Answers
Life-threatening external bleeding demands your immediate attention, even before the airway has been managed. In emergency situations, it is crucial to prioritize interventions based on the severity and potential impact on the patient's survival. While maintaining a clear airway is essential, excessive blood loss can lead to shock, organ failure, and death.
Life-threatening external bleeding demands your immediate attention, even before the underlying cause has been managed. External bleeding occurs when blood vessels are damaged due to injury or trauma, and blood escapes from the body. This can result in significant blood loss, which can be fatal if not treated promptly.
Therefore, it is crucial to control bleeding as soon as possible to prevent further harm. The first step in managing external bleeding is to apply pressure to the wound using a clean cloth or bandage. This will help to stem the flow of blood and reduce the risk of further blood loss. If the bleeding is severe or does not stop with pressure, seek emergency medical attention immediately. Remember, any delay in managing life-threatening external bleeding can be fatal. Always take bleeding seriously, and act quickly to protect yourself or the person in need.
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Related Questions
which type of plan would be most appropriate for an individual on medicare and is concerned
Answers
The most thorough coverage is provided by Medicare Supplement Plan F. To begin with, it offers all of the advantages of the Medicare Supplement Plans A, B, and C.
To begin with, it offers all of the advantages of the Medicare Supplement Plans A, B, and C. In addition, Plan F covers skilled nursing facility care, Medicare Part A and B deductibles, and emergency medical assistance for overseas travelers. Instead, your Medicare Part D Prescription Drug plan provides coverage for your medications. Plan F wouldn't cover your pharmaceutical costs because it only pays secondary to Original Medicare and not Medicare Part D. Any Medicare patient who qualified for Medicare before January 1, 2020, may sign up for Plan F.
The complete question is :
Which type of plan would be most appropriate for an individual on Medicare and concerned that Medicare will NOT pay for charges exceeding the approved amount?
Medical
Long term care
Medicare supplement Plan F
Comprehensive major medical
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The intensive care unit nurse would expect pulmonary artery (PA) catheter monitoring to be used with a patient in which situation? Cannot tolerate hemodynamic monitoring Requires a peripheral intravenous catheter for vasoactive medication administration ONeeds a central catheter for total parenteral nutrition Requires evaluation of left ventricular pressures each shift.
Answers
The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse would expect pulmonary artery (PA) catheter monitoring to be used with a patient in a situation that requires evaluation of left ventricular pressures each shift.
PA catheter monitoring, also known as Swan-Ganz catheterization, is commonly utilized in critical care settings to assess various hemodynamic parameters. It involves inserting a catheter into the pulmonary artery to measure pressures within the heart chambers.
While there are multiple indications for PA catheter monitoring, the specific situation mentioned in the question pertains to the evaluation of left ventricular pressures. This monitoring allows healthcare providers to assess the function of the left ventricle, such as monitoring for signs of cardiac decompensation or evaluating response to therapy in patients with heart failure or other cardiac conditions. By assessing left ventricular pressures regularly, healthcare providers can make informed decisions regarding patient management and adjust treatment strategies as needed.
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Kayla Christianson, CMA, has been employed six years by the cardiology practice of three physicians. She is a graduate of a CAAHEP-accredited school. Furthermore, Kayla received extensive hands-on training performing ECGs while doing her required externship. Kayla has completed an ECG ordered by Dr. Hsu for Mrs. Warner, a 76-year- old patient. Dr. Hsu, Kayla's boss, telephoned her explaining that he was behind schedule doing rounds at the hospital. He asked her to do him a favor and interpret Mrs. Warner's ECG, sign his name, and fax the report to Mrs. Warner's referring internist, who is expecting the results. W. Given the scope of Kayla's education, training, and years of experience as a CMA, would this "favor" fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities? 2. Would any portion of Dr. Hsu's request fall within the guidelines? If so, which portion(s)? Is an exception to these guidelines ever allowed? 3. How should Kayla respond to Dr. Hsu?
Answers
Based on the information given, it can be inferred that the favor doesn't fall within the AAMA guidelines of her responsibilities.
From the information given, it should be noted that the guidelines of CMA as stipulated under the American Association of Medical Assistant prohibits the CMA from interpreting the medical data of the patient. Therefore, the favor that was asked by Dr. Hsu of Kayla is simply against the guidelines.
