Synthesis of thromboxane a2 is inhibited by Aspirin , which is often recommended in low doses for people at risk for coronary heart disease and/or stroke.
Aspirin inhibits both the potent platelet thromboxane A2 and the potent anti-aggregator prostacyclin. Another method to prevent platelet aggregation may be to selectively reduce thromboxane synthesis.
Aspirin reduces the production of thromboxane A2, which is responsible for platelet aggregation, via inhibiting cyclooxygenase. Ticlopidine blocks the platelet membrane's ability to perform its function by preventing ADP-induced platelet-fibrinogen binding and subsequent platelet-platelet interaction. While thromboxane A2 promotes platelet aggregation, prostacyclin inhibits it.
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A postpartum client decides to bottle-feed her neonate. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching about preventing engorgement?
Answer:
"Taking hot showers can help reduce engorgement."
Explanation:
The statement made by a client that would indicate the need for further teaching would be "Taking hot showers can help reduce engorgement." That is because Engorgement is when the breast tissue overfills with milk, blood, and other fluids which causes swelling, and pain. Heat (like from a hot shower) can increase swelling. The best thing to do would be to apply ice for 15–20 minutes at a time between feeds to reduce swelling.
Early signs of pressure ulcers include
Answer: Unusual changes in skin color or texture, Swelling, Pus-like
draining, An area of skin that feels cooler or warmer to the touch than other areas or Tender areas.
Explanation:
julian likes to smoke in the morning and after meals. what happens inside of julian's body as the nicotine takes effect?Choose only ONE best answer.AHis heart rate decreases.BHis skin temperature increases.CThe release of adrenaline increases.DThe blood flow to his legs and feet increases.
C) The release of adrenaline increases.When Julian smokes, nicotine enters his bloodstream and quickly travels to his brain. Once in the brain, nicotine stimulates the release of several neurotransmitters, including dopamine, norepinephrine, and adrenaline.
Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is a hormone and neurotransmitter that is involved in the body's "fight or flight" response to stress or danger.
When adrenaline is released, it causes several physiological changes in the body, including an increase in heart rate and blood pressure, dilation of the pupils, and an increase in blood sugar levels. These changes help prepare the body for physical activity or a perceived threat.
In Julian's case, the release of adrenaline after smoking may contribute to his feelings of alertness or "awakeness" in the morning and after meals. However, the repeated exposure to nicotine and the subsequent release of adrenaline can have negative effects on his health, including an increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
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Is jumping on a trampoline gravatational energy
Answer:There are Multiple different types of energy transfer, including gravitational potential energy, elastic energy, and kinetic energy.
Explanation:When you use your potential energy to jump, the trampoline uses its potential energy in its springs to push back against you.
Many medications are devised to have a slow release of the primary medication over an extended period of time. Which medication types are typically time-released?
A.ointments and capsules
B. foams and gases
C. capsules and transdermal patches
D. transdermal patches and foams
Answer:
C. capsules and transdermal patches
What pathologic or disease state might necessitate the use of one class of diuretics over another? Give an example and explain.
The pathologic or disease state might necessitate the use of one class of diuretics over another is liver disease.
Spironolactone is the class one diuretic recommended for a patient with cirrhosis and edema.
What are diuretics ?A diuretic is described as any substance that promotes diuresis, the increased production of urine and this might includes forced diuresis.
There are three known types of diuretics and they include:
Thiazide. Loop. Potassium sparing.The use of some diuretics is also prominent in cases of overdose or poisoning as they help to increase the excretion of certain substances from the patient's body.
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major difference between Bobby (type 1 diabetes) and his father (type 2 diabetes) is: A. the potential long-term complications B. how the condition is treated between type 1 and type 2 C. how the condition is diagnosed between type 1 and type 2 D. the overall goal of treatment between type 1 and type 2
Answer:
B. How the condition is treated between type 1 and type 2
Explanation:
Type 1 and type 2 are the two types of diabetes. Both are chronic and are dangerous for the human body. This diabetes affects the regulation of blood sugar and glucose in the body. Insulin is not produced in the body that suffers from type 1 diabetes. The body does not respond to insulin in type 2 diabetes. More common among the two types of diabetes is type 2 diabetes. The treatment of both diabetes is different. In type 1 diabetes, insulin injections are injected into the body.
