du 4. Use an X for the nursing actions listed below that are Indicated (appropriate or necessary, Contraindicated (could be harmful) or Non-Essential (makes no difference or not necessary) for the client's care at this time. Only one selection can be made for each nursing action. Nursing Action Indicated Contraindicated Non-Essential Give AM meds as prescribed Perform a test for rebound tenderness Give toradol IM for phantom limb pain Place NGT to decompress x Call lab results to HCP Perform a through abdominal assessment x The client's breakfast tray is served. The client calls the nurse to the room because after eating sausage served on their tray, they state the pain to their abdomen is now a 9/10. They describe the pain as a burning, stabbing pain to their hypogastric area. The patient's breath has a foul odor and they state they are nauseated. The nurse calls the HCP. New orders received include lansoprazole 15 mg one PO daily, ondansetron 4 mg ODT 9 4 H, CBC and H. Pylori lab test. AM VS 100/70, P 100, R 18, T 98.4 F, 02 94%. The client is given pantoprazole and ondesetron. The client has a large black tarry stool. The client states their nausea is relieved, but their pain is still unchanged 5. Use an X (or drag and drop) to indicate which actions listed in the left column would be implemented. Actions Implemented Call the HCP about stool x Send stool for stool culture X Hold ASA and clopidigrel Place warm kpad to abdomen Perform FOBT on stool Order a high fiber diet к 6. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of actions. Which of the following findings indicate effectiveness? Select all that apply. Able to tolerate a bland diet. 2. Vomits once blood tinged material 3 H.Pylori test is negative 4. Verbalizes pain to abdomen of 8/10 5. BP 90/40, P 114, R 26, O2 sat 94% 6. Bowel sounds are hyperactive In all 4 quads 7. Pain stated as 2/10 to L BKA 3
Answers
Use an X for the nursing actions listed below that are Indicated (appropriate or necessary), Contraindicated (could be harmful), or Non-Essential (makes no difference or not necessary) for the client's care at this time.
Only one selection can be made for each nursing action. Nursing Action Indicated Contraindicated Non-Essential Give AM meds as prescribed X Perform a test for rebound tenderness X Give toradol IM for phantom limb pain X Place NGT to decompress Call lab results to HCP X Perform a through abdominal assessment The client's breakfast tray is served. The client calls the nurse to the room because after eating sausage served on their tray, they state the pain to their abdomen is now a 9/10. They describe the pain as a burning, stabbing pain to their hypogastric area.
The patient's breath has a foul odor and they state they are nauseated. The nurse calls the HCP. New orders received include lansoprazole 15 mg one PO daily, ondansetron 4 mg ODT 9 4 H, CBC and H. Pylori lab test. AM VS 100/70, P 100, R 18, T 98.4 F, 02 94%. The client is given pantoprazole and ondesetron. The client has a large black tarry stool. The client states their nausea is relieved, but their pain is still unchanged.5. Use an X (or drag and drop) to indicate which actions listed in the left column would be implemented.
Actions Implemented Call the HCP about stool X Send stool for stool culture X Hold ASA and clopidigrel Place warm kpad to abdomen Perform FOBT on stool Order a high fiber diet6. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of actions. 1. Able to tolerate a bland diet.2. Vomits once blood-tinged material3. H. Pylori test is negative4. Verbalizes pain to abdomen of 8/105. BP 90/40, P 114, R 26, O2 sat 94%6. Bowel sounds are hyperactive In all 4 quads7. Pain stated as 2/10 to L BKA Effective findings: Able to tolerate a bland diet and Pain stated as 2/10 to L BKA.
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Related Questions
Which of the following areas would have to be radiographed in order to demonstrate the sphenoid strut?
A. Base of the cranium
B. Sella turcica
C. Middle ear
D. Orbit
Answers
A. Base of the cranium would have to be radiographed in order to demonstrate the sphenoid strut.
The sphenoid strut is a thin bony plate located in the anterior portion of the sphenoid bone. It separates the sphenoid sinus from the posterior ethmoidal air cells and can be seen on a radiograph of the skull base.
Therefore, to demonstrate the sphenoid strut, the correct answer would be A. Base of the cranium. This is because the sphenoid bone is located at the base of the skull, and a radiograph of the skull base would be necessary to visualize the sphenoid strut. The sella turcica is a bony structure on the upper surface of the sphenoid bone, but it is not where the sphenoid strut is located. The middle ear and orbit are located in different parts of the skull and would not show the sphenoid strut.
