The medical term that describes Jean's diagnosis is hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland produces an excessive amount of thyroid hormones, causing the body's metabolism to speed up.
This can lead to symptoms such as weight loss, increased appetite, anxiety, tremors, and irregular heartbeat. Autoimmune conditions, such as Grave's disease, are a common cause of hyperthyroidism.
In Grave's disease, the immune system produces antibodies that stimulate the thyroid gland to produce excess hormones. Treatment for hyperthyroidism can include medications to reduce hormone production, radioactive iodine therapy to destroy thyroid cells, or surgery to remove the thyroid gland.
Jean's doctor, Dr. White, likely ordered blood tests to measure her thyroid hormone levels and antibodies, as well as imaging studies to evaluate her thyroid gland.
With a proper diagnosis and treatment plan, hyperthyroidism can be effectively managed.
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The medical term that describes Dr. White's diagnosis for Jean's condition is "hyperthyroidism," which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. This condition can be caused by various factors, including autoimmune diseases like Graves' disease, which is an autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland.
Dr. White's diagnosis for Jean is that she has an autoimmune condition causing her thyroid gland to become overactive. The medical term for this diagnosis is Graves' disease.Fasting Plasma Glucose Test This is the standard test for diagnosing type 1 and type 2 diabetes. You must not eat or drink anything for at least eight hours prior to this simple test in which blood is drawn to check your sugar levels. jean that she had an autoimmune condition that has caused her thyroid gland to become overactive. which medical term describes his diagnosis”.
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How many muscles does the human body have?
Answer:
There are about 600 muscles in the human body. The three main types of muscle include skeletal, smooth and cardiac.
Explanation:
The calcium content of various vegetables is presented below. Which of these vegetables would be the best choice to help you meet your calcium DRI?
a. Turnip greens, 125 mg in ½ cup cooked
b. Swiss chard, 51 mg in ½ cup cooked
c. Mustard greens, 76 mg
d. Spinach, 145 mg in ½ cup cooked
e. Kale, 90 mg in ½ cup cooked
Turnip greens, 125 mg in ½ cup cooked is the correct answer.
Calcium-Rich Foods
Although there are many supplements available, experts advise getting at least half of your calcium from food rather than pills.
The following eight foods are among the greatest calcium sources on the market:
dairy goods
Calcium is abundant in dairy products like milk, yoghurt, and cheese, and these foods also often absorb calcium the best. Fortified diets and foods made of plants do not absorb calcium as well.
Soybeans
Soybeans that have been dry-roasted are a good calcium source. They are a fantastic calcium source for vegans because a half-cup has 119 mg of calcium in it.
Leafy, Dark Green Vegetables
Calcium-rich foods include cooked kale, spinach, and collard greens. The biggest amount is seen in collard greens, which have 164 mg of calcium per half cup.
Foods Fortified with Calcium
Cereals and orange juice are frequently supplemented with calcium. Some fortified juices contain calcium citrate malate, a well-absorbed form of the mineral. Additionally, some fortified cereals offer up to 100 mg of calcium per serving.
Salmon in a can
Salmon in cans, aside from dairy products, is one of the best food sources of calcium. 181 mg are present in just 3 ounces of canned salmon. Salmon also includes vitamin D, which facilitates calcium absorption by the body.
Figs
You can get 68 mg of calcium for your body by eating five dried or fresh figs. Oranges and papayas are two additional fruits that are high in calcium.
Wheat tortillas
Good news for those who enjoy carbohydrates: a 10-inch flour tortilla contains 90 mg of calcium.
Baked beans in a can
The amount of calcium in four ounces of canned baked beans is 126 mg. Additionally, beans have a lot of fibre.
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Should I do a summer dental internship even though I think I want to be a ob/gyn? (I was asked if I wanted to do a dental internship because I'm in a dental program but I don't think I want to go into dentistry anymore).
Will it be beneficial(maybe for college resume, med school )? Or just a waste of time?
Answer:
So, for times sake, it would be a waste if you found something better that you want to do. But for your resume it would be beneficial because everything you learn can factor into other medical fields. It would mainly be beneficial to your medical resume because they would see that you been in a medical field and be able to see what you already know.
which form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.