Even though the favor that was asked by Dr. Hsu was prohibited by AAMA, it should be noted that the final part of the favor about faxing the report to the internist would fall within AAMA guidelines.
In conclusion, the best way that Kayla can respond to Dr. Hsu is to decline doing the favor.
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the pharynx starts at the uvula and ends at the esophagus. t/f
Answers
True the pharynx starts at the uvula and ends at the esophagus.
The pharynx is a muscular tube that starts at the back of the nose and ends at the esophagus. The uvula is a small, fleshy projection at the back of the throat, which marks the beginning of the pharynx. Therefore, it is true that the pharynx starts at the uvula and ends at the esophagus.
The pharynx is an important part of the digestive and respiratory systems. It serves as a passageway for food, liquids, and air to move from the mouth to the esophagus and lungs, respectively. The pharynx is divided into three parts: the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx. The nasopharynx is located behind the nose and is responsible for the passage of air. The oropharynx is located behind the mouth and is responsible for the passage of food and liquid. The laryngopharynx is located at the bottom of the pharynx and leads to the esophagus and trachea.
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Instructions:
Complete a drug card for drugs listed for numbers 1-10 on the attached Top Drug list. For additional information on how to obtain information for drug card completion, refer to your Gauwitz text, Chapter 1 and pages 8-9. To obtain information about specific drugs, you can use a PDR, Internet resources, or pocket drug handbooks. Each drug card is worth 5 points. If any of the ten cards due with this assignment are not completed, there will be a deduction of 5 points for each one.
Answers
Answer:I’m trying to get to the websit we’re the drug cards are
Explanation:I mean the website
camphina bacote model of culturally competent care encourages health care providers to
Answers
The Campinha-Bacote model emphasizes the importance of developing cultural competence in healthcare delivery to improve patient outcomes and satisfaction.
What is Campinha-Bacote?
The Campinha-Bacote Model of Culturally Competent Care is a framework that emphasizes the importance of understanding and respecting patients' cultural backgrounds, values, and beliefs in healthcare delivery. It encourages healthcare providers to:
Understand the patient's cultural worldview: This involves understanding the patient's beliefs, values, and practices related to health and illness. Providers should also consider the patient's language, religion, customs, and social norms.
Identify potential cultural barriers: Providers should be aware of any cultural barriers that may prevent effective communication and treatment, such as language barriers or differing health beliefs.
Use culturally sensitive communication: Providers should use culturally appropriate communication styles and language, such as avoiding medical jargon and using interpreters if necessary.
Adapt to cultural differences: Providers should adapt their practices to accommodate the patient's cultural preferences, such as dietary restrictions or the use of traditional remedies.
Incorporate cultural knowledge into healthcare delivery: Providers should integrate cultural knowledge into their healthcare delivery practices, such as understanding the impact of cultural beliefs on health-seeking behaviors.
Overall, the Campinha-Bacote model emphasizes the importance of developing cultural competence in healthcare delivery to improve patient outcomes and satisfaction.
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A 15-year-old adolescent who has type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the pediatric intensive care unit in ketoacidosis with a blood glucose level of 170 mg/dl (9. 4 mmol/l). The adolescent has a history of fluctuating blood glucose readings and difficulty adhering to the therapeutic regimen. A continuous insulin infusion is started. What adverse reaction to the infusion is most important for the nurse to monitor?
Answers
Answer:
Hypokalemia
Explanation:
After insulin treatment is initiated, potassium shifts intracellularly and serum levels decline. Replacement of potassium in intravenous fluids is the standard of care in treatment of DKA to prevent the potential consequences of hypokalemia including cardiac arrhythmias and respiratory failure.
what is tiling of soil and why it is important
Answers
A box of pseudoephedrine contains 10 tablets with a strength of 120 per tablet. How many boxes may a patient purchase in a 30 day period If purchasing from a retail pharmacy ?
Answers
Answer:
3 boxes.