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What drugs may be found in the front of a community pharmacy store?
Answers
Answer:
cigarettes
Explanation:
a patient with third degree heart block has a heart rate of 30 bpm and blood pressure 74/46 mmhg, reports dizziness and chest pain. which intervention should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
Answers
A patient with third degree heart block who has a heart rate of 30 bpm and blood pressure 74/46 mmhg, and reports dizziness and chest pain should anticipate that the nurse will prescribe a pacemaker.
A pacemaker is a small device that is placed under the skin of the chest or abdomen to help control abnormal heart rhythms. It uses electrical pulses to prompt the heart to beat at a normal rate.
Third degree heart block is a condition in which there is a complete blockage of electrical signals from the upper chambers of the heart to the lower chambers, resulting in a slower than normal heart rate. This can lead to symptoms such as dizziness, chest pain, and low blood pressure.
A pacemaker can help alleviate these symptoms by providing electrical impulses to the heart to maintain a normal heart rate and prevent episodes of slow heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate that a pacemaker will be prescribed for this patient.
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a 58-year-old female presents to the clinic with concern for chest pain over the past three months. she describes the pain as sharp and stabbing, in the mid-sternal region, lasting for one to two minutes, occurring a few times a day. the pain can come on at rest or with exertion and resolves on its own. it has not become worse since it began. there is no associated diaphoresis, shortness of breath, nausea, jaw pain, or pain with movement, eating, or laying supine. she has a 10-year history of obesity and hypertension for which she takes chlorthalidone and lisinopril. she was recently diagnosed with diabetes that has been controlled by diet. physical examination shows her pulse is 86 beats/minute, respiration rate is 16 breaths/minute, and blood pressure is 135/85 mmhg. her lungs are clear, heart sounds are normal, and there is no chest wall tenderness to palpation or abdominal tenderness. there is no peripheral edema. how would you best characterize her chest pain?
Answers
Answer:
Anxiety
Explanation:
Since there aren't any odd or unnatural events in the heart, and her diabetes and sicknesses are under control, the best guess would have to be anxiety. Also, another indicator is that this sharp pain comes on during any activity and goes away by themselves, I would believe this is anxiety.
Many people who are in favor of alternative medicine claim that large doses of vitamin C introduced into a vein speed up the healing of surgical wounds. Describe an experiment to test this hypothesis by answering questions 1-4
Answers
A study was submitted to the IRB designed to evaluate the effect of background noise on an individual’s ability to concentrate and answer questions. The IRB approved the study and consent form. The consent form includes all the required information. The use of a consent form is an example of the Belmont principle of:
Justice
Beneficence
Respect for persons
Answers
A study was submitted to the IRB designed to evaluate the effect of background noise on an individual’s ability to concentrate and answer questions, so the IRB approved the study and consent form, also the consent form includes all the required information and the use of a consent form is an example of the Belmont principle of Respect for persons.
Belmont principles are tips that promote the protection and use of ethics with research volunteers. In alternative words, these principles stipulate that researchers, once establishing analysis that wants the participation of kinsfolk, treat them with moral principles that promote their protection and safety, avoiding abuse and physical and psychological issues.
These principles are: Respect for persons, Beneficence and Justice. The principle Respect for persons is what promotes the requirement of researchers to use the consent type, that should be signed by the volunteers claiming that they settle for to participate within the analysis. additionally, this principle guarantees that volunteers won't be deceived and can be treated politely and respect.
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) All of the following are attributed to pasteur except :
a- Development of pasteurization process
b- Development of rabies vaccine
C- Disproval of biogenesis theory
d- Introduces the terms aerobic & anaerobic microbes
Answers
Define the term regulatory condition
Answers
Regulatory Conditions include the number of steps, the size of each step, and the shape of the staircase, just to name a few. Alongside this, the regulatory and non-regulatory conditions within the environmental context.
STEP BY STEP:
hope this helps. :)
The word stem -meter means instrument used to
The word stem electr(o) means
Answers
Answer:
Measure
Electricity
light
radiant energy
sound
Explanation:
There are many complaints that nutrition education is focused on what not to eat instead of what to eat. How does this confuse consumers?
Answers
ATI: Video Case Studies RN 2.0
Title : Client Advocacy
what is the topic about
personal thoughts, knowledge, or self-awareness
clinical experience
importance of professional growth in nursing
Questions you have about the topics
Answers
The video case study titled "Client Advocacy" in ATI: Video Case Studies RN 2.0 explores the topic of client advocacy in nursing.