The treatment used to promote healing by dilating blood vessels and increasing circulation is vasodilation.
What are the benefits of increased blood circulation to an injured area? Increased blood circulation to an injured area can bring a variety of benefits. Firstly, increased blood flow can help to reduce inflammation and swelling. Blood carries oxygen and nutrients to the area and helps to flush away waste products, which can help speed up recovery time. Secondly, increased blood flow can stimulate the body’s natural healing processes. This means that the body can more quickly rebuild and repair damaged tissue. Finally, increased blood circulation to the injured area can help to reduce pain. This is due to the release of endorphins, which are natural pain relievers.Overall, increased blood circulation to an injured area can help to reduce inflammation, stimulate the body’s natural healing processes, and reduce pain. This makes it a vital part of the healing process and can help to speed up recovery and reduce the severity of symptoms.To learn more about treatment refer to:
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Mrs. Chou likes a Private Fee-for-Service (PFFS) plan available in her area that does not include drug coverage. She wants to enroll in the plan and enroll in a stand-alone prescription drug plan. What should you tell her?
Answer:
She could enroll in a PFFS plan and a stand-alone Medicare prescription drug plan.
Explanation:
Which interval/segment observed via EKG sensor can be used to calculate the heart rate?
a) RR Interval
b) PR segment
c) PR Interval
d) QT Interval
e) QRS Complex
What are the components of the communication process?
You find a person at the bottom of the stairs. He appears to have fallen and seems badly hurt. After sending someone for help, you would:________
The most commonly used referencing style in medicine and science is
Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.
Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10 times greater than the RDA.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.
Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.
Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.
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Do doctors have day off?
Answer:
It all depends on where you work, what you do, and who you work for. Typically, most physicians receive between 25 and 35 paid days off per year. But some physicians, especially hospitalists, don't receive any at all.
Explanation:
hope this helps and can i get brainliest pls
Answer:
Typically, most physicians receive between 25 and 35 paid days off per year. But some physicians, especially hospitalists, don't receive any at all.
Explanation:
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good luck
a condition that affects the lungs is called...
A. cardiac, asthma
B. respiratory, diabetes
C. respiratory, asthma
D. cardiac, heart disease
Answer:
C
Explanation:
All the other things have things that are cardiac...cardiac is heart
Answer:
C. respiratory, asthma
Explanation:
Cardiac refers to the heart, diabetes is an endocrine disease, heart disease is, well, a disease of the heart.
Asthma is an example of a lung condition, and respiratory refers to the lungs.
what effect did Covid 19 have on Medical Technology ?
Answer:
Covid-19 has had a major effect on medical technology. The pandemic has driven rapid innovation across the medical technology industry. Digital health solutions, such as telemedicine, have become increasingly popular, while artificial intelligence and machine learning are being used to improve the accuracy and speed of diagnosis. Remote monitoring technologies have been used to track patients in their own homes. Robotics have been used for disinfection and contactless delivery of medical supplies, while 3D printing has been used to rapidly produce medical equipment. Finally, companies have developed new tests and treatments for Covid-19, such as vaccines and monoclonal antibody therapies.
Answer:
The medical technology sector has experienced a substantial impact as a result of COVID-19. Many medical device makers have stopped developing new products and slowed down production of some types of medical equipment and devices as a result of the infection. Additionally, COVID-19 has occasionally caused an all-time peak in demand for specific medical products.
MAJOR IMPACT :
->The COVID-19 has had a considerable effect on the medical technology sector, and more specifically, manufacturers. As was already indicated, several gadget manufacturers were forced to suspend production, postpone the creation of new products, and slow down sales. The medical technology sector is probably going to be affected by these changes in the long run.
->Hospitals and health systems have been influenced by COVID-19 in a number of ways. Numerous elective surgeries have been delayed or cancelled as a result of the illness. The cost of medical care has increased as a result of the necessity for many institutions to develop safety guidelines for the use of medical technology.
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Which of the following could be reasonably concluded if a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing?
The sow may have a stillborn piglet in her uterus.
The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
The farrowing process has come to a conclusion.
The sow is about to expel her placenta.
Answer: The first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
Explanation:
Farrowing is a term that simply has to do with the action by which pigs give birth. Another term for farrowing is parturition.
