Find the surface area of this cuboid.
2 cm
4 cm
2 cm

Answer:

\(7/2x + 3/2 = 3/2 <=> x = 0\)

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of x that makes the relation a function is 3.

Option A is the correct answer.

We have,

A = (5, 3), (4, 9), (7, 2), (x, 6)

Given the points (5, 3), (4, 9), (7, 2), and (x, 6), we need to ensure that x does not repeat in the relation.

If we substitute the given values of x (3, 4, 5, 7) into the relation, we find:

For x = 3: (3, 6)

For x = 4: (4, 6)

For x = 5: (5, 6)

For x = 7: (7, 6)

Now,

A function can not have the same output for the same input.

So,

(4, 6) and (4, 9) are not possible.

(5, 6) and (5, 3) are not possible.

(7, 6) and (7, 2) are not possible.

And,

(3, 6) is possible

Thus,

The value of x that makes a function is 3.

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Answer:

y = 5.25x + 80

Step-by-step explanation:

total income = 5.25 * phones + 80 salary

Answer:

y = 5.25x + 80

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

the correct answer would be 8725 because 8724 is closer to 8725

Step-by-step explanation:

8720-------8724--8725

Answer:

Indefinite answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Use formula

Y2 - y1 over x2 - x1

Guess what -4 - -4 gets cancelled and denominator becomes 0

Because we have a vertical asymptote at x = -1, we conclude that the correct option is C.. Which of the following rational functions is graphed below? In the graph, we can see that we have a vertical asymptote at x = -1.. …

The derivative of the function cos(xº) in radians is y' = -sin(xπ/180)

From the question, we have the following function definition that can be used in our computation:

cos(xº)

Changing the degree into radian, we have

cos(xπ/180)

Express as a function

So, we have

y = cos(xπ/180)

When the cosine function is differentiated, we have

y' = -sin(xπ/180)

Hence, the differentiated function is y' = -sin(xπ/180)

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Answer:

4+7-2

=11-2

=9

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the hacker guesses the password on their first try is extremely low.

What is the probability that the hacker guesses the password on his first try?

There are 26 lowercase letters, 26 uppercase letters, and 10 numerical digits, for a total of 62 possible characters for each position in the password. Since the password is 9 characters long, there are \(62^{9}\) possible passwords.

The probability that the hacker guesses the password on their first try is 1 out of the total number of possible passwords:

Probability = 1 / (\(62^{9}\))

Using a calculator, this can be simplified to approximately 1.2 x \(10^{-16}\)

Therefore, the probability that the hacker guesses the password on their first try is extremely low.

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For binomial probability mass function formula and compound interest formula, These both involve the use of exponents, they are not otherwise related to each other in any significant way.

What is Compound interest?

Compound interest is the interest that is earned not only on the initial principal amount of an investment, but also on any interest that has accumulated over time. In other words, it is interest that is "compounded" or added to the principal amount at specific intervals, such as daily, monthly, quarterly, or annually.

Now,

The binomial probability mass function formula and the compound interest formula are not directly related to each other, as they are used to model different types of phenomena.

The binomial probability mass function is used to calculate the probability of obtaining a certain number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials, where each trial has two possible outcomes (success or failure) and the probability is same. The binomial probability mass function is

P(x) = pˣ (1-p)ⁿ⁻ˣ

where X is the number of successes, k is the specific number of successes we are interested in, n is the total number of trials, p is the probability of success on each trial, and represents the binomial coefficient.

The compound interest formula, on the other hand, is used to calculate the value of an investment over time, assuming a fixed interest rate and compounding periods. The future value is

FV = PV x (1 + r/n)ⁿˣ

where FV is the future value of the investment, PV is the present value of the investment, r is the interest rate (expressed as a decimal), n = number of times interest is compounded per year, and x = number of years.

While both formulas involve the use of exponents, they are not otherwise related to each other in any significant way.

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The binomial probability mass function formula and the compound interest formula are not directly related to each other.

The binomial probability mass function formula is used to calculate the probability of observing a certain number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials, where each trial has only two possible outcomes (success or failure) and the probability of success is constant across all trials. The formula is:

P(X = k) = (n choose k) * p^k * (1 - p)^(n - k)

where X is the random variable representing the number of successes, k is the number of successes we want to observe, n is the total number of trials, p is the probability of success, and (n choose k) is the binomial coefficient, which represents the number of ways to choose k successes from n trials.

On the other hand, the compound interest formula is used to calculate the value of an investment that earns a fixed interest rate over a certain period of time, assuming that the interest is compounded at regular intervals. The formula is:

A = P * (1 + r/n)^(nt)

where A is the final amount of the investment, P is the principal amount, r is the annual interest rate, n is the number of times the interest is compounded per year, t is the number of years, and (1 + r/n)^(nt) represents the growth factor of the investment.