The video case study on client advocacy highlights the crucial role of nurses in advocating for their clients. It addresses the importance of being aware of clients' rights, preferences, and needs while providing care. The topic explores how nurses can effectively communicate and collaborate with healthcare teams, clients, and their families to ensure their voices are heard and respected.
Additionally, the video encourages self-reflection and self-awareness among nurses. It emphasizes the significance of recognizing personal biases, values, and beliefs that may influence client care and advocacy. By understanding one's own perspectives, nurses can strive for unbiased and patient-centered care, promoting positive health outcomes.
Clinical experience plays a vital role in client advocacy. Through hands-on practice and exposure to diverse patient populations, nurses gain valuable insights into the challenges clients face and the barriers they encounter within the healthcare system. This experience allows nurses to identify gaps in care, address concerns, and advocate for necessary interventions or changes to enhance client well-being.
The video also underscores the importance of professional growth in nursing. It highlights the need for ongoing education, training, and staying up-to-date with evidence-based practices. By continuously expanding their knowledge and skills, nurses can enhance their ability to advocate effectively for their clients, adapt to changes in healthcare, and provide high-quality, patient-centered care.
Overall, the video case study on client advocacy delves into the various aspects of advocating for clients in nursing, including personal thoughts, self-awareness, clinical experience, and the significance of professional growth. It provides insights and strategies for nurses to effectively advocate for their clients' rights, preferences, and overall well-being.
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which of the following is a provider factor associated with low vaccination rates in adults?
Answers
Answer: Lack of effective reminder or recall systems.
Explain the importance of emulsification in lipid digestion.
Answers
Answer:
Emulsification is important for the digestion of lipids because lipases can only efficiently act on the lipids when they are broken into small aggregates. Lipases break down the lipids into fatty acids and glycerides.
Explanation:
Emulsification plays a crucial role in lipid digestion by enhancing the efficiency of enzymatic breakdown and facilitating the absorption of lipids in the digestive system. Here are the key reasons why emulsification is important in lipid digestion:
1. Enhances Surface Area: Emulsification breaks down large lipid droplets into smaller droplets, increasing the overall surface area available for enzymatic action. Lipids are hydrophobic (water-insoluble) substances, and their large droplets have minimal contact with water and digestive enzymes. Emulsification disperses these large droplets into smaller droplets, allowing greater exposure to water and enzymes, thus promoting efficient digestion.
2. Increases Enzyme Accessibility: Emulsification helps solubilize lipids and expose them to digestive enzymes called lipases. Lipases act on the surface of lipid droplets to break down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol. Emulsification enables lipases to access and digest lipids more effectively, accelerating the breakdown process.
3. Produces Micelles: Emulsification results in the formation of micelles, which are small aggregates of bile salts, phospholipids, and partially digested lipids. Micelles serve as transport vehicles that carry the digested lipids, such as fatty acids and fat-soluble vitamins, to the surface of the small intestine for absorption. Without emulsification, lipids would remain as large, undigested droplets, making absorption difficult.
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Descripción de divisor bbdhhdbdhdhdhgdhdgdgdhgd
Answers
Answer: ummm.... Ok
Explanation:
Which 3 diseases are treated with medicine ?
[A] Bacteria
[B] Viruses
[C] Parasites
[D] Fungi
Answers
Answer:
A,B,D) is the right answer
Explanation:
hope it helps
Which statement best describes how eponyms are different from Latin medical terms?
Answers
Answer:
Eponymous are not as easy to break down into smaller word parts.
Explanation:
superantigens activate more t cells than a normal immune response.
Answers
It is true that superantigens activate more T cells than a normal immune response.
The superantigens bind to a element of the key organic phenomenon complicated of T lymphocytes through an antigen-independent mechanism, that stimulates binding of the T-cell receptor via an antigen-independent mechanism resulting in the proliferation of an oversized set of T lymphocytes
T cells are a type of white corpuscle. T cells are a part of the system and develop from stem cells within the bone marrow. facilitate|they assist} defend the body from infection and should help fight cancer. conjointly referred to as lymph cell and thymocyte.
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while obtaining the client's health history, which factor would the nurse identify that predisposes the client to type 2 diabetes
Answers
The factor that the nurse needs to identify which is capable of predisposing the client to type 2 diabetes is being 20 lbs or more overweight.