As farrowing approaches, it should be noted that the the vulva and the vagina will enlarge which leads to the opening into the womb. When a fecal pellet is expelled from a sow's vagina during farrowing, the first piglet in the litter is being birthed backward.
5. What is one way that you can use one of the learning theories to influence another human or animal in your life? What theory of learning would you use? Why?
Learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
What is learning theories?Learning theories are defined as the theory based on the behaviorism, cognitivism, and constructivism psychological perspectives.
The biological processes of learning start in neurons, which are electrically stimulated brain cells.
Synaptic plasticity, which involves modifying the number and strength of neuronal connections, is the mechanism by which learning occurs.
Thus, learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
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caring for an older adult client who has had surgery for an intestinal obstruction and has an ng tube to wall suction which of the following interventions
The following instructions for an older adult client who has had surgery for an intestinal obstruction and has an ng tube to wall suction are most appropriate:
1. Monitor the patient's vital signs and intake and output.
2. Educate the patient and family on proper care of the NG tube.
3. Assess for signs of infection or other complications.
4. Medicate the patient for pain as ordered.
5. Measure the amount of drainage from the NG tube.
What is Intestinal obstruction?
Intestinal obstruction is a blockage in the intestines that prevents food, liquid, and gas from passing through. The obstruction can be partial or complete. Abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, and abdominal swelling are all symptoms of an intestinal obstruction. Medication, surgery, and lifestyle changes are all used to treat an intestinal obstruction.
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enumerate the parts of the heart and its functions
Answer:
Atria, Ventricles, Epicardium, Myocardium, Endocardium, Atrioventricular Bundle, Atrioventricular Node, Purkinje Fibers, Sinoatrial Node, Aortic valve, Mitral valve, Pulmonary valve, Tricuspid valve, Aorta, Brachiocephalic artery, Carotid arteries, Common iliac arteries, Coronary arteries, Pulmonary artery, Subclavian arteries, Brachiocephalic veins, Common iliac veins, Pulmonary veins, and the Vena cava.
Explanation:
The heart is a vital organ that helps supply blood and oxygen to every part of your body. It's divided by a partition (or septum) into 2 halves. Each half is, in turn, divided into 4 chambers. The heart is situated within the cavity of the chest and surrounded by a sac filled with fluid called the pericardium. This amazing muscle produces electrical impulses that cause the heart to contract, pumping blood throughout your body. The heart and the circulatory system when working together make up the cardiovascular system.
The heart consists up of 4 chambers; The Atria are the upper 2 chambers of the heart, and the ventricles are lower 2 chambers of the heart. The heart wall consists up of 3 layers; The Epicardium is the outer layer of the wall of the heart, The Myocardium is the muscular middle layer of the wall of the heart, and the Endocardium is the inner layer of the heart.
The heart also has nodes and nerve fibers that send electrical signals, causing the heart to contrast. Cardiac conduction is the rate which the heart conducts electrical impulses. The Heart has nodes and nerve fibers which play an important role in causing the heart to contract. The Atrioventricular Bundle is a bundle of fibers that carry cardiac impulses, the Purkinje Fibers are fiber branches that extend from the atrioventricular bundle, the Atrioventricular Node is an area of nodal tissue that delays and relays cardiac impulses, and the Sinoatrial Node is an area of nodal tissue that sets the rate of contraction for the heart.
Then there is the Cardiac cycle which is the sequence of events that occur when the heart beats. There are 2 phases of the cardiac cycle, Diastole and Systole Phase. Diastole phase is when the heart ventricles are relaxed and the heart fills with blood. Systole phase is when the ventricles contract and pump blood to the arteries.
The heart has 4 valves which control the direction of the flow of the blood through the heart. Heart valves are flap-like structures that allow blood to flow in one direction. The 4 valves are the Aortic valve, the Mitral valve, the Pulmonary valve, and the Tricuspid valve. The Aortic valve prevents the back flow of blood as it is being pumped from the left ventricle to the aorta. The Mitral valve prevents the back flow of blood as it is being pumped from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The Pulmonary valve prevents the back flow of blood as it is being pumped from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery. And the Tricuspid valve prevents the back flow of blood as it is being pumped from the right atrium to the right ventricle. This makes it easy for the blood to flow in and out with no issues.