A participant missed several study visits and the research site staff becomes aware of a participant's death searching through public records. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Answer:
A. Report this as a Serious Adverse Event (SAE).
Explanation:
When undergoing a trial using a medical product, subjects might sometimes experience certain negative effects referred to as Serious Adverse Events. These effects might range from, hospitalization, death, congenital defects, disabilities, etc.
If the medical personnel suspects that the negative effect was as a result of the medical product used, it becomes necessary to report such as a Serious Adverse Event. So, in the scenario above where a participant suddenly misses participation and his death becomes known through public records, suspicions might be that the death was a serious adverse event caused by the study.
HOW WILL YOU PREVENT ATELECTASIS? SITE NURSING INTERVENTIONS.
Answer:
Deep breathing exercises and coughing after surgery can reduce your risk of developing atelectasis. If you smoke, you can lower your risk of developing the condition by quitting smoking before any operation.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy with spinal fusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
b. Assist the client into a knee-chest position to manage postoperative discomfort.
c. Maintain strict bed rest for the first 48 hours postoperative.
d. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position if clear drainage is noted on the dressing.a. Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
The action which a nurse should take when taking care of a patient who is postoperative following a laminectomy with spinal fusion is:
Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
The correct answer choice is option a.
What is meant by laminectomy?Laminectomy refers to surgical procedure which creates an opening by way of removing tissues concerned with arthritis of the spine. However, this help to allow the passages of substances to be removed from the spine.
From the context of the task given above, it is expedient that a well trained healthcare provider monitors the perception of the lower extremities of patient with such health condition in order to help manage while caring for him or her.
In conclusion, it can be deduced from the explanation given above that a client with such health condition needs to be monitored properly.
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it can treat pain and itching caused by insect bites, minor cuts, burns, poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac when applied topically
Answer:
I think its benadryl
Explanation:
Answer:
i
Explanation:
Benzocaine is used to relieve pain and itching caused by conditions such as sunburn or other minor burns, insect bites or stings, poison ivy, poison oak, poison sumac, minor cuts, or scratches. Benzocaine belongs to a group of medicines known as topical local anesthetics. It deadens the nerve endings in the skin.
theres you awnser
can i have brinliest
"Chondro" in the word chondritis means:
"Chondro" in the word Condhritis means Cartilage.
Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue found in various parts of the human and animal bodies, including the joints between bones, ribs, ears, nose, and throat passages. It is tougher and less flexible than muscle but softer than bone.
Cartilage is composed of chondroblast cells which produce large amounts of collagen, proteoglycans, and elastin fibers. There are three types of cartilage, namely spongy cartilage, hyaline cartilage, and fibrous cartilage. Cartilage has no blood vessels. Therefore, the healing of injured or inflamed cartilage will take longer than that of other connective bones.
Meanwhile, chondritis is an inflammation that occurs in the cartilage.
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Within the cell, the cleanup crew is/are the
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) nucleus
C) lysosomes
D) cytoplasm
Within the cell, the cleanup crew is/are the C) lysosomes.
Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing various enzymes that function primarily in breaking down and recycling cellular waste and debris. They are considered the "waste disposal system" of the cell. These organelles digest excess or worn-out cell components, bacteria, and other foreign particles that enter the cell. This process is essential for maintaining cellular health and proper functioning.
Lysosomes are produced by the endoplasmic reticulum (A) and further processed in the Golgi apparatus. They are not to be confused with the endoplasmic reticulum, which is involved in protein and lipid synthesis, or the nucleus (B), which houses genetic material and controls cellular activities. Additionally, lysosomes are distinct from the cytoplasm (D), which is the fluid matrix that fills the cell and contains various cellular structures.