What is type 2 diabetes?Type 2 diabetes is a disease in which the individual is unable to control glucose levels, which is associated with both genetic factors and environmental factors (e.g., overweight).
In conclusion, the factor that the nurse needs to identify which is capable of predisposing the client to type 2 diabetes is being 20 lbs or more overweight.
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a nurse observes that a newborn has a pink trunk and head, bluish hands and feet, and flexed extremities 5 min after delivery. he has a weak and slow cry, a heart rate of 130/min, and cries in response to suctioning. the nurse should document what apgar score for this infant?
Answers
Answer:8
Explanation:
2 for each rate, muscle tone, reflex irritability.Acrocyanosis 1
The nurse should document an Apgar score of 8 for this infant. The Apgar score is a quick assessment tool used to evaluate the overall condition of a newborn immediately after birth.
It consists of five components: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. Each component is assigned a score of 0, 1, or 2, with a total possible score of 10.
Heart rate: The heart rate of 130 beats per minute falls within the normal range for a newborn, so it receives a score of 2.
Respiratory effort: Although the infant has a weak and slow cry, the fact that they cry in response to suctioning indicates some respiratory effort. Therefore, a score of 1 is given.
Muscle tone: The observation of flexed extremities suggests good muscle tone, which warrants a score of 2.
Reflex irritability: The infant cries in response to suctioning, indicating intact reflex irritability, earning a score of 2.
Color: The baby has a pink trunk and head, which are desirable signs. However, the bluish hands and feet suggest some degree of cyanosis. Cyanosis is caused by low oxygen levels in the blood and is reflected in the color score. In this case, we would assign a score of 1.
Adding up the scores: 2 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 1 = 8.
Therefore, the nurse should document an Apgar score of 8 for this infant. It's important to note that the Apgar score is just one assessment, and further evaluation of the baby's overall condition and health should be done to ensure their well-being.
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a nurse provides dietary instructions to a client with cholecystitis. which menu selection by the client indicates to the nurse that the client understands the instructions?
Answers
When a nurse provides dietary instructions to a client with cholecystitis, the menu selection that indicates to the nurse that the client understands the instructions is grilled chicken breast, brown rice, and steamed broccoli.
What is Cholecystitis?Cholecystitis is a condition where inflammation occurs in the gallbladder, which leads to gallstones. It is essential to follow a low-fat diet, especially when the disease is in the acute phase. Following dietary instructions is one of the primary treatments for cholecystitis.
The nurse should provide the following dietary instructions to the patient with cholecystitis:
Avoid consuming fatty, greasy, and fried foods.
Limit the intake of dairy products and red meat in the diet.
Add more fibre-rich foods to the diet, like fruits and vegetables.
Keep the body hydrated by drinking adequate amounts of water (2-3 litres/day).
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Gavin would like to apply the gate-control theory of pain to reduce his experience of pain following a sports injury. Which of the following could he do?
Group of answer choices
Answers
Answer: Increase Sensory Input (Rubbing, Touching, Feeling Cold Water etc) At the injury location
Explanation: The gate-control theory suggests that pain is sent through the spinal cord to the brain and along with sensory information, there are certain times where pain should be felt more than sensory inputs and vice versa. This comes into play when we talk about the 'gates,' or areas where the spinal cord and brain decide that pain or sensory input should be filtered out or enhanced. If the sensory information and pain information travel at the same time, it is thought that enough sensory information could lessen the feeling of pain; this is thought to be the cause of rubbing a scrapped knee or injury when we fall.
Anyways, since the choices weren't given, just know that any amount of sensory input near the injury location will reduce Gavin's experience of pain, according to the gate-control theory. I hoped this helped!
Which of the following areas of the brain is most abnormal in PTSD?
a. Locus coeruleus
b. Hippocampus
c. Cingulate gyrus
d. Amygdala
Answers
Answer:
b. Hippocampus
Explanation:
The hippocampus is involved in memory, learning, and emotion.
The amygdala is the area of the brain that is most commonly associated with abnormalities in individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Option d is correct.
PTSD is a mental health condition that can occur in individuals who have experienced or witnessed traumatic events, such as violence, accidents, natural disasters, or combat.
The amygdala plays a crucial role in processing emotions, particularly fear and anxiety responses. It is responsible for detecting and responding to potential threats in the environment. In individuals with PTSD, the amygdala is often found to be hyperactive or over-responsive. This heightened activity can lead to exaggerated fear responses, hypervigilance, and difficulty distinguishing between real threats and non-threatening situations.