And finally, we get to the blood vessels. Blood vessels are intricately detailed networks of hollow tubes that move your blood throughout the entire body. These are some of the main Arteries and Veins in the heart.
The largest artery in the body is the Aorta, from which most major arteries branch off of, the Brachiocephalic artery carries oxygenated blood from the aorta to the head, neck, and arm regions of the body. The Carotid arteries supply oxygenated blood to the head and neck regions of the body. Common iliac arteries carry oxygenated blood from the abdominal aorta to the legs and feet. The Coronary arteries carry oxygenated and nutrient-filled blood to the heart muscle. The Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs. The Subclavian arteries supply oxygenated blood to the arms. The Brachiocephalic veins are 2 large veins that join to form the superior vena cava. The Common iliac veins join to form the inferior vena cava. Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart, And the Vena cava transport de-oxygenated blood from various regions of the body to the heart.
aminiotic fluid formation and clearance ?
Introduction :-)
The amniotic fluid is the protective liquid contained by the amniotic sac of a gravid amniote. This fluid serves as a cushion for the growing fetus, but also serves to facilitate the exchange of nutrients, water, and biochemical products between mother and fetus.
Importance :-)
It helps to protect the fetus from trauma to the maternal abdomen.It cushions the umbilical cord from compression between the fetus and uterus.It has antibacterial properties that provide some protection from infection.It serves as a reservoir of fluid and nutrients for the fetus.Formation :-)
Amniotic fluid is present from the formation of the gestational sac. Amniotic fluid is in the amniotic sac. It is generated from maternal plasma, and passes through the fetal membranes by osmotic and hydrostatic forces. When fetal kidneys begin to function around week 16, fetal urine also contributes to the fluid. In earlier times, it was believed that the amniotic fluid was composed entirely of fetal urine.
The fluid is absorbed through the fetal tissue and skin. After 22 to 25 week of pregnancy, fraternization of an embryo's skin occurs. When this process completes around the 25th week, the fluid is primarily absorbed by the fetal gut for the remainder of gestation.
Contents :-)
At first, amniotic fluid is mainly water with electrolytes, but by about the 12-14th week the liquid also contains proteins, carbohydrates, lipids and phospholipids, and urea, all of which aid in the growth of the fetus.
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Which of the following serologic markers indicate HBV clearance?
a.
HbSAg.
b.
HbCAg IgG antibody.
c.
HbCAg IgM antibody.
d.
HbSAg Antibody.
e.
HbCAg
Answer:
a
Explanation:
chavez-yenter 2021 patient interactions with an automated conversational agent delivering pretest genetics education: descriptive study.
In Chavez-Yenter's study, researchers aimed to explore the interactions between patients and the automated conversational agent, a technology designed to simulate natural human conversation. The focus was on how this agent delivered pretest genetics education to patients.
The study titled "Chavez-Yenter 2021: Patient Interactions with an Automated Conversational Agent Delivering Pretest Genetics Education" is a descriptive study that examines how patients interact with an automated conversational agent during pretest genetics education.
In this study, the researchers collect data on patient interactions with the automated conversational agent and analyze factors such as the duration of the interactions, the types of questions asked by the patients, and the accuracy and effectiveness of the agent's responses.
The findings of this descriptive study can provide valuable insights into the effectiveness of using automated conversational agents for delivering pretest genetics education to patients.
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B. Write your community health nursing diagnosis statement. 1. Explain how the health concern from your community health nursing diagnostic statement is linked to a health inequity or health disparity within the target population. a. Discuss the primary community resources and primary prevention resources currently in place to address the health concern. b. Discuss the underlying causes of the health concern. 2. Discuss the evidence-based practice associated with the Field Experience topic. a. Identify data about the selected Field Experience topic from the local (e.g., county), state, and/or national level.
