Answer:
are you asking if this statement is true or false because if so it’s true that enzymes are natures catalysts
Answer: I think this might be a true or false question.. if so, then its true.
But you also said that you were looking for the cause, so I'll give that as well. Liver diseases, medical conditions, medications and infections can cause elevated liver enzymes. Elevated liver enzymes often indicate inflammation or damage to cells in the liver.
justify measure for covid prevention as per international health
laws
The World Health Organization (WHO) guidelines on COVID-19 prevention are an international benchmark. The guidelines promote hand and respiratory hygiene, social distancing, and wearing of masks as primary preventative measures.
To ensure proper hand hygiene, people should wash their hands regularly with soap and water or use an alcohol-based sanitizer. On the respiratory hygiene front, everyone should practice good etiquette; that is, coughing and sneezing in the elbow or tissue and discarding tissue immediately. Social distancing is also advised for avoiding mass contact, with the physical distance between two persons kept at least one meter.
Moreover, masks should be worn in public places, especially when physical distancing cannot be maintained. In addition, the WHO advises absolute quarantine if someone is tested positive for the infection and regular sanitization of surfaces and objects that multiple people use.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line. When assessing the client, the nurse notes that the client's arm seems swollen above the PICC insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?A. Measure the circumference of both upper arms.B. Notify the provider who inserted the PICC line.C. Remove the PICC line.D. Apply a cold pack to the client's upper arm.
The actions that the nurse should take first is to measure the circumference of both upper arms. That is option A.
What is total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is defined as the process by which an individual that is incapable of taking in food through the mouth into the gastrointestinal tract is fed through a parenteral route.
The total parenteral nutrition (TPN) must include the following to provide an adequate diet for the affected individual:
protein, carbohydrates (in the form of glucose), glucose, fat, vitamins, and minerals.One of the ways to achieve the total parenteral nutrition is feeding through the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line.
It is one of the responsibility of a nurse in duty to monitor the insertion site of the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line.
If the site is swollen, the first action the nurse should take is to measure the circumference of both upper arms.
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Identifying Customer Service Tasks
According to O*NET, which Pharmacy Technicians tasks require customer service skills?
a. receiving written prescriptions or refilling requests and verifying customer service skills?
b. establishing or maintaining patient profiles, including lists of medications taken by individual patients.
c. maintaining proper storage and security conditions for drugs.
d. answering telephones and responding to questions or requests.
e. prepackaging bulk medicines, filling bottles with prescribed medications and typing and affixing labels.
f. mixing pharmaceutical preparations according to written prescriptions.
Answer:
B. Establishing or maintaining patient profiles, including lists of medications taken by individual patients.
D. Answering telephones and responding to questions and requests.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Which best explains why a person who has uncontrolled diabetes mellitus voids a large amount of urine
Answer:
Excess glucose "spills over" into urine, thereby increasing the solute concentration of urine (and decreasing the solute concentration of plasma), which in turn leads to diuresis
Explanation:
6. Mark's insurance pays 100% of physician visits after a deductible of $250. Mark has already paid $100
of the deductible. The next time Mark visits his physician, the physician charges $125. How much is
Mark responsible for paying?
A. "$100"
B. "$125"
C. "$250"
D. "$0"
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Deductible is 250.00
VISIT 100.00
Leaves 150.00 before deductible is met so he must pay the whole amount of 125.00
Answer:
125
Explanation:
Insurance only pays full amount after he pays deductible of 250, since he hasn't paid the full amount the insurance won't cover it.
What are the differences between Exogenous, Systemic, and Health Care-Associated infections?
Exogenous infections are caused by pathogens acquired from the external environment, while systemic infections spread throughout the entire body. Healthcare-associated infections are acquired in medical settings, such as hospitals, due to exposure to pathogens during treatment or procedures.
Exogenous, systemic, and healthcare-associated infections are distinct categories based on different factors and contexts.
Exogenous infections: Exogenous infections originate from external sources. They are caused by pathogens that enter the body from the environment or other individuals.
Common examples include respiratory infections transmitted through the air, foodborne illnesses, or infections acquired through contact with contaminated surfaces. Exogenous infections typically occur when the immune system fails to prevent the entry or proliferation of pathogens.