Additionally, the amygdala is closely connected to the hippocampus, another area of the brain that is affected by PTSD. The hippocampus is involved in memory formation and consolidation. In people with PTSD, the hippocampus may be smaller in size and have reduced functionality. This can contribute to difficulties in processing and contextualizing traumatic memories, as well as problems with memory recall.
While other brain areas listed in the options (such as the locus coeruleus, cingulate gyrus, and hippocampus) can also be impacted in individuals with PTSD, research has consistently shown that abnormalities in the amygdala play a central role in the emotional and fear-related symptoms associated with the disorder. Therefore, the amygdala is the most abnormal area of the brain in PTSD.
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You respond to call for trouble breathing. When you arrive, you find a 75 year old man struggling to breathe. You notice he has gurgling sounds when breathing, and he is coughing up pink fluid . The patient has swollen ankles, and he tells you he had a heart attack 6 months ago. What should you do?
Answers
Answer: he might have Congestive Heart Failure
Explanation:
A chronic condition in which the heart doesn't pump blood as well as it should.
Heart failure can occur if the heart cannot pump (systolic) or fill (diastolic) adequately.
Symptoms include shortness of breath, fatigue, swollen legs, and rapid heartbeat.
Treatments can include eating less salt, limiting fluid intake, and taking prescription medications. In some cases a defibrillator or pacemaker may be implanted.
You are assessing a 28-year-old patient and you notice he has pinpoint pupils. You suspect a drug overdose. What drug is the likely cause of this phenomenon?
Answers
According to the research, heroin drug is the likely cause of this phenomenon of pinpoint pupils in the 28-year-old patient.
What is heroin?It is an opioid with narcotic properties (generates drowsiness and modifies sensitivity) and sedatives.
The effect of heroin is very intense and fast, causing a depression of the central nervous system and can cause pinpoint pupils.
Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, heroin drug is the likely cause of this phenomenon of pinpoint pupils in the 28-year-old patient.
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Chris has a thrombotic disorder. Which class of medications would his doctor prescribe to inhibit the thrombosis?
Answers
Answer:
cancer? with a side of herps ?
What is the average cost of supplemental insurance for medicare?.
Answers
Supplemental insurance for Medicare, also known as Medigap policies, helps to cover the out-of-pocket expenses that traditional Medicare plans don't. These expenses include deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments.
Medicare supplemental insurance, also known as Medigap insurance, is sold by private insurance companies to supplement original Medicare. As per the federal government rules, there are ten standardized Medigap policies available in most states, each designated by a letter. According to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services, the average cost of Medicare Supplement Insurance or Medigap is around $152 per month in 2021. It is to be noted that the cost varies based on a variety of factors, such as the policyholder’s age, gender, state of residence, and medical history. Furthermore, different insurance providers may have varying rates, so it is best to compare policies and providers to determine the best fit for your individual needs.
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Mr. Lopez has heard that he can sign up for a product called “Medicare Advantage” but is not sure about what type of plan designs are available through this program. What should you tell him about the types of health plans that are available through the Medicare Advantage program?
Answers
I think it is pretty obvious, it is advantage over healthcare meaning, that ir probably has free health care, better medicine, and others
a muscle imbalance that controls the child's eye resulted in 2 lazy eyes. what medical professional would be the best option to resolve the issue
Answers
Answer:
Pediatric Ophthalmologist
Explanation:
Pediatric Ophthalmologists treat eye disorders in children.
where is the location of the bony labyrinth ?
Answers
Answer:
the bony labrinth is located in the inner ear
Answer:
within the petrous part of the temporal bone.
What type of instrument was used on karen to visually examine her stomach?
Answers
Karen underwent an endoscopic procedure to visually examine her stomach.
Endoscopy is a non-surgical technique used to investigate the interior of organs or cavities in the body. In this case, a gastroscope was likely used to examine Karen's stomach.
A gastroscope is a thin, flexible tube with a light and camera at the tip that allows doctors to view the stomach's lining in detail. The gastroscope is inserted through the mouth and guided down the esophagus into the stomach. It provides real-time images of the stomach's interior, allowing doctors to assess the condition of the lining, detect abnormalities, and take tissue samples for further analysis if necessary.
This minimally invasive procedure helps diagnose and monitor various gastrointestinal conditions, such as ulcers, inflammation, tumors, or bleeding in the stomach.
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