The dividend yield would be = 4.94%%
Dividend refers to praise, cash or otherwise, that an organization gives to its shareholders. Dividends may be issued in various paperwork, such as cash payment, stocks, or any other form.
A dividend is a distribution of profits with the aid of a company to its shareholders. whilst an enterprise earns an income or surplus, it can pay a share of the profit as a dividend to shareholders. Any quantity not allotted is taken to be re-invested within the business.
The solution to the given question is:
Given,
Dividend per share = $5
Let the initial stock price be $x
Now the stock price increased by 10%
Therefore the present stock price = x + (x*10%)
= (110*x)/100 = 1.1*x
Now in the formula,
Dividend yield = (15*x)/(1.1*x)
= 5/1.1
= 4.94%%
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The price, which may be in the form of money, a promise, or a performed act, is known as a(n)?
The price, which may be in the form of money, a promise, or a performed act, is known as a consideration.
What is consideration?Consideration is the exchange of a promise for anything of value, usually in the form of commodities, cash, or an act, from the promisor to the promisee.Consideration is defined as giving someone or something careful thought, attention, or a sympathetic regard.A person choosing between two supper alternatives is an illustration of deliberation.Another illustration of consideration is when a friend of yours who recently had a baby is invited to dinner.The term "consideration" refers to anything of value that is promised by one party to the other when entering into a contract. For instance, if A forms a contract with B to purchase a car from B for $5,000, A's consideration is the $5,000, and B's consideration is the car.
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If a bond is trading at a premium, what is the relationship between the bond's coupon rate, current yield and yield to maturity?
Bonds acquired at premiums often have lower yields to maturity than bonds purchased at market rates. This is further explained below.
What is a bond?Generally, Bonds are financial securities that reflect loans made to the issuer by the bondholders themselves. When it comes to borrowing money, governments (at all levels) and companies (of all sizes) often turn to bonds.
In conclusion, If you buy a bond at a discount, the yield to maturity will be lower than its coupon rate.
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Consider a Zerobond (i.e., a bond that pays no coupon payment, meaning that the coupon rate on the bond is 0%) with a par value of $5,000 that will mature exactly 16 years from today. The current YTM a of this Zerobond is 7.35%. Two years ago, the YTM of the same Zerobond was 8.61%. Calculate the dollar price increase/decrease (2 decimal places) within the last two years. If the bond falls in price, enter your answer on D2L as a negative value (i.e., put a minus sign before your number with no space between the minus sign and the number). If the bond increases in price, record the dollar amount of the increase.
The Zerobond in question has a par value of $5,000 and will mature in 16 years, with a current yield to maturity of 7.35%. Two years ago, the YTM was 8.61%. To calculate the dollar price increase/decrease over the last two years, we need to use the bond price formula. The formula is:
Bond Price = Par Value / (1 + YTM)^n
where n is the number of years until maturity.
Using this formula, we can calculate the bond price two years ago and compare it to the current bond price:
Bond Price two years ago = $5,000 / (1 + 0.0861)^16 = $1,677.54
Current Bond Price = $5,000 / (1 + 0.0735)^16 = $3,469.89
To find the dollar price increase/decrease, we subtract the bond price two years ago from the current bond price:
$3,469.89 - $1,677.54 = $1,792.35
Since," the bond price increased over the last two years, we record the dollar amount of the increase, which is $1,792.35."
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In what country do the three largest shareholders control, on average, about 60 percent of the shares of a public company?
a. Great Britain
b. Italy
c. United States
d. Canada
Answer:
b. Italy
Explanation:
Even though this % doesn't apply to all corporations, it is still a very small number of shareholders that control corporations (and their board) on average. We can compare this situation to the American normality, where any shareholder that owns 5% or more of a large corporation is considered a major shareholder and must report himself/herself to the SEC as such.
In the US, many of the corporations would be considered closed corporations. The smaller the number of shareholders with large decision power, the less small shareholders can do.
Which of the following is a normative statement in economics ?
