determine whether the reproductive isolating mechanisms are prezygotic or postzygotic.
a. Habitat isolation
b. Prezygotic
c. Postzygotic
d. Hybrid sterility
e. Temporal isolation
f. Hybrid inviability
g. Gametic isolation
h. Hybrid breakdown
i. Mechanical isolation
j. Behavioral isolation
Answers
The reproductive isolating mechanisms are prezygotic or postzygotic both depending on the situation what the scenario is but mostly it is prezygotic.
Prezygotic barriers are reproductive barriers that prevent mating between species or hinder fertilization if mating occurs. Examples of prezygotic isolating mechanisms include geographical isolation, behavioral isolation, temporal isolation, and mechanical isolation. Postzygotic barriers are reproductive barriers that prevent hybrid offspring from surviving and reproducing. Examples of postzygotic barriers include hybrid inviability, hybrid sterility, and hybrid breakdown. Postzygotic effects are the evolutionary effects that result from the mating of two individuals of different species, resulting in hybrid offspring. These effects include changes in the phenotype, behavior, and fitness of the hybrid offspring, as well as changes in the gene frequencies of populations. Postzygotic effects can affect populations in a variety of ways, including changes in population size, structure, and dynamics.
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Related Questions
if you took a linear piece of dna and cut it with the restriction enzyme ecori and it had three restriction sites for ecori, how many fragments would you produce?
Answers
When a linear piece of DNA is cut with a restriction enzyme, such as EcoRI, it cleaves the DNA at specific recognition sequences. In the case of EcoRI, the recognition sequence is 5'-GAATTC-3'. Each occurrence of this sequence serves as a potential cutting site for the enzyme.
If the linear DNA has three EcoRI restriction sites, it means that the EcoRI enzyme can bind and cleave the DNA at three different locations. Each cleavage generates two fragments, as the enzyme cuts the DNA strand at two points within the recognition sequence. Therefore, the total number of fragments produced will be twice the number of restriction sites.
In this scenario, since there are three EcoRI restriction sites, the enzyme will cleave the DNA at each of these sites, resulting in six fragments. Each fragment will have a different length, depending on the distance between the adjacent EcoRI sites.
It's important to note that the actual number of fragments may vary depending on the specific sequence and arrangement of the recognition sites within the DNA molecule. Additionally, factors such as the concentration of the enzyme and reaction conditions can influence the efficiency of cleavage and the resulting fragment sizes.
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Mendel crossed peas having round seeds and yellow cotyledons with peas having wrinkled seeds and green cotyledons. All the F1 plants had round seeds with yellow cotyledons. Diagram this cross through the F2 generation, using the Punnett square.
Answers
The F2 generation resulted in a ratio of 3:1 for round to wrinkled seeds, and a ratio of 3:1 for yellow to green cotyledons.
When Mendel crossed peas with round seeds and yellow cotyledons with peas with wrinkled seeds and green cotyledons, all the F1 plants had round seeds with yellow cotyledons. Mendel's cross between peas with different traits resulted in the F1 generation having only one of the traits from each parent. This is known as dominance, where one allele masks the expression of the other. In this case, the round seed and yellow cotyledon alleles were dominant over the wrinkled seed and green cotyledon alleles, respectively. The F1 plants were heterozygous for both traits, meaning they had one dominant allele and one recessive allele for each trait. When the F1 plants were crossed with each other, the resulting F2 generation had a ratio of 3:1 for both traits, indicating that the dominant allele appeared three times as often as the recessive allele. This pattern of inheritance is known as Mendelian inheritance and is based on the segregation of alleles during gamete formation and their random combination during fertilization. The Punnett square is a tool used to predict the possible genotypes of offspring based on the genotypes of the parents. In this case, the Punnett square for the F2 generation would have 16 boxes, representing all possible combinations of alleles from the F1 parents.
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How do greenhouse gases affect Earth?
A. They cause wind currents to increase.
B. They decrease ocean currents, cooling the planets.
C. They stop heat from escaping the atmosphere.
D. They reflect sunlight away from Earth.
Answers
Answer:
the answer is c
Explanation:
Greenhouse gases affect Earth because They stop heat from escaping the atmosphere.
Thus, A greenhouse is a glass-enclosed building that can be used to cultivate plants. The greenhouse's air and plants are warmed by the sun's rays.
The heat that is trapped inside is unable to escape, warming the greenhouse, which is necessary for the plants' growth. The atmosphere of the earth is the same.