Explanation:
rite your community health nursing diagnosis statement based on a chosen health concern you’ve identified in the simulation, related to Health People 2020 topics. The community health nursing diagnostic statement identifies a health concern or risk within Sentinel Town, identifies the affected group or community, suggests a cause, and logically discusses the evidence and/or support for the diagnosis.1. Explain how the health concern from the nursing diagnostic statement is linked to a health inequity or health disparity within the target population. The explanation accurately identifies a health inequity or health disparity within the target population and logically discusses how the identified health inequity or disparity is linked to the health concern identified in part B.a. Discuss the primary community resources and primary prevention resources currently available in Sentinel Town to address the health concern. The discussion appropriately details the primary community resources and the primary prevention resources available in Sentinel Town relevant to the identified health concern.b. Discuss the underlying causes of the health concern. The discussion accurately identifiespotential contributing factors for the health concern and logically proposes the underlying causes fo
Which of the following is the appropriate way to add instruments to a sterile field?
A. Hand-place the sterile instrument on the sterile field
B. Stand close to the sterile field and open the instrument pack
C. Reach across the sterile field with the instrument to be added
D. Place the instrument using sterile transfer forceps
E. Place the instrument within the outer 1 inch of the sterile field
The appropriate way to add instruments to a sterile field is to place large items on the sterile field using sterile gloves or sterile transfer forceps. So, the correct answer would be D. Place the instrument using sterile transfer forceps.
The appropriate way to add instruments to a sterile field is place the instrument using sterile transfer forceps. Therefore, the correct option is option D.
Maintaining sterility is crucial when introducing instruments to a clean area in order to avoid contamination. The risk of introducing germs or compromising the sterile environment is reduced by using sterile transfer forceps or other sterile handling techniques.
The sterile instrument (A) could become contaminated if it is placed on the sterile field by hand. Opening the instrument pack (B) while standing close to the sterile field could cause the instrument pack to touch the sterile field, thus compromising sterility. Accidental contact with non-sterile surfaces can occur when extending the instrument to be added (C) across the sterile field.
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Healthcare Information Technology Mind Map
Mycobacterium tuberculosis infects the lungs and can spread to other organs from the lungs. When an infected individual coughs, the bacteria can enter the air and infect nearby individuals. The mode of transmission for the M. tuberculosis pathogen is the ________ route. The portal of entry forM. tuberculosis is _______.
The nasal route is the transmission method for the pathogen Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The nose serves as M. tuberculosis' point of entrance.
M. tuberculosis spreads by airborne rather than surface-to-surface contact. When a person breathes droplet nuclei carrying M. tuberculosis, the droplet nuclei travel through the mouth, nose, upper respiratory tract, & bronchi to reach the lungs' alveoli. This is known as transmission.
The innate immune cell vacuoles of macrophages provide Mycobacterium TB with a moderately acidic and perhaps nutrient-restricted environment in which to develop. In aquatic and terrestrial habitats, other mycobacterial species are exposed to acidic conditions.
Although TB germs typically assault the lungs, they can also affect the kidney, spine, as well as brain. Not every person who contracts TB germs gets ill.
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A 1-day-old newborn is being examined by the nurse practitioner, who makes the following notation: face and sclera appear mildly jaundiced. What causes this finding?
The breakdown of RBCs release bilirubin, which the liver cannot excrete.
The newborn's Vitamin K levels are low.
The GI tract is immature, so the bilirubin remains in the intestines.
Feedings are not adequate to eliminate the build-up of bilirubin.
The finding of mild jaundice in a 1-day-old newborn is caused by the breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs) that release bilirubin, which the liver cannot excrete. Bilirubin builds up in the bloodstream and causes the yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera (the white part of the eyes), which can be used as a symptom to identify as jaundice by the nurse.
What is Jaundice? Jaundice is a medical condition characterized by yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera (the white part of the eyes) caused by the buildup of bilirubin in the bloodstream. Bilirubin is a waste product produced by the breakdown of red blood cells (RBCs).Jaundice is a common condition in newborns and can occur within 2-3 days after birth. It is usually mild and goes away on its own without any treatment. However, severe jaundice can cause serious complications and requires medical attention. What is a Nurse? A nurse is a healthcare professional who is trained to provide care to patients in hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare settings. Nurses are responsible for monitoring the patient's condition, administering medications and treatments, providing emotional support, and educating patients and their families about their health conditions.
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If the recommended DRI for Jacob was 2300 milligrams of sodium per day, what would be the average percentage Jacob consumed per day based on his report? a. 20.86% b. 47.91% c. The percentage of sodium intake cannot be determined from the report d. 2.086% e. 208.6%
Answer:
C he percentage of sodium intake cannot be determined from the report
A registered nurse (RN) is supervising the work of a licensed practical nurse (LPN) who is caring for a client diagnosed with a terminal illness. Which statement by the LPN would be corrected by the RN?