A. More spending by the government reduces poverty
B. Higher taxes lead to less desire to work
C. The Pakistan’s economy is growing fast relative to other SAARC members
D. The government should concentrate on reducing unemployment
The normative statement is the government should concentrate on reducing unemployment
A normative assertion is one that states how the world ought to be. This claim demonstrates a value judgement regarding the desirability of a circumstance and frequently reflects value judgements. It describes how the world is. For instance, it is just a personal view to say that globalization causes societal tensions in developing nations.
In economics, these statements are one that reflects a value judgement or a belief about what should be, as opposed to stating what is. Instead of describing how things are, it makes a statement about how they ought to be. In this instance, statement D articulates the opinion that decreasing unemployment should be a top priority for the government, making it a normative statement.
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Leading is solely the responsibility of the manager.
true
false
Leading is solely the responsibility of the manager, is the false statement. Hence, option B is correct.
Who is manager?A manager is the one who leads the members of the team, or it can be said that a manager is the one who guides, motivates, and takes the responsibility of the project solely into his/her hands.
There are numerous qualities, skills, and experiences required to be a manager, such as excellent communication skills, leadership qualities, team management, motivator skills, the ability to effectively handle challenges, and so on.
A good manager has strong, situation-specific communication skills. He or she might be able to convey strategic goals to a room full of executives as well as identify extremely specific goals for a project team. A valuable soft talent is the ability to demonstrate competence in a variety of communication techniques.
Thus, option B is correct.
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Thinking about two or three of your
favourite brand names, what are the
characteristics of the brand name
that make them stand out in your
mind?
Brand equity refers to the value and strength of a brand, while the four dimensions of brand equity include awareness, associations, perceived quality, and loyalty.
Brand equity represents the overall worth of a brand in the marketplace. The four dimensions of brand equity provide a framework for assessing brand strength. Brand awareness ensures that consumers recognize and remember the brand, while brand associations shape its unique identity. Perceived quality reflects customers' perception of the brand's superiority, impacting purchase decisions. Brand loyalty indicates customer attachment and repeat purchase behavior.
By applying these dimensions to favorite brand names, one can evaluate their market position, customer recognition, brand identity, product quality perception, and customer loyalty levels. High brand equity implies a strong brand with positive associations, strong customer loyalty, and a competitive advantage in the market.
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The complete question is:
Thinking about two or three of your favourite brand names, what are the characteristics of these brand names that make them stand out in your mind?what is brand equity?Do these brands have a high brand equity? how can you apply the four dimensions of brand equity to them?
In what ways can hoodies be disposed of? Explain the transaction records along with the outline for each route brainly
Hoodies as personal assets can be disposed of in these three ways: trade-in as scrap, de-recognition, outright sale.
The transaction records for each disposal method include removing the cost of the asset from the fixed assets register and its accumulated depreciation, recording the disposal receipts, and computing the profit or loss from the disposal if any.
Thus, for the disposal of hoodies (personal assets), the transaction records remove the cost and accumulated depreciation from the accounts, record the disposal receipts, and compute the profit or loss.
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Select three reasons why the CMO in the chapter example wanted to revamp the marketing plan?
1. There is no use of Mayo
2. Peoples taste changed
3. Customers increasingly preferred organic
4. People don't care about calorie intake
5. Demand for chicken sandwiches varied widely
Answer:
B
C
E
Explanation:
The other options do not make sense so these are the right answers I think, lol
Reasons why the CMO in the chapter example wanted to revamp the marketing plan:
2. People's tastes changed
3. Customers increasingly preferred organic
5. Demand for chicken sandwiches varied widely
Chief medical officerChief medical officer (CMO) is the title used in many countries for the senior government official designated head of medical services, sometimes at the national level. The post is held by a physician who serves to advise and lead a team of medical experts on matters of public health importance.
What is the role of the chief medical officer?Chief medical officers are healthcare administrators who oversee the effective management of medical centers. They are responsible for managing clinical operations, liaising between the administration and medical staff, and ensuring that patients receive the highest standard of medical care.
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What would you like to know?
Answer:
I like these free points. Also Panic! At The Disco anyone?
Explanation:
just say sum and ill give you alot of points⇒⇒⇒⇒
Ultimately concern over BP's ______ is pushing many investors to sell the company's stock.
A. business model
B. future cash flow
C. management
D. none of the above
(B.) future cash flow, In the end, worries over BP's future cash flow are causing many investors to liquidate their shares in the corporation.