Systemic infections: Systemic infections are characterized by the spread of pathogens throughout the body via the bloodstream or lymphatic system. These infections can affect multiple organs and tissues, leading to severe illness.
Examples include sepsis, where bacteria or fungi cause a systemic inflammatory response, and viral infections like HIV or influenza that can disseminate widely. Systemic infections often pose a greater risk to overall health and can result in life-threatening complications.
Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs): HAIs occur in healthcare settings, such as hospitals, clinics, or long-term care facilities. These infections are specifically linked to receiving medical care and can be caused by healthcare procedures, contaminated equipment, or exposure to healthcare personnel or other patients with infectious agents.
HAIs can include surgical site infections, urinary tract infections, bloodstream infections, and pneumonia contracted during hospital stays. Preventing HAIs is a critical focus in healthcare to minimize patient risk and ensure safety.
In summary, exogenous infections originate from external sources, systemic infections spread throughout the body, and healthcare-associated infections occur in healthcare settings as a result of medical care. Understanding these distinctions helps in identifying the sources, routes of transmission, and appropriate prevention strategies for each type of infection.
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A physician assistant orders 0.7 mg of digoxin to be injected in office. If you have 350mcg/mL on hand, how many mL would you inject?
Which hormone would Amy’s doctor use to treat inflammation?
Amy is suffering from joint pain and inflammation. Her doctor prescribes a(n) ___ which is a type of hormone with anti-inflammatory action.
Answer:
Cortisol
Explanation:
Observations of the developing chick embryo reveal that skeletal muscles develop from the transplanted somites even though motor neurons innervating those muscles arise from chick neural crest cells. Based on these observations, what is MOST likely true
The statement “Neural crest cells send projections into developing somites” is true because originates in the neural tube during early embryonic development, and migrates extensively throughout the embryo, option D is correct.
During their migration, neural crest cells send projections called "neurites" into the developing somites, which are segmented blocks of mesoderm that give rise to muscle, bone, and connective tissue. These neurites establish important connections with the somitic cells and contribute to the formation of various structures, such as the peripheral nervous system, craniofacial skeleton, and pigment cells.
Thus, the presence of neural crest cell projections within the developing somites highlights their crucial role in the development and patterning of diverse tissues in the embryo, option D is correct.
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The complete question is:
Observations of the developing chick embryo reveal that skeletal muscles develop from the transplanted somites even though motor neurons innervating those muscles arise from chick neural crest cells. Based on these observations, what is MOST likely true?
A. Neural crest cells differentiate into somites.
B. Neural crest cells fuse with developing somite cells.
C. Neural crest cells develop from migrating somite cells.
D. Neural crest cells send projections into developing somites.
Question 20 of 69
Time Remaining
40:32
A patient presents after an intentional overdose of propranolol approximately 2 hours ago. The patient has severe hypotension and bradycardia. IV
fluids and vasopressors are initiated. What nursing assessment findings indicate the treatment has been effective?
An intentional overdose of propranolol can cause severe damage to the patient such as severe hypotension and bradycardia, so that after the procedures we can make a nursing assessment indicating that the treatment was effective, we need to know that.....
Overdose of Propranolol
Symptoms of overdose may include
BradycardiaHypotensionAcute heart failure and bronchospasm.Bronchospasm can normally be reversed by bronchodilators such as salbutamol. Larger doses may be required and should be titrated to clinical response.
General treatment should include:
Careful monitoringTreatment in an intensive care unitUse of gastric lavageActivated charcoalA laxative to prevent absorption of any drug still present in the gastrointestinal tract,Use of plasma or plasma substitutes to treat hypotension and shock.BradycardiaBradycardia is irregular or slow heart rhythm, usually less than 60 beats per minute. At this rate, the heart cannot pump enough oxygen-rich blood to your body during activity or exercise.
With this information, we can say that it is necessary for the nurse to see if the heart rate is higher. If damage to the heart's electrical system is causing the heart to beat slowly, the patient may need an implantable cardiac device called a pacemaker.
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Which action would be most appropriate when evaluating a client's neck for thyroid enlargement?