The atmosphere of the planet warms during the day due to the sun. The heat is radiated back into the atmosphere at night when the earth cools. The greenhouse gases in the earth's atmosphere absorb the heat throughout this process.
Thus, Greenhouse gases affect Earth because They stop heat from escaping the atmosphere.
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PLZ HELP 40PTSThe table below shows the mass of some horse fossils.
Horse Fossil Record
Horse Fossil Mass (kg)
A 80
B 270
C 150
D 50
Ancient horses had less mass than present-day horses. The mass of the present-day horse is about 500 kilograms. What is the correct order of evolution of the horse starting from the youngest fossil?
1. A C D B
2.B D C A
3. D A C B
4. B C A D
Answers
Answer:
D and 4
Explanation:
Answer:
Its D and the last one is 4
Explanation:
According to the textbook, a blood-alcohol concentration of _____ percent of blood volume is regarded as intoxication, while a blood-alcohol concentration of _____ percent will probably be fatal.
Answers
According to the textbook, a blood-alcohol concentration of 0.08 percent of blood volume is regarded as intoxication, while a blood-alcohol concentration of 0.3 percent will probably be fatal.
According to the textbook, a blood-alcohol concentration of 0.08 percent of blood volume is generally regarded as the legal threshold for intoxication in many countries, including the United States. This means that if an individual's blood-alcohol concentration is equal to or exceeds 0.08 percent, they are considered legally intoxicated.
On the other hand, a blood-alcohol concentration of 0.3 percent or higher is generally considered potentially fatal. At this level, alcohol can significantly impair vital functions, including respiration, heart rate, and consciousness. It is important to note that alcohol affects individuals differently, and tolerance levels can vary. However, a blood-alcohol concentration of 0.3 percent or above is generally considered extremely dangerous and potentially life-threatening.
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60 minutes remaining
Question 13 The most abundant photoreceptors that detect dim light are Cones.
A True
B False
Question 14 Muscular tissue that adjusts the shape of the pupil to regulate how much light enters the eye is IRIS.
A True
B False Question
15 Opsins are visual pigments derived from Vitamin D.
A True
B False
Answers
Answer:
Question 13:
B. False
The most abundant photoreceptors that detect dim light are Rods, not Cones. Rods are highly sensitive to low light conditions and are responsible for vision in dim light and peripheral vision. Cones, on the other hand, are responsible for color vision and high visual acuity but are less sensitive to low light conditions.
Question 14:
A. True
The iris is the muscular tissue in the eye that adjusts the size of the pupil, controlling the amount of light entering the eye. It contracts or expands to regulate the size of the pupil in response to changing light conditions.
Question 15:
B. False
Opsins are visual pigments found in photoreceptor cells, specifically in the retina of the eye. They are responsible for capturing light and initiating the process of vision. Opsins are not derived from Vitamin D. Vitamin D is a separate compound involved in various physiological processes in the body, including calcium absorption and bone health.
Explanation:
What do mitochondria do in healthy cells, and ny had defective mitochondria caused
David to lose his vision?
Answers
Muscle weakness, intolerance to exercise, decreased hearing and vision, ataxia, seizures, learning difficulties, heart problems, diabetes, and poor growth are the hallmark signs of mitochondrial myopathy.
What will happen if have a defective mitochondria?Defects in mitochondria, the body's energy producers that may be found inside practically all cells, are the root cause of mitochondrial disorders. mitochondrial myopathies are mitochondrial diseases that create noticeable muscular issues, while mitochondrial encephalomyopathies are mitochondrial disorders that cause noticeable muscular and neurological abnormalities.Several of the syndromes linked to mitochondrial disease include Barth syndrome, Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, Leigh syndrome, Mitochondrial DNA depletion syndromes , Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy, Lactic acidosis, and stroke-like episodes, Mitochondrial neurogastrointestinal encephalomyopathy, Myoclonus epilepsy with ragged red fibers, Neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa , Pearson syndrome.The mtDNA mutation that causes NARP also causes MILS, and the two disorders can coexist in the same family. NARP can cause developmental delay, seizures, and dementia in addition to the primary symptoms for which it is called.To learn more about mitochondria refer :
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If a new species of honeycreeper were discovered, and it had a short, straight beak, which bird in this puzzle would likely be its closest living relative?
Answers
Answer:
The bird species that share the closest phenotypic characteristics are likely closest relatives.
Explanation:
Evolution theory states that species evolve gradually trough mutations (many of them are neutral), thereby those honeycreeper populations closest are more likely to share phenotypic features with each other.