Explanation:
30/10= 3
Answer:
C
Explanation:
hope this helps :D
1. Describe the major bones and bony landmarks of the human skeleton.
Answers
Answer:
An example of a bony landmark is the head of the humerus and femur. These heads make up ball and socket joints of the shoulder and hip Hard surface forms are also known as bony landmarks—parts of bones (ridges, bumps, depressions) that are positioned close to the skin, creating visual landmarks on the surface form
Explanation:yw
Doctor determined that Caie had an inflammation of the blood veel. What term did Caey' doctor ue to decribe hi condition
Answers
Vasculitis is the inflammation of the blood vessels.
according to this module, a high risk biohazard exposures including those that involve bloodborne pathogens should be evaluated by a healthcare professional in which time frame?
Answers
The answer is within two hours or as soon as possible after the exposure.
What is High risk biohazard exposure ?
The possibility of catching a disease in result to exposure to biohazards.
The maximum (highest) level of containment is BSL-4, and the other three levels are BSL-1, BSL-2, and BSL-3. Agricultural research (BSL-Ag), animal research (ABSL), and other types of research all have their own unique regulations and designations.
Why should high risk biohazard exposure be evaluated ?
This should be evaluated to minimize the risks and provide safe work environment to a healthcare professional.
Therefore, a high risk biohazard exposures including those that involve bloodborne pathogens should be evaluated by a healthcare professional should be performed within two hours or as soon as possible after the exposure.
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while assessing an older adult client, the nurse detects a bruit over the right carotid artery. what method of examination was used by the nurse to identify bruit?
Answers
Examination method for bruit identification is thyroid auscultation
What are bruits?Bruits are sounds that occur in blood vessels due to turbulence, possibly due to plaque buildup or damage to blood vessels.
Plaque is a mixture of fat, calcium, cholesterol and other waste products from body cells (yellow color in the image above). This mixture can then stick to the walls of the arteries so that the blood vessels become clogged and narrow, even if they are closed for a long time.
High blood pressure, high cholesterol, diabetes and obesity are the causes of plaque buildup in blood vessels. Bruit examination can be done by auscultation of the thyroid method.
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Which age group discussed in Chapter 5 have you communicated with the most?
Describe two communication techniques in Chapter 5 you can apply when communicating with this age group.
Explain the therapeutic responses the medical professionals used in the case study from the textbook about the age group you chose.
Answers
The communication techniques that are important when communicating with adults include seeking clarifications and listening.
What is communication?It should be noted that communication simply means the exchange of information from a sender to a receiver through a medium.
The communication techniques that can be used to communicate with the age group include giving recognition, listening, seeking clarifications, etc.
Therapeutic responses are described as to the actions and interventions undertaken by medical professionals in order to promote healing, alleviate symptoms, and improve the overall well-being of their patients and includes:
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.Patient suffering from cirrhosis of the liver presents with a history of coffee ground emesis. The surgeon diagnoses the patient with esophageal varices. Two days later, in the hospital Gl lab, the surgeon ligates the varices with bands via an UGl endoscopy. What ept and ICD - 10 -CM codes are reported?
Answers
look at the image.
What are the drivers of the healthcare industry's focus on patient satisfaction and on employing resources in an effective manner? Discuss various patient satisfaction evaluation tools, how they affect funding, and physician salaries. Discuss CMS's value on patient satisfaction and how it affects reimbursement. Summarize succinctly in a conclusion/summary paragraph.
Answers
Patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive.
The healthcare industry focuses on patient satisfaction and employing resources in an efficient manner to provide high-quality care and improve patient outcomes. The following are the drivers of this focus:
Changing Payment Models: Healthcare providers' reimbursement is increasingly tied to quality and patient satisfaction scores. This motivates providers to focus on improving patient satisfaction to maintain financial stability.Competition: Healthcare organizations must compete with one another to attract patients and maintain market share. Patients are more likely to choose providers who have a reputation for providing high-quality care and positive patient experiences.Patient-Centred Care: The healthcare industry is shifting towards a more patient-centred approach to care, which requires providers to focus on the individual needs and preferences of their patients. This approach involves involving patients in decision-making, providing education and support, and fostering trust and communication.Various patient satisfaction evaluation tools include surveys, focus groups, and direct feedback from patients. These tools allow healthcare organizations to gather data on patients' experiences and identify areas for improvement. The data is used to guide quality improvement initiatives, staff training, and resource allocation decisions.