Inflation and return are taken into consideration as it compares the present worth of money now to the present value of money in the future. A price is produced by the net present value (NPV) of a series of cash flows using inputs of cash flows and a discount rate or discount curve. Planning your financial flow is crucial since you need money in the bank to pay your payments. A method of valuation known as discounted cash flow (DCF) is used to estimate the value of an investment based on its expected return in the future, or future cash flows. DCF makes it easier to determine the current value of an investment based on expected future returns.
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When do companies often turn to brand image as a source of differentiation advantage? A- When their products have achieved top-of-mind awareness in their customers B- When there is difficulty differentiating products based upon features, reliability, or convenience C- When their products or services have the largest network of loyal customers in the industry D- When they produce services that are more reliable than the services of their competitors
Companies often turn to brand image as a source of differentiation advantage when there is difficulty differentiating products based upon features, reliability, or convenience. Therefore, the correct answer is B- When there is difficulty differentiating products based upon features, reliability, or convenience.
When products or services in a particular industry become similar in terms of features, quality, or convenience, companies may focus on building a strong brand image to differentiate themselves from competitors.
Brand image encompasses the perceptions, associations, and reputation that customers have towards a brand. It goes beyond the tangible attributes of a product or service and represents the emotional and psychological connection customers have with the brand.
By developing a unique and appealing brand image, companies can create a distinct identity in the minds of consumers, differentiate themselves from competitors, and establish a competitive advantage.
A strong brand image can attract and retain customers, enhance customer loyalty, and command premium pricing.
While achieving top-of-mind awareness (option A) and having a large network of loyal customers (option C) can be outcomes of a strong brand image, they are not the primary reasons why companies turn to brand image as a source of differentiation advantage.
Option D, producing more reliable services than competitors, relates more to the operational aspect of service delivery rather than brand image differentiation.
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How does specialization affect voluntary exchange between countries?
Answer:
It increases voluntary exchange by encouraging other countries to be less self-sufficient
Explanation:
True or false? A critical part of a family firm transfer from one generation to the next is to discuss decisions with potential heirs as well as family members working in the company.
True. It is true that a critical part of a family firm transfer from one generation to the next involves discussing decisions with potential heirs and family members working in the company. This ensures smooth succession, continuity, and alignment of goals among stakeholders.
A critical part of a family firm transfer from one generation to the next is to involve potential heirs and family members working in the company in the decision-making process. This ensures that everyone is aware of the transfer plan and has a say in the decisions that affect the future of the business .The specific circumstances and dynamics of each family firm. It is important to consider factors such as family relationships, communication styles, and individual goals and aspirations when deciding on the best approach to transfer the business to the next generation. Ultimately, open and honest communication is key to a successful family firm transfer.
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Suppose that a worker in Cornland can grow either 40 bushels of corn or 10 bushels of oats per year, and a worker in Oatland can grow either 5 bushels of corn or 50 bushels of oats per year. There are 20 workers in Cornland and 20 workers in Oatland. If the two countries do not trade, Cornland will produce and consume 400 bushels of corn and 100 bushels of oats, while Oatland will produce and consume 60 bushels of corn and 400 bushels of oats. If each country made the decision to specialize in producing the good in which it has a comparative advantage, then the combined yearly output of the two countries would increase by
Answer:
see. I hope it's helpful for you lolExplanation:
i need friend lol can you my friendA) the pay rate differential between the arts and entertainment industry and the construction industry is. The relative pay difference between the arts and entertainment industry and the construction industry is
The pay rate differential between the arts and entertainment industry and the construction industry is the difference in the average salary or wage for workers in these two industries.
This difference can be calculated by subtracting the average pay in the construction industry from the average pay in the arts and entertainment industry.
For example, if the average pay in the arts and entertainment industry is $50,000 per year and the average pay in the construction industry is $40,000 per year, the pay rate differential would be $10,000 ($50,000 - $40,000).
It is important to note that the pay rate differential can vary depending on factors such as geographic location, level of education, and experience. Additionally, the pay rate differential may not accurately reflect the overall compensation package, which can include benefits such as health insurance and retirement plans.