Answer:
Po'oull
Explanation:
Select the correct answer.
How many particles are in a mole?
Answers
6.02214076•10^23
What is disruptive selection?
Answers
In nature, not all individuals in a biological population has the same reproductive success. Additionally, the reproductive succes of an individual may be related to a heritable trait. Disruptive (natural) selection is operating when indivuals with extreme values for an heritable trait have a greater reproductive succes that the ones with intermediate values for the same trait.
5 Devise Imagine that one tree outside your
school looks unhealthy, although all the other
trees seem healthy and strong. Describe how
you could apply scientific thinking to the
situation.
Answers
The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is an area in the North Pacific Ocean that contains trash and causes harm to ocean life and those that consume that life. What lessons can be learned from this floating pile of trash?
There is no relationship between our daily activities and the environment.
There are more polluters in the Pacific Ocean than in the Atlantic Ocean.
There are areas of the ocean to avoid with boats.
There is a relationship among all living things on Earth.
Answers
The correct answer is that there is an association between all the living things on Earth.
The Great Pacific Garbage Patch refers to the biggest of the five offshore plastic gathering zones in the oceans of the world. It is situated amid the California and Hawaii.
The robust and more buoyant plastics demonstrate resiliency in the marine environment, permitting them to be translocated over more distances. They are found lying at the surface of the sea as they make their way offshore, mediated via converging currents and eventually gathering in the form of a patch.
As these plastics get within the gyre, they are not likely to leave the region until they get dissociate into smaller microplastics under the influences of waves, sun, and marine life. With more and more plastics are discarded into the environment, the concentration of microplastics in the Great Pacific Garbage Patch will only keep on rising.
Due to the formation of Great Pacific Garbage Patch, the entire health of the ecosystem is influenced enormously. The entanglement and ingestion of marine debris straightforwardly influence marine life. Also, the existence of marine debris can hamper an overall food web via its indirect consequences.
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Answer:
In short, D
Explanation:
The person below or above me is right. The first thing they said was,
"There is a relationship among all living things on earth" which was in fact correct!
Ammonia is commonly used as a fertilizer for plants. It is made when nitrogen gas and hydrogen gas react under specific conditions.
Consider the following reaction:
2 molecules of nitrogen (N2) react with 6 molecules of hydrogen (H2) to produce some amount of ammonia (NH3).
Complete the table below.
H = ?
N = ?
During this reaction, how many molecules of ammonia (NH3) are produced?
Answers
Answer:
2
Explanation:
NH3 = N(1) + H(3)
N2H6 = 2(NH3)
= 2
Answer:
4
Explanation:
Just do the math Zoey -.-
Suzy knows that an individual’s sex is determined by sex chromosomes. She knows that females have two X chromosomes and males have one X and one Y chromosome. She creates the Punnett square cross below to show sex inheritance. She wants to know which parent determines the sex of a baby---is it the mother, father, or both? Complete this cross. What would you tell Suzy? Why? Suzy knows that an individual’s sex is determined by sex chromosomes. She knows that females have two X chromosomes and males have one X and one Y chromosome. She creates the Punnett square cross below to show sex inheritance. She wants to know which parent determines the sex of a baby---is it the mother, father, or both? Complete this cross. What would you tell Suzy? Why?
Answers
She creates the Punnett square cross below to show sex inheritance. She come to know that both parent determines the sex of a baby and it is when you put xx and xy on a punnet square there are equal amounts male and female.
How Human sex gets decided?Human sex gets decided by the function of SRY gene which possessed by with or without of Y chromosome. The hormone of anti-mullerian and testosterone produced from cells when activating the SRY gene. It generally confirms the development of single-male reproductive systems.
The scenario in humans, the sex ration gets affected by the male parent's hormone level. Also, in XY sex evaluation system, the sperm of male takes part in X or Y chromosome whereas the ovum from female contributes to X chromosome. This greatly results in offspring - either male (XX) or female (XY).
Therefore, She creates the Punnett square cross below to show sex inheritance. She come to know that both parent determines the sex of a baby and it is when you put xx and xy on a punnet square there are equal amounts male and female.
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Which of the following would be a useful phenotypic marker on a vector? a. Reverse transcriptase b. Antibiotic resistance gene c. Restriction enzyme
Answers
The useful phenotypic marker on a vector would be b) Antibiotic resistance gene.