While both formulas involve exponents and use the terms (1 - p) and (1 + r/n), they are fundamentally different in their purpose and application.

Answer: the slope is negative  \(\frac{1}{6}\) and the y intercept is (0,1)

Step-by-step explanation:

The angle m∠JIX is 90 degrees.

IX is perpendicular to IJ. Therefore, angle m∠JIX is 90 degrees.

IG bisect CIJ. Hence,

m∠CIG ≅ m∠GIJ

Therefore,

m∠CIX = 150 degrees

Hence, let's find m∠JIX.

Therefore, m∠JIX is 90 degrees because IX is perpendicular to IJ. Perpendicular lines forms a right angle.

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The measure of angle m∠JIX is  estimated to be 90⁰.

You should understand that an angle is a figure formed by two straight lines or rays that meet at a common endpoint, called the vertex.

IX is perpendicular to IJ. Therefore, angle m∠JIX is 90⁰.

Frim the given parameters,

IG⊥CIJ.

But;  m∠CIG ≅ m∠GIJ

⇒ m∠CIX = 150⁰

Hence, let's find m∠JIX.

Therefore, m∠JIX is 90⁰ because IX is perpendicular to IJ. Perpendicular lines forms a right angle.

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Given:

points (2,2) and (-4,2)

Recall the formula for determining the slope of a line given two points

Given the point (2,2) and (-4,2), the slope of the line is

The slope of the line is zero.

Graphing the two point, connect the two points (2,2) and (-4,2), then draw a solid line connecting the two points and we get

Answer:

yo

Step-by-step explanation:

jy

Answer:

20° and 70°

Step-by-step explanation:

complimentary angle sum to 90°

let x be the compliment then the angle is 3x + 10 , so

x + 3x + 10 = 90 , that is

4x + 10 = 90 ( subtract 10 from both sides )

4x = 80 ( divide both sides by 4 )

x = 20

3x + 10 = 3(20) + 10 = 60 + 10 = 70

the 2 angle measures are 20° and 70°

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  P(x) = (2x)(x)(x-4)(x+2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Once the common factor of 2x^2 is factored out, you have ...

  P(x) = 2x^2(x^2 -2x -8)

To factor the quadratic, you look for factors of -8 that have a sum of -2.

  -8 = (1)(-8) = 2(-4)

These last factors have that sum, so we can write P(x) as ...

  P(x) = (2x)(x)(x +2)(x -4)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

110

Answer: $227,226.51

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we need to convert the period to weeks.

9 1/2 years = 9.5 years

1 year = 52 weeks

9.5 years = 494 weeks

Next, we can use the formula for the future value of an annuity:

FV = (PMT x (((1 + r/n)^(n*t)) - 1)) / (r/n)

where:

PMT = payment amount per period

r = annual interest rate

n = number of compounding periods per year

t = number of years

Plugging in the given values:

PMT = $300

r = 0.055 (5.5% expressed as a decimal)

n = 52 (compounded weekly)

t = 9.5 years = 494 weeks

FV = ($300 x (((1 + 0.055/52)^(52*494)) - 1)) / (0.055/52)

FV = $227,226.51

Therefore, the future value of the annuity is approximately $227,226.51.

The length of side X in simple radical form with a rational denominator is 10/√3.

In Mathematics and Geometry, a 30-60-90 triangle is also referred to as a special right-angled triangle and it can be defined as a type of right-angled triangle whose angles are in the ratio 1:2:3 and the side lengths are in the ratio 1:√3:2.

This ultimately implies that, the length of the hypotenuse of a 30-60-90 triangle is double (twice) the length of the shorter leg (adjacent side), and the length of the longer leg (opposite side) of a 30-60-90 triangle is √3 times the length of the shorter leg (adjacent side):

Adjacent side = 5/√3

Hypotenuse, x = 2 × 5/√3

Hypotenuse, x = 10/√3.

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Missing information:

The question is incomplete and the complete question is shown in the attached picture.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Using

Point A: x= 1 and y=3

And point B: x=-2 and y=-6

use equation of slope and substitute the values

Slope= YB-YA/Xb-Xa

= -6-3/-2-1

=3

Answer:

86.64 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

i have no idea i guessed on got it right on the quiz

The surface area of the red cloth of 60% paperweight is 86.64 square cm. Then the correct option is B.

It deals with the size of geometry, region, and density of the different forms both 2D and 3D.