Positive patient satisfaction scores may attract additional funding from investors or donors. Additionally, physicians with high patient satisfaction scores may receive bonuses or salary increases.
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ties reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores. CMS has implemented the Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) survey, which measures patients' perceptions of their hospital experience. Hospitals must meet specific benchmarks to receive full reimbursement from Medicare. Therefore, organizations that perform poorly on the HCAHPS survey may receive lower reimbursement rates, which can impact their financial stability.
In conclusion, patient satisfaction is a key driver of quality care in the healthcare industry. Healthcare organizations must utilize various evaluation tools to measure and improve patient satisfaction scores to maintain financial stability and remain competitive. Additionally, CMS has implemented programs that tie reimbursement to patient satisfaction scores, which further incentivizes healthcare organizations to prioritize patient satisfaction.
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Pulmonary circulation is the key component that supports both respiratory and cardiovascular systems. Examine this diagram of a human heart as seen while looking at the front of the body. A diagram showing the heart with labels A through D. A is above the heart. B is on the left side of the heart. C is on the right side of the heart. D is below the heart. Which correctly identifies where the blood is flowing to and from? A: lower body, B: left lung, C: right lung, D: upper body A: upper body, B: right lung, C: left lung, D: lower body A: right lung, B: upper body, C: lower body, D: left lung A: left lung, B: lower body, C: upper body, D: right lung Mark this and return
Answers
Answer:
where is the diagram????????
Answer: The 3rd Option
aka Answer Choice- A: right lung, B: upper body, C: lower body, D: left lung
Jason studies Spanish for three years, and then switches to Pashto. When asked to remember Spanish vocabulary he can’t, instead he can only remember Pashto vocabulary. This is an example of ________ interference.
active
inactive
proactive
retroactive
Answers
Answer:
Inactive
Explanation:
he was not active in spanish
Cora, the hospital president, typically sends out new directives every other month with policies that she wants implemented. Terrence, the floor manager of the hospital, lets his team plan and make decisions for the department. Which describes each person's management style? The hospital president shows hands-off leadership, and the floor manager shows participatory management. O The hospital president shows authoritative leadership, and the floor manager shows hands-off management. The hospital president shows participatory leadership, and the floor manager shows authoritative management. O The hospital president shows authoritative leadership, and the floor manager shows participatory management.
Answers
Answer:
a
Explanation:
Answer: The answer is D
Explanation:
An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 ml of D5W, infusing at a rate of 30 mcg/min, is prescribed for a
client in premature labor. How many ml/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump?
Answers
Answer:
An IV infusion terbutaline sulfate 5 mg in 500 ml of D5W, infusing at a rate of 30 mcg/min, is prescribed for a
client in premature labor.
Explanation:
hope its help :>
180 ml/hr is calculated as follows: 500 ml/5 mg, 1 mg/1000 mcg, 30 mcg/min, and 60 min/hr, nurse set the infusion pump.
What is premature labor?Only women who are in a hospital should receive terbutaline injections, which should not be used to treat preterm labor for more than 48 to 72 hours.
When terbutaline was utilized, for this reason, pregnant women who took the medicine experienced severe negative effects, including death.
Therefore, a drug called terbutaline is used to put off premature labor. It belongs to a group of medications called betamimetics that aid in preventing and reducing uterine contractions, 30 mcg/min, and 60 min/hr, the nurse set the infusion pump.
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Corporate compliance programs help an organization: (Click on all that apply).
Prevent violations of the law
Detect violations of the law
O Correct violations of the law
O Retaliate against reporters
Answers
Answer: Correct violation of the law
The nurse completes the initial assessment of a newborn. Which finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the newborn is experiencing difficulty with oxygenation
Answers
Nasal flaring is a sign of respiratory difficulty in the newborn. finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the newborn is experiencing difficulty with oxygenation
When you breathe, your nostrils may flare up slightly. It can be an indication that you're experiencing trouble breathing. Children and infants are most frequently affected by it. It could be a sign of respiratory discomfort in some situations.
Why do my Nasal flaring up?
There are several reasons that can lead to nasal flaring, from short-term diseases to chronic ailments and accidents. It could also be a result of strenuous exercise. Nasal flare-ups are not normal when breathing comfortably.
infection from bacteria and viruses
If you have a serious infection, like the flu, you might see your nostrils flare. People with severe respiratory illnesses like pneumonia and bronchiolitis are the ones who experience it the most frequently.