In summary, (option c) lysosomes serve as the cell's cleanup crew by breaking down and recycling waste materials, contributing to the overall health and efficiency of the cell.
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Three days after delivering her baby a 30 year old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect?
Pulmonary embolism
Answer:
Three days after delivering her baby, a 30-year-old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardia. The EMT should suspect: pulmonary embolism.
Explanation:
The answer is pulmonary embolism.
when a patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (ckd) for several years he started on hemodialysis, which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis b. dietary sodium and potassium creatinine are lost c. unlimited fluids are allowed since retained fluid is removed during dialysis d. more protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis
The information from the diet which the nurse will include in the patient teaching is that the more amount of protein will be allowed due to the fact that the urea as well as creatine are removed using the process of dialysis.
The correct option is option d.
The patient is suffering from progressive chronic kidney disease or CDK which is a disease in which basically the kidneys of the patient gets damaged and cannot possibly filter the blood in a way that they should be. The disease is known as a chronic disease because the damage which happens to the kidneys occurs slowly over a long period of time.
The information from the diet of the patient which the nurse will be including in her patient teaching would be that the urea as well as the creatine are removed by dialysis and so the amount of protein allowed will be more.
Hence, the correct option is option d.
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Charlie eats eggs and foods from the dairy group, but does not consume any other animal food products. This type of diet is considered a/an _________ diet.
Answer:
pollotarian diet
Explanation:
A pollotarian diet is a type of semi-vegetarianism in which chicken is allowed, but red meat and pork are not. Some pollotarians may also include eggs and dairy.
A bundle of skeletal muscle fibers enclosed by a perimysium forms a _____ within a muscle.
A bundle of skeletal muscle fibers enclosed by a perimysium forms a fascicle within a muscle. Fascicles are surrounded by connective tissue layers that provide support and protection to the muscle fibers. This organizational structure allows for coordinated movement and efficient force generation within the muscle.
Within a muscle, individual muscle fibers are grouped together into bundles called fascicles. Each fascicle is surrounded by a layer of connective tissue known as perimysium. The perimysium serves as a protective sheath, enclosing and holding together the muscle fibers within the fascicle. It also provides structural support to the muscle, allowing for efficient force transmission.The fascicles themselves are surrounded by another layer of connective tissue called epimysium. The epimysium covers the entire muscle, binding the fascicles together and providing further support. Together, the perimysium and epimysium form a network of connective tissue that maintains the integrity and shape of the muscle.This hierarchical organization of muscle fibers into fascicles, and fascicles into muscles, allows for efficient coordination of movement. As muscle fibers within a fascicle contract, the force generated is transmitted to the other fibers within the same fascicle. This arrangement enables the muscle to generate a strong and coordinated contraction, facilitating various functions such as movement, stability, and force generation.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. When performing the allen test, after applying pressure until the hand loses its pink tone, you should release pressure from the ___ artery
Answer:
radial
Explanation:
The Allen test is a first-line standard test used to assess the arterial blood supply of the hand. This test is performed whenever intravascular access to the radial artery is planned or for selecting patients for radial artery harvesting, such as for coronary artery bypass grafting or for forearm flap elevation.
Answer:
Radial
Explanation:
The original Allen test is performed by asking the patient to elevate both arms above the head for thirty seconds in order to exsanguinate the hands. Next, the patient squeezes their hands into tight fists, and the examiner occludes the radial artery simultaneously on both hands.
Explain the structural reasons why the highest and lowest mp. analgesics have such different melting temperatures. Highest: Acetaminophen m.p. 170°C Lowest Ibuprofen m.p. 76°C
The higher melting point of acetaminophen is due to its more complex molecular structure while the lower melting point of ibuprofen is due to its simpler molecular structure.
The highest and lowest melting point (mp) analgesics, acetaminophen and ibuprofen, have different melting temperatures due to differences in their molecular structure.