Overall, the pay rate differential between the arts and entertainment industry and the construction industry is an important factor to consider when comparing salaries and making career decisions.
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An emergency fund should NOT be used for… repairing your laptop that you use for homework. a sudden health issue that needs care. a last minute school trip. fixing a blown tire on your car that you use to get to work.
An emergency fund should NOT be used for a last minute school trip. Option 3
What should the emergency fund be used for?An emergency fund is typically intended to cover unexpected and urgent expenses that could not have been anticipated or budgeted for in advance. It is important to use your emergency fund wisely and not to deplete it for non-essential expenses.
Based on that, it is generally not recommended to use your emergency fund for a last-minute school trip or repairing your laptop that you use for homework, as these expenses are not urgent or unexpected.
On the other hand, using your emergency fund to cover a sudden health issue that requires care or fixing a blown tire on your car that you use to get to work can be considered legitimate uses of the fund, as they are unforeseen and necessary expenses.
It is important to have a clear understanding of what constitutes an emergency and to use your emergency fund accordingly to ensure that it remains available to cover truly urgent and unforeseen expenses.
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Answer:
C. a last minute school trip
Explanation:
on a market graph which of the following is represented by a line that slips upward from left to right?
The law of supply is expressed by the supply curve, which rises from left to right: The amount supplied rises as a certain commodity's price rises (all else being equal).
A Supply Curve: What Is It?
The supply curve illustrates the relationship between the price of an item or service and the volume delivered over a specific time period. In a typical scenario, the amount supplied will be shown on the horizontal axis and the price will be shown on the left vertical axis.
KEY LESSONS
On the majority of supply curves, as a good's price rises, so does the amount supplied.
Supply curves can frequently predict whether the price of a commodity will rise or fall in response to demand.
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of money market instruments? A. low default risk
B. small denominations C. short term to maturity
D. high marketability
The characteristic that is not associated with money market instruments is D.
High marketability. Money market instruments are typically characterized by low default risk, small denominations, and short-term maturity. Marketability refers to the ease with which an instrument can be bought or sold in the market. While money market instruments are generally considered liquid and easily traded, they may not possess the same level of high marketability as other financial instruments, such as highly traded stocks or currencies. Money market instruments primarily focus on providing short-term funding and liquidity rather than actively seeking high marketability.
Money market instruments are known for their low default risk, which means there is a minimal chance of the issuer defaulting on payments. This makes them a relatively safe investment option. Additionally, money market instruments are typically issued in small denominations, making them accessible to a wide range of investors. Lastly, these instruments have a short time to maturity, typically less than a year, which allows investors to earn returns in a shorter period and have greater flexibility with their investments. While money market instruments may be traded in the market, their marketability may not be as high as other more actively traded financial instruments.
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the fcra applies only to the 3 main credit reporting bureaus -- equifax, experian, and transunion. true or false
False. The Fair Credit Reporting Act (FCRA) applies not only to the three main credit reporting bureaus - Equifax, Experian, and TransUnion - but to all consumer reporting agencies that collect and maintain consumer credit information.
The FCRA sets guidelines for how consumer reporting agencies can collect, use, and disclose consumer credit information. It also gives consumers the right to access and dispute their credit reports. This means that any company that collects and reports credit information on individuals must comply with the FCRA.
Additionally, the FCRA applies to businesses that use consumer reports for employment purposes or to determine eligibility for credit or insurance. So, it is important to note that the FCRA applies to all credit reporting agencies and businesses that use consumer reports, not just the three main bureaus.
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Carrie made an initial investment of $50,000.the final value of her investment was $55,500.what was the roi?
Answer:
sorry i am not good with this subject i want to help but i cant sorry
Explanation:
The Future Lab Program, which is a part of Sony's investment in R&D, embraces an approach to technological R&D that emphasizes an open creative environment and direct lines of communication with society, with the end goal being to co-create new lifestyles and customer value. Does Sony create significant customer value? Does Sony create new lifestyles?
Answer:
Sony's goal with Future Lab is to create customer value and new lifestyles, whether they are able to do so depends on how well they work it out. Future Labs is based on San Francisco, and it should serve as a place where innovative prototypes should be tested by real users. The goal is that Sony can learn from actual real life user experiences in order to improve their products and services. The real life customers and users that want to participate in Sony's program must pay a fee for doing so, but they can also experience prototypes before anyone else.