Answer: B. The law says you must write a new living will each time you re admitted to the hospital.
Explanation:
The law does not require that you make a new will whenever you are admitted to the hospital. Any existing will that has fulfilled the provisions of the law are biding unless the person decides to change the will of their own volition.
There is therefore no need to make a new will every time if there is already one in existence and the person is satisfied with it. The Registered Nurse should therefore correct this statement by the Licensed Practical Nurse.
what is the role of nurse
Answer:
a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions
they are responsible for the holistic care of patients
Explanation:
Explanation:
A nurse is a caregiver for patients and helps to manage physical needs, prevent illness, and treat health conditions. ... They are responsible for the holistic care of patients, which encompasses the psychosocial, developmental, cultural, and spiritual needs of the individual.
The PNP recognizes which of the following signs as indicators that a baby is not receiving sufficient breastmilk?
a. Sleepiness, jaundice, and decreased urine and stool
b. Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting
c. Bulging fontanel and irritability
d. Sleeplessness and excitability
The PNP recognizes a decrease in urine and stool, as well as lethargy and poor feeding, as indicators that a baby is not receiving sufficient breastmilk. Option a is incorrect.
Option a, which includes sleepiness, jaundice, and decreased urine and stool, is a list of common signs of dehydration in newborns. Jaundice is a yellowing of the skin and whites of the eyes, which can be caused by a buildup of bilirubin in the blood. Decreased urine and stool are also signs of dehydration, as the body conserves fluids when it is not getting enough to drink. Sleepiness is also a sign of dehydration, as the body's energy levels can drop when it is not getting enough fluids.
Option b, which includes diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting, is a list of common signs of infection in newborns. These symptoms can occur if the baby has been exposed to a pathogen, such as a virus or bacteria, and can indicate that the baby needs medical attention.
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why is it important for jessica to have her blood levels of the antiepileptic medications checked on a regular basis
Answer:Blood tests are often checked before starting an antiepileptic drug (AED). Blood tests may be done again after you have been taking the seizure medicine for a while, especially if there’s been a change in dose or if you have a change in how you feel.How often blood tests are done depends on each seizure medicine, the need for monitoring, and other health problems you have or medicines you take. The frequency of testing also varies from doctor to doctor and even country to country.
The frequency of blood tests to check for side effects depends on the medicine you take. Many of the older seizure medicines need more monitoring than the newer ones.
Blood tests may be done before starting a drug then periodically once you are on the medicine. Some medicines may need blood tests every few weeks or months when starting the medicine. After a person is used to the medicine, these blood tests may be needed only once in a while or if problems develop. Other medicines, especially some of the newer ones, need blood test monitoring much less often if at all.
Blood tests to measure the amount of medicine in your system can also vary. Again, blood levels of the older medicines are done more often to help guide changes in doses. Well-established ranges for blood levels are available for the older drugs, but not as much for newer seizures medicines. For some of the newer seizure medicines, tests for blood levels may not be available or helpful in adjusting doses of a medicine.
Explanation:Blood tests may be done to check how much medicine is in your body, usually called drug or AED levels. (AED stands for antiepileptic drugs)
Blood tests may also be used to see how your body is tolerating the medicine. The types of blood test will vary depending on what possible side effects may be seen with your seizure medicine. These blood tests may include levels of electrolytes (substances in the body such as sodium and potassium), kidneys and liver function, and blood cell counts (such as white blood cells, red blood cells, platelet counts).The best way to tell if a medicine is working is to talk to you and your family. How often seizures occur and if you have any side effects that bother you is often more important than a blood test. This information comes from you and your family, not a test.
The blood level helps the doctor judge if the medicine dose is high enough, too high, or if it may be time for a change. It’s a piece of information that is looked at together with how you feel. The doctor or nurse will also want to do a ‘neuro exam’ that can help pick up side effects of medicines. So remember:
The blood level is only a guide. Some people will do well at low levels of medicine. Other people may need higher amounts.
Results of a blood level need to be looked together with other information.