A-inspect changes in pigmentation in the neck.
B-Perform repeated palpation of the thyroid gland.
C-Palpate the thyroid gland gently.
D-examine the skin of the neck for excessive oiliness.
Option C is Correct. Palpate the thyroid gland gently. When evaluating a client's neck for thyroid enlargement, the most appropriate action would be to palpate the thyroid gland gently.
This can help identify any enlargement or abnormalities in the gland. Inspecting changes in pigmentation, examining the skin for excessive oiliness, or performing repeated palpation may not provide accurate information regarding the thyroid gland. It's important to approach the evaluation with a gentle touch to ensure the client's comfort and safety.
Two lateral lobes of the thyroid gland are joined by an isthmus.Two lateral lobes of the thyroid gland are joined by an isthmus. A third lobe that rises from the isthmus or one of the two lobes is present in about one-third of the population.The anatomy-related language. Although, when used alone, the word cervix most frequently refers to the uterine cervix, the neck of the uterus, the Latin names cervix or collum are also used to refer to the neck in anatomy. The thyroid gland is made up of two lateral lobes that are joined together by an isthmus.
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Dr. Jones has a permit to perform CLIA-waived tests in his medical office. What is meant by a CLIA-waived test?
It is a simple test with low risk of incorrect results :)
____ penicillin kills bacteria was discovered in 1928 by Alexander Fleming.
a.what
b.that
c.who
d.which
e.when
your patient has verrucae on their fingers. the appearance of this condition can be described as
The appearance of verrucae on fingers is described as small, rough, raised lesions with a cauliflower-like appearance and varying in color from flesh-colored to slightly darker.
Verrucae on the fingers present as small, rough-textured bumps that protrude above the skin surface. They often have an irregular shape and can resemble the appearance of a cauliflower. The surface of verrucae may be rough and may have tiny black dots known as thrombosed capillaries. The color of verrucae can range from flesh-colored to slightly darker than the surrounding skin. These characteristics help differentiate them from other skin conditions. It's important to note that verrucae are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and are contagious, so proper treatment and precautions should be followed to prevent their spread.
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Why are people encouraged to get a flu shot?
A A flu shot is a vaccine that prevents people from catching the flu.
B A flu shot is an antibiotic that kills bacteria in the human body.
с
A flu shot is an antiviral that slows down the multiplication of viru
in cells.
D
A flu shot is a chemical that kills parasites in the human body.
What potential causes of disease do you think either or both persons might have?
Nathan Zimmer lives in an area of northeastern Pennsylvania where hydraulic fracturing for natural gas has elevated methane gas levels in his drinking water.
Sandi Smith lives in rural western Nebraska working outdoors much of the time managing her wheat farm.
Answer:
Nathan Zimmer lives in Northeastern Pennsylvania which is an area with elevated methane gas levels in the drinking water. It is not toxic but highly explosive, however, a high concentration of methane gas level can lead to Asphyxiation. It is a condition that can cause death, in this person can not get enough amount of oxygen to lungs.
Sandi Smith lives in rural western Nebraska spends a long time on a wheat farm who can get allergic reactions due to dust from moldy hay, straw and grain. Pesticides and herbicides can result in chemical burns, respiratory illness, or poisoning.
Nathan Zimmer lives in an area of northeastern Pennsylvania where hydraulic fracturing for natural gas has elevated methane gas levels in his drinking water. Thus, option A is correct.
Where the Nathan Zimmer lives?Nathan Zimmer lives in Northeastern Pennsylvania which is an area with elevated methane gas levels in the drinking water. It is not toxic but highly explosive, however, a high concentration of methane gas level can lead to Asphyxiation. It is a condition that can cause death, in this person can not get enough amount of oxygen to lungs.
Sandi Smith lives in rural western Nebraska spends a long time on a wheat farm who can get allergic reactions due to dust from moldy hay, straw and grain. Pesticides and herbicides can result in chemical burns, respiratory illness, or poisoning.
Therefore, Nathan Zimmer lives in an area of northeastern Pennsylvania where hydraulic fracturing for natural gas has elevated methane gas levels in his drinking water. Thus, option A is correct.