Acetaminophen has a more complex molecular structure than ibuprofen, which includes a central benzene ring and two additional functional groups, an amine and a carboxylic acid. These additional functional groups increase the intermolecular forces of attraction between the acetaminophen molecules, which in turn increases the energy required to break the bonds and melt the crystal.
On the other hand, ibuprofen has a simpler molecular structure with a single functional group, a carboxylic acid. This lower number of functional groups and lower intermolecular forces of attraction result in a lower melting point for ibuprofen.
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ways to survive breast cancer ?
Answer:
Explanation:
The nurse noticed increased blood pressure in a client being treated for depression. which antidepressant medication would the nurse ask the primary health care provider to reconsider?
Bupropion
Depression is a common but significant mood illness (sometimes known as major depressive disorder or clinical depression). It produces severe symptoms that interfere with your ability to function on a daily basis, including sleeping, eating, and working.
The signs of depression must last for at least two weeks before a diagnosis may be made. The antidepressant medication used to treat depression is called bupropion. An rise in blood pressure is this medication's side effect.
Anxiety and sleeplessness are two undesirable side effects of fluoxetine. The negative effects of trazodone are sedative effects. The side effects of mirtazapine include sleepiness and strange nightmares.
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a patient is admitted to the unit with respiratory distress and acute decompensated heart failure (adhf). which clinical findings would the nurse expect to find during the initial assessment?
When assessing a patient with respiratory distress and acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF), the nurse may expect to find the following clinical findings during the initial assessment:
Respiratory symptoms: The patient may have increased work of breathing, shortness of breath (dyspnea), rapid and shallow breathing (tachypnea), or use of accessory muscles to breathe. They may also report orthopnea (difficulty breathing while lying flat) or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening at night with difficulty breathing).
Cyanosis: The patient's lips, fingertips, or nail beds may appear bluish due to inadequate oxygenation.
Abnormal lung sounds: Upon auscultation, the nurse may hear crackles (rales) or wheezing in the lung fields. These findings suggest pulmonary congestion or fluid accumulation.
Distended neck veins: The nurse may observe jugular venous distention (JVD), indicating increased central venous pressure due to fluid overload.
Edema: Peripheral edema may be present, particularly in the lower extremities. The nurse may assess for pitting edema by pressing a finger against the swollen area and observing if an indentation remains.
Rapid and weak peripheral pulses: Due to decreased cardiac output, the patient may have weak peripheral pulses. The nurse may check the radial or pedal pulses for strength, regularity, and symmetry.
Elevated blood pressure: ADHF can lead to increased blood pressure due to the activation of compensatory mechanisms such as the sympathetic nervous system.
Heart murmur: The nurse may detect abnormal heart sounds, such as a systolic or diastolic murmur, which can indicate valvular dysfunction or structural heart abnormalities.
Increased heart rate: The patient may have an elevated heart rate (tachycardia) in response to the heart's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output.
Altered mental status: In severe cases, decreased cerebral perfusion due to compromised cardiac output can result in confusion or restlessness.
It's important to note that these clinical findings can vary depending on the severity of ADHF and any underlying conditions the patient may have. The nurse should perform a comprehensive assessment to gather a complete picture of the patient's condition and provide appropriate care.
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a large number of randomized experiments were conducted to determine whether taking a particular drug regularly would decrease the chance of getting a certain disease. for each of the experiments, the drug effect is the difference between the proportion of people taking the drug who got the disease and the proportion of people taking a placebo who got the disease. if the drug had no effect whatsoever, which of the following experimental results would be anticipated? p-values will be greater than 0.05 for about 95 percent of the experiments. there will be about an equal number of experiments showing positive and negative values of drug effect. when 95 percent confidence intervals for the population drug effect are constructed, those confidence intervals include 0 about 95 percent of the time.
If the drug had no effect, then we would expect the p-values to be greater than 0.05 for about 95 percent of the experiments.