A phenotypic marker on a vector is a characteristic that allows for the identification or selection of cells that have taken up the vector. The antibiotic resistance gene (option b) serves as a valuable phenotypic marker. This gene is typically included in the vector and confers resistance to a specific antibiotic. When the vector is introduced into host cells, those cells that successfully incorporate the vector will also acquire the antibiotic resistance gene. This allows for the selection of transformed cells by exposing them to the corresponding antibiotic. Only cells that have taken up the vector will survive, indicating successful transformation. Thus, the antibiotic resistance gene serves as a practical phenotypic marker for identifying cells that carry the vector.
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Ways to memorise and never forget?
Answers
Answer:
sleep earlier
Explanation:
Answer:
Write things down
Explanation:
Can someone help me with these questions?
2.) Osmosis is the movement of which type of molecule?
a.) glucose
b.) carbon
c) water
d.) protein
6.) The movement of molecules from an area of HIGH concentration to an area of LOW concentration is known as...
a.) diffusion
b.) active transport
c.) homeostasis
d.) osmosis
7.) Euglena and paramecium are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. They are both considered eukaryotes because they both have...
a.) a nucleus
b.) DNA
c.) cell membrane
d.) ribosomes
10.) Which characteristic distinguishes eukaryotes from prokaryotes?
a.) prokaryotes have a nucleus and eukaryotes do not
b.) prokaryotes have membrane bound organelles and eukaryotes do not
c.) eukaryotes have a nucleus and prokaryotes do not
d.) eukaryotes have a cell membrane and prokaryotes do not
11.) The cell membrane is made of which two molecules?
a.) phospholipids and proteins
b.) carbohydrates and sugars
c.) cellulose and lactose
d.) water and carbon dioxide
16.) Which of the following is a characteristic that BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes share?
a.) have cytoplasm
b.) have cell membrane
c.) have DNA
d.) all of the above
18.) The movement of molecules from a LOW concentration to a HIGH concentration requires the addition of energy. This type of movement is known as...
a.) osmosis
b.) active transport
c.) passive transport
d.) diffusion
19.) What is the major function of the cell's selectively permeable membrane?
a.) to regulate energy production in the cell
b.) to keep the cell's shape
c.) to control molecules entering and leaving the cell
d.) to allow a free flow of molecules
20.) The cell membrane helps to regulate the flow of molecules into and out of the cell and in doing so
a.) forces the cell to expand
b.) allows the cell to perform photosynthesis
c.) helps the cell make proteins
d.) helps the cell to maintain homeostasis
21.) All organisms are made up of fundamental units of life called...
a.) organisms
b.) molecules
c.) tissue
d.) cells
Answers
Answer:
2.) is b
6.) is d
7.) is a
10.) is b
11.) is c
16.) is c
18.) is d
19.) is b
20.) is d
21.) is a
which of the following contributes most directly to the hardness of bones? which of the following contributes most directly to the hardness of bones? articular cartilage periosteum osteoid hydroxyapatite
Answers
The substance that contributes most directly to the hardness of bones is hydroxyapatite.
Hydroxyapatite (HA) is a naturally occurring mineral form of calcium apatite, that is used in bone regeneration and dentistry. It is a calcium phosphate compound that is made up of three atoms of calcium, two atoms of phosphorus, and four atoms of oxygen. In bones and teeth, hydroxyapatite is the primary mineral component.
Hydroxyapatite crystals are formed inside collagen fibers in the bone and teeth. These crystals give bones and teeth their strength, rigidity, and durability. Hydroxyapatite crystals in bone give bones their hardness and resist forces applied to them. In contrast, the collagen matrix in bone gives it its flexibility and resists torsional forces.
Bones and teeth that lack hydroxyapatite crystals are brittle and break easily. For example, people who have low levels of calcium in their diet or who have a medical condition that interferes with calcium metabolism, such as osteoporosis, have an increased risk of bone fractures.
Dental cavities also happen when the enamel that covers the teeth erodes or is damaged, exposing the dentin underneath, which is rich in hydroxyapatite.
Hence, the correct answer is hydroxyapatite.
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What is a likely consequence of continued human population growth? A. More rain forests B. Fewer urban centers Ο Ο Ο Ο O C. Less pollution D. Depleted natural resources
Answers
Answer:
D. Depleted natural resources
Explanation:
If the human population on Earth continues to grow, depletion of natural resources is a very likely consequence.
Especially at the rapid rate that humans consume natural resources, continued population growth would eventually deplete them.
Fossil fuels are an example of natural resources that will eventually deplete, as humans use immense amounts of things like coal and natural gas.
Answer choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they would be consequences of decreased human population growth.
So, the correct answer is D. Depleted natural resources.