The surface area of the paperweight will be given as

\(\rm Surface \ area = 2\times (5*3 + 6*3) + 5*6 + 2 \times \dfrac{1}{2} * 5 * 2 + 2 \times (3.2 + 6)\\\\Surface \ area = 2 \times (33) + 30 + 2 \times 5 + 2\times 19.2\\\\Surface \ area = 66 + 30 + 10 + 38.4\\\\Surface \ area = 144.4\)

This figure represents a small paperweight.

The plan is to cover 60% of the total surface area, including the bottom face, of the paperweight with red cloth.

The surface area of the red cloth will be

Surface area of red cloth = 0.6 × 144.4

Surface area of red cloth = 86.64 cm²

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Answer:

2 hours and 30 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

50 miles times 3 minus 25

The missing variables for item 1 in this problem are given as follows:

The three trigonometric ratios are the sine, the cosine and the tangent of an angle, and they are obtained according to the formulas presented as follows:

For the angle of 60º, we have that:

Hence the length c is obtained as follows:

tan(60º) = \(\frac{2\sqrt{3}}{c}\)

\(\sqrt{3}c = 2\sqrt{3}\)

c = 2.

Applying the Pythagorean Theorem, the length r is given as follows:

r² = \(2^2 + (2\sqrt{3})^2\)

r² = 16

r = 4.

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Answer:

c = 2

r = 4

Step-by-step explanation:

From observation of the given right triangle, we can see that its interior angles measure 30°, 60° and 90°. Therefore, it is a special 30-60-90 triangle.

The side lengths in a 30-60-90 triangle have a special relationship which can be represented by the ratio 1 : √3 : 2, where:

Therefore, the formula for the side lengths is a : a√3 : 2a, where "a" represents a scaling factor that can be any positive real number.

Therefore, if we know the length of one side of a 30-60-90 triangle, we can calculate the length of the other sides using this ratio.

In triangle #1, the longest leg is 2√3.

As a√3 is the longest leg, we can use this to calculate the scale factor "a".

\(\begin{aligned}a\sqrt{3}&=2\sqrt{3}\\\\\dfrac{a\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}&=\dfrac{2\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{3}}\\\\a&=2\end{aligned}\)

Therefore, the scale factor "a" is 2.

The side labelled "c" is the shortest leg opposite the 30° angle. Therefore:

\(c = a=2\)

The side labelled "r" is the hypotenuse of the triangle. Therefore:

\(r = 2a = 2 \cdot 2=4\)

Therefore:

Total water bill for the month is $62.37.

It seems that you may have accidentally left out the total amount of your water bill.

The total amount by simply adding the amounts of the individual bills together:

Total water bill =\($36.34 + $26.03\)

= \($62.37\)

You have not provided enough information to determine your total water bill.

You have only given the amounts of your individual bills from Metro Water Services and Madison Suburban Utility District.

To find your total water bill, you simply need to add the two bills together.

So, the total amount you owe for water this month would be:

Total water bill = \($36.34 + $26.03\)

= \($62.37\)

It appears that you may have forgotten to include the full amount of your water bill by accident.

Simple addition of the separate bill amounts yields the following sum:

Water bill total = \($36.34 + $26.03\)

= \($62.37\)

Your total water bill cannot be calculated because not enough information has been given.

Only the amounts of your individual Metro Water Services and Madison Suburban Utility District bills have been provided.

You just need to combine the two invoices together to get your total water bill.

As a result, this month's total water bill for you would be:

Water bill total =  \($36.34 + $26.03\)

= \($62.37\)

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The right answer is C)

Consistent and independent system of two linear equations is a system such that there is only one solution for the system, that is, the two straight lines cross at a point. So we can analyze each case and I have attached some graphs to provided you with examples. Those graphs aren't about the equations but it's about general cases:

A) Consistent and dependent. If we divide this given equation by 2 we get the same line. (See Figure 1)

B) Inconsistent. No solutions. (See Figure 2)

C) Consistent and Independent. (See Figure 3)

D) Consistent and dependent.

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1.75 bags of dog food.

Step-by-step explanation:

7/4 = 1.75

Each dog gets 1.75 bags of dog food.

Have a great day!

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Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

There has to be two variables it's being compared to, in which case this is the blood sugar level and the amount of sugar

Answer:

8/20 and 15/20 and then you add to get 23/20 AKA       1   3/20

Step-by-step explanation:

Since you multiply 5 by 4 to get the LCD, apply the same method to the top: 2 times 4 is 8

Next do the same for the other fraction: 4 times 5 is 20 so apply that to get 3 times 5 is 15

Your final fractions will be 8/20 and 15/20

Then add and reduce to get 1 3/20