 1-\sqrt{2} \\x=1+\sqrt{2}\)

as \(x = 1-\sqrt{2}\) is negative

So, the positive solution is \(x=1+\sqrt{2}\)

Therefore, the positive solution to the equation \(-x^{2} +2x+1=0\) is \(x=1+\sqrt{2}\).

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Answer:  x = 2 + √2. x = 2 - √2 ·

Step-by-step explanation:

- x² + 2x + 1 = 0. x² - 2x - 1 = 0. Here,. a = 1. b = - 2. c = - 1