20. Which of the following statements about binary fission is false?
a. In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, the outcome of cell reproduction is a pair of daughter
cells, which are genetically identical to the parent cell.
b. Karyokinesis is unnecessary in prokaryotes because there is no nucleus.
c. Replication of the prokaryotic chromosome begins at the origin of replication and continues in
both directions at once.
d. The mitotic spindle draws the duplicated chromosomes to the opposite ends of the cell followed
by formation of a septum and two daughter cells.
Answers
Answer:
D. The mitotic spindle draws the duplicated chromosomes to the opposite ends of the cell followed by the formation of a septum and two daughter cells.
Explanation:
I took the quiz I got a 100%
The statement about binary fission 'the mitotic spindle draws the duplicated chromosomes to the opposite ends of the cell followed by the formation of a septum and two daughter cells' is FALSE.
Binary fission refers to an asexual mode of reproduction by which an organism separates a part of its body (usually a cell) to create two new bodies.
Binary fission represents the most common mode of asexual reproduction and occurs primarily in prokaryotes.
In binary fission, a parent cell divides to produce two genetically identical daughter cells.
During binary fission, there is no mitotic spindle formation within a cell nucleus.
In conclusion, the statement about binary fission 'the mitotic spindle draws the duplicated chromosomes to the opposite ends of the cell followed by the formation of a septum and two daughter cells' is FALSE.
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what is the Atretochoana also know as?
Answers
Answer: penis snake
Explanation:
Atretochoana eiselti is a type of caecilian, a limbless amphibian.
The two types of reproduction are....
Answers
Answer:
Sexual & Asexual
Explanation:
Hope this helped!
Answer:
asexual and sexual.
Explanation:
trust me on this one
An action potential in a particular cell has the same amplitude, same duration, and same shape every time. True or false?.
Answers
This statement is true. An action potential in a particular cell has the same amplitude, same duration, and same shape every time.
When the membrane potential of a particular cell site rapidly increases and decreases, an action potential happens. Following this depolarization, nearby areas also experience depolarization.Nerve signals known as action potentials. In order to deliver these signals to the target tissues, neurons produce and carry them along their processes. They will either be activated, inhibited, or regulated in some way upon stimulus.A sufficient electrochemical value must be present in the appropriate stimulus for the nerve cell's negativity to be reduced to the action potential threshold. There are subthreshold, threshold, and suprathreshold stimuli in this way.An action potential cannot be induced by subthreshold stimuli. The energy or potential of threshold stimuli is sufficient to cause an action potential. Action potentials are also produced by suprathreshold stimuli.Therefore, the statement is true.
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state one similarity and one difference between parasitic and predatory modes of feeding
Answers
Answer:
The parasite obtains food and shelter from the host. Parasitism mode of life ensures food lodging and meals predatory modes is a relationship between a Predator and a Prey in which the predator is a living organism that catches and kills another species for food. They do not get shelter from prey.
The following information is given for an inorganic soil:
Percent passing No. 4 (4.75 mm): 81
Percent passing No. 200 (0.075 mm): 34
Coefficient of gradation (C): 7.0
Uniformity coefficient (Cu): 4.7
Liquid Limit (LL): 53
Plastic Limit (PL): 16
Classify this soil based on Unified Soil Classification System (USCU) and write down its group. symbol and group name.
Group symbol:
Group name:
Answers
The group symbol for this soil is FC.
Group name: The group name for FC in the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS) is "Clay with low to medium plasticity."
The soil can be classified as FC (Clay with low to medium plasticity) based on the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS).
To classify the soil based on the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS), we need the following information:
Percent passing No. 4 (4.75 mm): 81
Percent passing No. 200 (0.075 mm): 34
Coefficient of gradation (C): 7.0
Uniformity coefficient (Cu): 4.7
Liquid Limit (LL): 53
Plastic Limit (PL): 16
Based on the provided information, we can determine the soil classification as follows:
Step 1: Determine the grain-size distribution using the percent passing values.
Based on the percent passing values, the soil is classified as follows:
More than 50% passes the No. 200 sieve (0.075 mm): It is a fine-grained soil.
More than 50% passes the No. 4 sieve (4.75 mm): It is not a coarse-grained soil.
Step 2: Determine the soil behavior using the liquid limit (LL) and plastic limit (PL).
Liquid Limit (LL): 53
Plastic Limit (PL): 16
Calculating the plasticity index (PI):
PI = LL - PL
PI = 53 - 16
PI = 37
Based on the plasticity index (PI), the soil can be classified as follows:
PI > 7: It is a cohesive soil.