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Imaging studies of people with anxiety disorders show increased baseline activity in:Select one:a. the cingulate cortex.b. the amygdala.c. the septum.d. the hypothalamus
Answers
Imaging studies of people with anxiety disorders show increased baseline activity in the amygdala.
The amygdala is a key structure within the brain that plays a crucial role in processing emotions, particularly fear and anxiety. It is responsible for recognizing and responding to potential threats or danger in the environment. Studies have consistently shown that individuals with anxiety disorders exhibit heightened activity in the amygdala even during resting or baseline conditions.
1. Role of the amygdala: The amygdala is involved in the emotional processing and regulation of fear and anxiety responses. It receives input from sensory areas and evaluates the emotional significance of incoming stimuli. In individuals with anxiety disorders, the amygdala tends to be overactive, leading to an exaggerated response to perceived threats and an increased experience of anxiety.
2. Functional neuroimaging studies: Techniques such as functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) have allowed researchers to observe brain activity in individuals with anxiety disorders. These studies consistently show increased baseline activity or hyperactivation in the amygdala of individuals with anxiety disorders compared to those without.
3. Fear conditioning and anxiety response: The amygdala is also involved in fear conditioning, where a neutral stimulus becomes associated with fear through repeated pairings with an aversive stimulus. In anxiety disorders, this fear conditioning process may be dysregulated, leading to an exaggerated and persistent fear response. The increased baseline activity in the amygdala may contribute to this heightened fear response.
4. Connectivity with other brain regions: The amygdala is connected to various brain regions involved in emotion regulation, including the prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, and cingulate cortex. Dysfunction in these connections may contribute to the development and maintenance of anxiety disorders.
In summary, increased baseline activity in the amygdala is observed in individuals with anxiety disorders. This hyperactivity in the amygdala reflects the heightened sensitivity to potential threats and contributes to the experience of anxiety symptoms. Understanding the role of the amygdala in anxiety disorders can inform the development of targeted interventions and treatments for individuals experiencing excessive and persistent anxiety.
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preindopril mechanism of action ?
Answers
Answer:
inhibition of ACE activity.
Explanation:
The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.
Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).
Collect Information as you read and formulate a plan for how you would address an adolescent sexual assault victim as a forensic nurse. Create a theoretical scenarlo in which you are a forensic nurse who is caring for an adolescent patient accompanied by their parent. The adolescent is a victim of sexual assault. Formulate a transcript of your conversation with the patient and the patient's parent, Introducing yourself as a forensic nurse, asking for cooperation and consent to treat the patient, and explaining the reason for collecting the information that you are seeking.
Answers
Answer:
The response is on the explanation side. If this helps you, give me 5 stars please :)
Explanation:
Part 1:
As a forensic nurse, my first priority when addressing an adolescent sexual assault victim would be to ensure their safety and well-being. This would include assessing any physical injuries and providing appropriate medical treatment, as well as addressing any psychological trauma that the patient may be experiencing.
To approach the situation with sensitivity and professionalism, I would follow a set of guidelines that are commonly used in forensic nursing practice, such as those developed by the International Association of Forensic Nurses (IAFN). These guidelines emphasize the importance of providing patient-centered care, respecting the patient's autonomy and privacy, and ensuring that the patient's physical and emotional needs are met.
In addition, I would take steps to ensure that the patient feels comfortable and supported throughout the process of receiving care. This could include providing a private and safe environment for the patient to speak with me, using age-appropriate language and techniques to communicate with the patient, and involving the patient in decisions about their care to the extent possible.
Part 2:
The following is a theoretical scenario in which I am a forensic nurse caring for an adolescent patient accompanied by their parent. The adolescent is a victim of sexual assault. The transcript below outlines my conversation with the patient and the patient's parent:
Forensic Nurse: Hello, my name is [Name] and I'm a forensic nurse. I'm here to provide you with medical care and support after your recent experience.
Patient: Hi, thank you.
Forensic Nurse: Before we begin, I want to let you know that everything you tell me is confidential. However, I will need to report some information to the police, as required by law. I will explain everything to you in more detail as we go along.