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The pseudorables virus (PRV) has played an important role for veterinary scientists in the development of genetically
modified vaccines to help prevent diseases.
True
False
a client comes to the emergency room with all the symptoms of a myocardial infarction. which lab value, known to have a high specificity for myocardial tissue considered the primary biomarker test for diagnosing an mi, does the nurse suspect the physician will order?
The nurse suspect troponin test.
Myocardial infraction is commonly known as heart attack. The condition occurs by inhibition of blood flow which may arise due to atherosclerosis or plaque build up. Biomarker is a molecule present in body that changes to abnormal high or lew levels on development of medical condition.
Troponin protein is an important biomarker for myocardial infraction. The protein is released by the body to regulate muscle contraction.The protein is highly sensitive and specific thus it is the extremely reliable marker for the disease.
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Anurse is providing wound care and notes the wound drainage is thick and malodorous: How should the nurse document this type of exudate? A. Purosanguineous B. Serosanguineous C. Serous D. Purulent
The nurse should document the type of exudate as D. Purulent.
When documenting the type of wound drainage, the nurse should accurately describe its appearance and character. In this case, the nurse notes that the wound drainage is thick and malodorous. Based on these characteristics, the nurse should document the type of exudate as Purulent.
Serosanguineous exudate, on the other hand, is thin and pinkish in color due to the presence of small amounts of blood in the exudate. Serous exudate is thin and clear, and commonly seen in wounds that are healing without complication. Purosanguineous exudate is bright red and indicates active bleeding.
Serosanguineous, serous, and purosanguineous types of wound drainage do not match the characteristics described by the nurse in this case. Therefore, the correct answer is Purulent.
Therefore, the correct option is D. Purulent.
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Body weight that greatly exceeds the recommended guidelines as indicated by a BMI of 30 is defined as
Answer:
obese - moderate
Explanation:
what is best way to avoid e coli
Answer:
Thoroughly wash hands, counters, cutting boards, and utensils after they touch raw meat. Avoid raw milk, unpasteurized dairy products, and unpasteurized juices (such as fresh apple cider). Don't swallow water when swimming and when playing in lakes, ponds, streams, swimming pools, and backyard “kiddie” pools.
Explanation:
Topic Test
The rationale for twin studies is that twins do not normally develop under similar environments.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
a. T
b. F
Answer:
B. False
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
what 2 aspects of echocerdiography are more reproducible in 4d echo imaging over 2d
The two aspects of echocardiography that are more reproducible in 4D echo imaging over 2D are left ventricular volume and systolic function.
What is echocardiography?Echocardiography is a diagnostic technique that uses ultrasound echoing to measure the functioning of the heart.
The instrument used is called an echocardiogram and the results of an echocardiogram can be obtained in either 2D, 3D, or 4D.
2D echocardiography imaging only produces images
4D echocardiography produces live video feeds about the functioning of the heart.
Hence, results produced by 4D echocardiography are more accurate and reproducible.
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List for commonly used histology fixatives
Answer:
Phosphate buffered formalin
Formal calcium
Formal saline
Zinc formalin (unbuffered)
Zenker’s fixative
Helly’s fixative
B-5 fixative
Bouin’s solution
Hollande’s
Gendre’s solution
Clarke’s solution
Carnoy’s solution
Methacarn
Alcoholic formalin
Formol acetic alcohol
Explanation:s
Albuterol 1.2mg po TID is ordered for a child weighing 27 lbs. The package insert
states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided
doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL. Determine the following:
Is the dosage safe
Answer:
The package insert states the safe dose for children is no more than 0.3mg/kg/24 hours in 3 divided doses. Available is albuterol syrup 2mg/mL.
Explanation:
Read the case history and answer the question. Reason for Admission: Seizure episode The patient is a 76-year-old male brought to the ER following a tonic-clonic seizure episode. He remained unrespons
The patient's admission to the ER was due to a tonic-clonic seizure episode.
A 76-year-old male was brought to the emergency room (ER) after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure episode. During the seizure, the patient exhibited the characteristic symptoms of loss of consciousness, muscle rigidity (tonic phase), followed by rhythmic movements (clonic phase). Following the seizure, the patient remained unresponsive. This episode raised concerns regarding the underlying cause of the seizure and the patient's overall health.