Step 3: Determine the group symbol and group name.
Combining the results from Steps 1 and 2, the soil classification can be determined as follows:
Fine-grained soil: F
Cohesive soil: C
Therefore, the group symbol for this soil is FC.
Group name: The group name for FC in the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS) is "Clay with low to medium plasticity."
So, the soil can be classified as FC (Clay with low to medium plasticity) based on the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS).
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Consider the following statement and the diagrams below and answer the questions. *Permanent tissues displaced a variety of shapes and cell wall features that are related to their functions in the plant.
Answers
Option a is parenchyma, option B is collenchyma, and option C is scelerenchyme. All three of these are types of plant tissues that provide structural support and perform various functions in plants.
Parenchyma is one most the common and versatile type of plant tissue that consists of living cells with thin cell walls. Parenchyma cells are generally isodiametric, and they have large central vacuoles. The cells can store nutrients such as starch, proteins, and water, and take part in photosynthesis and gas exchange. Collenchyma cells have an elongated shape, and also providing flexible support and thickened cell wall etc. Sclerenchyma cells provide rigid support to plant organs and help with conductivity too.
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Question 5
What does the word subcellular in paragraph 3 mean?
More complex than a cell
Taken away from a cell
Hidden underneath a cell
Located within a cell
© 2021 Accelerate Learning, Inc. All rights
Answers
Answer:
no clue
Explanation:
Answer:
Located within a cell is a right answer. This is meaning of sub cellular.
Explanation:
How do cells read DNA, and how does DNA code for traits?
Answers
identifying an autosomal recessive mutation in a mutagenic screen in drosophila requires identification of a mutant in the f3 generation. if testing for a sex-linked recessive lethal mutation (e.g., cn) using a balancer chromosome such as cncyo, in which generation can lines with mutations be identified?
Answers
To identify a sex-linked recessive lethal mutation using a balancer chromosome such as cncyo in Drosophila, lines with mutations can be identified in the F1 generation.
A balancer chromosome is a specialized chromosome used in Drosophila genetics to maintain the integrity of a specific genotype during breeding.
In the case of a sex-linked recessive lethal mutation, the balancer chromosome contains multiple inversions that prevent recombination and help maintain the recessive lethal mutation along with visible markers.
The cncyo balancer chromosome, for example, carries the cn mutation, which is recessive and lethal when homozygous.
When performing crosses with a balancer chromosome, the F1 generation will inherit one copy of the balancer chromosome along with the recessive lethal mutation.
The visible markers on the balancer chromosome, such as eye color or wing shape, can be used to identify the presence of the balancer chromosome and, by extension, the presence of the recessive lethal mutation.
If a line exhibits the phenotypic markers associated with the balancer chromosome, it indicates the presence of the recessive lethal mutation.
Therefore, lines with mutations can be identified in the F1 generation when testing for a sex-linked recessive lethal mutation using a balancer chromosome in Drosophila.
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Which tatement BEST decribe the relationhip between adenoine diphophate (ADP and adenoine triphophate (ATP)?
©
A. With an input of energy, ADP rearrange to become ATP. B. Without any energy change, ADP rearrange to become ATP. • C. With an input of energy, ADP combine with a phophate group to become ATP. O D. With a releae of energy, ADP combine with a phophate group to become ATP
Answers
The link between adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is best explained by the fact that when energy is added, ADP interacts with a phosphate group to form ATP. The right Option is (c).
The mitochondria of cells are thought of as the powerhouse since ATP is produced there. As seen in the reaction below, ATP is produced when ADP reacts with an inorganic phosphate and an energy source to generate ADP;
Pi + energy + ATP + H2O = ADP + inorganic phosphate
One adenine, one sugar, and two phosphates make up the biological molecule known as adenosine diphosphate (ADP). Its most crucial function is the creation of ATP, the most vital energy molecule in living cells, when it is coupled with a phosphate molecule. An enzyme called ATP synthase produces ATP during oxidative phosphorylation. Specifically, protons travel through the protein and cause a conformational change once a proton gradient is established. ADP and inorganic phosphate are then combined by ATP synthase to form an ATP molecule.
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Correct Question:
Which statement BEST describes the relationship between adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
A. With an input of energy, ADP rearranges to become ATP.
B. Without any energy change, ADP rearranges to become ATP.
C. With an input of energy, ADP combines with a phosphate group to become ATP.
D. With a release of energy, ADP combines with a phosphate group to become ATP.