Parent: Thank you for taking care of my child. I appreciate it.
Forensic Nurse: Of course, my pleasure. Can you tell me your name, please?
Patient: [Name]
Forensic Nurse: [Name], can you tell me what happened to you?
Patient: [Describes the sexual assault]
Forensic Nurse: I'm sorry that happened to you. You are very brave for coming here today. I need to examine you to make sure you're okay physically. You can choose to have your parent with you or not during the exam. What would you prefer?
Patient: I want my parent with me.
Forensic Nurse: That's perfectly fine. I will need to ask your parent to step out of the room for a few moments while I speak with you privately. Is that okay?
Parent: Sure.
Forensic Nurse: [To the patient] Thank you for sharing with me. I want to let you know that what happened is not your fault. You are not alone, and we will get through this together. Now, let's talk about what the exam will involve so that you know what to expect.
[The exam proceeds, with the nurse explaining each step to the patient and ensuring that the patient is comfortable throughout.]
Forensic Nurse: [To the patient and parent] Based on my examination, there is evidence that a sexual assault occurred. I will need to take some samples for testing and document my findings. Is there anything else you would like to tell me before we move forward?
Patient: No, I don't think so.
Forensic Nurse: Okay, I will provide you with resources for ongoing care and support, and I will follow up with you in a few days to check in and answer any questions you may have
During which stage of syphilis is the patient non-infectious and why? a.The tertiary stage is because of hypersensitivity reaction b.A person with syphilis is always infectious. c.Second stage because the patient is not contagious d.First stage because the patient is not contageous e.Early latent
Answers
Answer:
a.The tertiary stage is because of hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:
a drug abuser can experience the effects of cocaine for the longest period of time if he or she takes the drug _____.
Answers
A drug abuser can experience the effects of cocaine for the longest period of time if he or she takes the drug By injecting cocaine intravenously.
Injecting cocaine intravenously provides the drug abuser with the longest duration of the drug's effects. When cocaine is injected directly into the bloodstream, it rapidly reaches the brain, resulting in an intense and immediate high. The effects of cocaine typically peak within minutes and can last for an extended period.
Compared to other routes of administration, such as smoking or snorting, intravenous injection delivers the drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing the slower absorption process through the lungs or nasal membranes. This direct delivery allows for a more potent and prolonged effect.
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What is the major difference between dissociative amnesia and retrograde amnesia.
Answers
The major difference between dissociative amnesia and retrograde amnesia is the cause and type of information that is forgotten.
What is amnesia?This is a disease or condition in which it is difficult for patients to remember specific information.
What is dissociative amnesia?This type of amnesia implies patients cannot remember relevant information such as one's name, one's location, specific events or feelings.
This is often caused due to traumatic events or stress.
What is retrograde amnesia?This type of amnesia implies patients cannot remember information from their past. This means patients can remember the events that are happening today, but not the ones yesterday, last year, etc.
This is often caused by brain injury or diseases such as Alzheimer's disease or a cardiac arrest.
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You have been performing multiple-provider CPR on a
patient in cardiac arrest. The patient is now showing signs of return
of spontaneous circulation (ROSC). Which action(s) would the team
perform?
Select all correct options that apply.
Continue compressions for another minute.
Stop CPR
Check for breathing and pulse.
Give 2 ventilations
Remove the AED pads.
Answers
Answer:
they would preform a miracle
Explanation:
Answer:stop CPR/AED.
Check for breathing and carotid or femoral pulse.
Monitor the patient until the advanced cardiac life support team takes over.
Explanation:
All these are what you should do.
Three days after delivering her baby a 30 year old woman complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect?
Pulmonary embolism
Answers
The answer is Pulmonary Embolism.
A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that blocks and stops blood flow to an artery in the lung. In most cases, the blood clot starts in a deep vein in the leg and travels to the lung. Rarely, the clot forms in a vein in another part of the body. When a blood clot forms in one or more of the deep veins in the body, it's called a deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Because one or more clots block blood flow to the lungs, pulmonary embolism can be life-threatening. However, prompt treatment greatly reduces the risk of death. Taking measures to prevent blood clots in your legs will help protect you against pulmonary embolism.
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