This indicates that there is not enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis that the drug has no effect. Additionally, we would anticipate that there will be about an equal number of experiments showing positive and negative values of drug effect. When 95 percent confidence intervals for the population drug effect are constructed, those confidence intervals should include 0 about 95 percent of the time, indicating that the true population effect of the drug is uncertain. This highlights the importance of conducting rigorous, well-designed experiments to determine the effectiveness of a drug.
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Obi is trying to determine if a powdery, solid substance is an element or a compound. After recording some observations, he strongly heats a sample of the solid over a burner flame. After fifteen minutes, he turns off the flame and allows the sample to cool. He records his final observations in the data table.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is B
Explanation: I got it tight on edgunity 2020, I hope this helps :)
the nurse is assisting to administer acetylcysteine to a client admitted with acetaminophen overdose. before this medication is given, the nurse ensures which factor is in place?
The factor that the nurse must ensure before administering acetylcysteine to a client is the stomach must be empty from emesis or lavage.
Acetylcysteine is a prescription medicine used to prevent or lessen liver damage that's caused by acetaminophen overdose or paracetamol poisoning. It's also used to loosen mucus in people suffering from chronic bronchopulmonary disorders such as pneumonia. It works by increasing the glutathione level. Glutathione is an antioxidant that neutralizes the breakdown products of paracetamol.
Acetylcysteine can be administered orally, intravenously, or by inhalation. Before administering, the stomach of the patient must be emptied by lavage or by inducing emesis.
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Of all of the possible tools used by the public relations professionally, ________ is the most widely used.
Of all the possible tools used by public relations professionals, social media is the most widely used.
Social media platforms have revolutionized the way organizations communicate and engage with their target audience. It provides an interactive and immediate means to share information, manage brand reputation, and cultivate relationships with stakeholders. With billions of users worldwide, platforms offer an unparalleled reach and the ability to target specific demographics.
Moreover, social media allows for real-time feedback, enabling PR professionals to monitor conversations, gauge public sentiment, and respond promptly to issues or crises. The cost-effectiveness, versatility, and widespread adoption of social media make it an indispensable tool for public relations practitioners in today's digital age.
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who was convicted of illegaly administering a controlled substance without a license to practice medicine
Answer:
Muhammad Arif
Explanation:
After a five-day day jury trial, Muhammad Arif, 61, of Katy, Texas, was found guilty of one count of conspiracy to unlawfully distribute and dispense controlled substances and three counts of unlawfully distributing and dispensing controlled substances.
3. Hospitals provide medical service to patients. This involves receiving patients in various
departments such as Emergency, Cardiology, Orthopedics, Radiology, Pharmacy for
preliminary diagnosis and then treatment. There is also a lot of bureaucracy in terms of
the patient medical records, insurance and financial matters and prescription of relevant
drugs.
a) From an operations point of view, break down a standard Hospital into the 5
departments stated above, and elaborate whether they are Front Office, Hybrid,
Back Office processes. Use divergence and customer contact levels to analyze
each section. [20 Points]
b) Focus on the Emergency department, and explain how you can ensure you are
always prepared for various situations. Inside this department, how will you
decide on the Process Structure, Customer Involvement, Resource Flexibility and
Capital Intensity to allow you to treat emergency patients? [10 Points]
The goal is to have a well-structured, responsive, and resource-efficient Emergency Department that can handle a range of emergencies while prioritizing patient care and safety.
a) From an operations point of view, a standard hospital can be broken down into the following 5 departments: Emergency, Cardiology, Orthopedics, Radiology, and Pharmacy. Let's analyze each department in terms of whether they are Front Office, Hybrid, or Back Office processes, and consider their divergence and customer contact levels.
1. Emergency Department:
- Process Type: Front Office
- Customer Contact Level: High
- Divergence Level: High
The Emergency Department is a Front Office process because it directly interacts with patients in critical conditions. It has a high customer contact level since patients come in with urgent medical needs. The divergence level is also high because the department needs to handle a wide range of emergency situations.