Seizures can occur due to various factors, including underlying medical conditions, such as epilepsy, brain tumors, or infections, as well as external triggers like drug reactions or alcohol withdrawal. In older adults, seizures can also be associated with age-related changes in the brain, such as cerebrovascular disease or neurodegenerative disorders. Therefore, the medical team in the ER will likely perform a thorough evaluation to determine the underlying cause of the seizure episode.
The evaluation process may involve a detailed medical history review, physical examination, and diagnostic tests such as blood work, electroencephalogram (EEG), and neuroimaging studies (e.g., CT scan or MRI) to assess the brain's structure and function. Additionally, the medical team may consider conducting further investigations to rule out any potential systemic causes or medication-related side effects.
The ultimate goal of this assessment is to identify the specific cause of the seizure and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Depending on the findings, the patient may require antiepileptic medication, lifestyle modifications, or referral to a neurologist or other specialists for further management.
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The PACU is close to the surgical suites for ______ transfer of patients after surgery. postoperatively.
Answer: rapid
Explanation: hope this helps!
The PACU is close to the surgical suites for the rapid transfer of patients after surgery.
What is PACU?The Post Anesthesia Care Unit's mission is to make patients as comfortable as possible by managing their pain and preventing nausea. You will be attentively observed by a nurse who will check your vital signs throughout your stay in the PACU: Temperature.
Arterial pressure The post-anesthesia care unit is referred to as PACU. The stabilization of patients while undergoing continuing critical evaluation is the PACU's main goal.
The PACU nurse will transfer your family member to a hospital room or the Surgical Day Care (SDC) area once they have recovered from anesthesia. The patient's discharge from the PACU will be announced to the volunteer in the surgical waiting room, who will then let you know.
Therefore, for rapid patient transfers following surgery, the PACU is located close to the operating rooms.
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Label each situation listed as either:
Call First or Care First
Care First-- Any person who has experienced a non-fatal drowning.
Call First-- A witnessed sudden collapse of a child or infant.
Call First-- An unconscious adult person age 12 or older.
Care First-- An unwitnessed collapse of an unconscious person younger than 12 years old.
Call First-- An unconscious child or infant known to be at a high risk for heart problems.
Each situation correctly labeled "call first" or "care first":
Any person who has experienced a non-fatal drowning = CARE FIRSTA witnessed sudden collapse of a child or infant = CALL FIRST An unconscious adult person age 12 or older = CALL FIRSTAn unwitnessed collapse of an unconscious person younger than 12 years old = CARE FIRSTAn unconscious child or infant known to be at a high risk for heart problems = CALL FIRSTWhen faced with emergency situations, it is important to know whether to call for emergency medical services first or to provide care first. This can make a significant difference in the outcome of the situation.
As example: if a person has experienced a non-fatal drowning, it is crucial to provide care first to ensure they can breathe and receive proper medical attention. But if you witness a sudden collapse of a child or infant, it is important to call for emergency medical services first.
Knowing when to call for help first or provide care first can save a life.
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Which region of the body would a doctor most likely focus on while examining a patient for lung disease?
thoracic
pelvic
cephalic
appendicular
The answer fam is....... thoracic
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A client seeks care for hoarseness that has lasted for 1 month. To elicit the most appropriate information about this problem, the nurse should ask which question?
The nurse should ask the client, "Have you experienced any recent changes in your voice use or any throat pain or discomfort?" This question is the most appropriate to elicit information about the client's hoarseness.
Hoarseness, which is characterized by a change in the voice, can have many causes, such as an upper respiratory infection, allergies, reflux, smoking, or a more serious condition such as laryngeal cancer. By asking the client about any changes in voice use or any throat pain or discomfort, the nurse can determine if the hoarseness is related to a condition such as vocal strain or an infection, or if further evaluation is needed to rule out a more serious underlying condition.
Other questions that the nurse may ask to gather additional information about the client's hoarseness include asking about any associated symptoms, such as cough, fever, or difficulty breathing, as well as any relevant medical history or risk factors for laryngeal cancer, such as smoking or alcohol use.
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