2. Cardiology Department:
- Process Type: Hybrid
- Customer Contact Level: Medium
- Divergence Level: Medium
The Cardiology Department is a Hybrid process as it combines both front-end patient interaction and back-end medical procedures. While patients have direct contact with cardiologists, certain tests and procedures may be performed by technicians. The customer contact level is medium, as patients come in specifically for cardiology-related concerns. The divergence level is also medium, as the department mainly deals with cardiology cases.
3. Orthopedics Department:
- Process Type: Hybrid
- Customer Contact Level: Medium
- Divergence Level: Medium
Similar to the Cardiology Department, the Orthopedics Department is a Hybrid process. It involves both direct patient interaction and specialized medical procedures. The customer contact level is medium since patients come in with orthopedic issues. The divergence level is also medium, as the department primarily deals with orthopedic cases.
4. Radiology Department:
- Process Type: Back Office
- Customer Contact Level: Low
- Divergence Level: Low
The Radiology Department is a Back Office process as it primarily focuses on medical imaging and diagnostic procedures. Patients have minimal direct contact with radiologists, with most interactions involving technicians. The customer contact level is low, as patients are referred to the department for specific imaging needs. The divergence level is also low since the department follows standardized imaging procedures.
5. Pharmacy:
- Process Type: Back Office
- Customer Contact Level: Low
- Divergence Level: Low
The Pharmacy Department is a Back Office process as it primarily involves dispensing medications prescribed by doctors. Patients interact with pharmacists mainly to collect their prescribed drugs. The customer contact level is low, as patients visit the pharmacy with specific prescriptions. The divergence level is low since the department follows established medication dispensing processes.
b) Focusing on the Emergency Department, ensuring preparedness for various situations involves considering the Process Structure, Customer Involvement, Resource Flexibility, and Capital Intensity.
1. Process Structure:
In the Emergency Department, the process structure should be designed to handle a wide range of emergencies efficiently. This includes having triage systems to quickly assess the severity of patients' conditions, prioritizing immediate life-saving measures, and coordinating with other departments for specialized treatments.
2. Customer Involvement:
In emergency situations, patients may not be actively involved in decision-making processes due to the urgency of their conditions. However, effective communication and empathy should be prioritized to keep patients informed and alleviate anxiety.
3. Resource Flexibility:
The Emergency Department should have flexible resource allocation to adapt to varying patient loads and emergency types. This includes having a sufficient number of doctors, nurses, and support staff who are trained to handle different emergency scenarios.
4. Capital Intensity:
The Emergency Department requires a higher level of capital intensity compared to other departments. This includes having advanced medical equipment, emergency medications, and life-saving devices readily available. Investments in technology and infrastructure should be made to ensure efficient patient care.
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a toothpaste with high abrasive is recommended to remove plaque. T/F
Answer:
T
Explanation:
False. A toothpaste with high abrasives is not recommended to remove plaque. In fact, using a toothpaste that is too abrasive can actually damage the enamel on your teeth.
Plaque is best removed through regular brushing and flossing, as well as regular dental cleanings. It is important to choose a toothpaste that contains fluoride, which helps to strengthen tooth enamel and prevent cavities. Additionally, some toothpastes may contain ingredients such as triclosan or hydrogen peroxide, which can help to reduce plaque and prevent gum disease. It is always best to consult with your dentist to determine the best toothpaste for your individual needs.
False. A toothpaste with high abrasiveness is not recommended to remove plaque. Abrasive toothpastes can damage tooth enamel and gum tissue, leading to dental problems. Instead, choose a toothpaste with a moderate level of abrasiveness and fluoride to effectively remove plaque while protecting your teeth and gums. Additionally, proper brushing technique and regular dental check-ups are essential for maintaining good oral hygiene.
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Fat carried around the waist, or abdomen, is called ______ obesity.
Answer: Central
Explanation:
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