Explain in detail how Boulders Mall's management may have used media relations as a public relations tool to try to resolve controversy.
Explanation:
The management of Boulders Mall made use of the media to offer an apology for what happened in the shopping center, making it clear that there was not actually an act of discrimination due to the way the man dressed in traditional Ndebele clothes dressed and clarifying that in no case At the time, man was discriminated against because of his culture or his traditions.
This was a public way of "calming" the controversies and upsets that could have been generated in many people, because we must remember that this type of action can generate rejection by the community towards the shopping center and generate great economic losses.
because of tax competition, state and local taxes tend to be , while federal taxes tend to be .
State and municipal taxes are frequently regressive due to tax rivalry, whereas federal taxes are frequently progressive.
The majority of federal taxes: are they progressive or regressive?When the tax rate you pay rises as your income does, this is known as a progressive tax. The federal income tax in the US is graduated. Gradually increasing tax rates, from 10% to 37%, are available.
Do municipal and state income taxes have a progressive or regressive effect?State personal income taxes are frequently progressive, meaning that as income increases, so do the effective tax rates. Low-income families typically pay.04 percent of their salaries in taxes, middle-class families 2.1 percent, and the wealthiest 1 percent, 4.6 percent.
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MF enterprise is considering two mutually exclusive projects. Both projects require an initial investment of $10,000 and are typical average-risk projects for the firm. Project A has an expected life of 2 years with after-tax cash inflows of $6,000 and $8,000 at the end of Years 1 and 2, respectively. Project B has an expected life of 4 years with after-tax cash inflows of $4,000 at the end of each of the next 4 years. The firm's WACC is 10%. i. If the projects cannot be repeated, which project should be selected if IMF uses NPV as its criterion for project selection? ii. Assume that the projects can be repeated and that there are no anticipated changes in the cash flows. Use the replacement chain analysis to determine the NPV of the project selected. Show all workings (Students can copy and paste workings from Excel)
If the projects cannot be repeated, project b should be selected as it has a higher npv.
i. to determine which project should be selected using the net present value (npv) criterion, we need to calculate the npv for both project a and project b. the formula for npv is:
npv = ∑ (cash inflow / (1 + wacc)ⁿ) - initial investment
where:
- cash inflow is the after-tax cash inflow for each year
- wacc is the weighted average cost of capital (given as 10%)
- n is the year of the cash inflow
calculating the npv for project a:
year 1: $6,000 / (1 + 0.10)¹ = $5,454.55
year 2: $8,000 / (1 + 0.10)² = $6,611.57
npv of project a = $5,454.55 + $6,611.57 - $10,000 = $2,066.12
calculating the npv for project b:
year 1: $4,000 / (1 + 0.10)¹ = $3,636.36
year 2: $4,000 / (1 + 0.10)² = $3,305.79
year 3: $4,000 / (1 + 0.10)³ = $3,005.26
year 4: $4,000 / (1 + 0.10)⁴ = $2,732.06
npv of project b = $3,636.36 + $3,305.79 + $3,005.26 + $2,732.06 - $10,000 = $2,679.47
comparing the npvs, project a has an npv of $2,066.12, while project b has an npv of $2,679.47. ii. to determine the npv using the replacement chain analysis, we assume the projects can be repeated without any changes in cash flows. in this case, we need to calculate the npv for an infinite number of project repetitions. the formula for npv in this scenario is:
npv = cash inflow / (wacc - g)
where:
- g is the growth rate of cash flows (assumed to be zero)
calculating the npv for project a with infinite repetitions:
year 1: $6,000 / (0.10 - 0) = $60,000
year 2: $8,000 / (0.10 - 0) = $80,000
npv of project a (infinite repetitions) = $60,000 + $80,000 - $10,000 = $130,000
calculating the npv for project b with infinite repetitions:
year 1: $4,000 / (0.10 - 0) = $40,000
year 2: $4,000 / (0.10 - 0) = $40,000
year 3: $4,000 / (0.10 - 0) = $40,000
year 4: $4,000 / (0.10 - 0) = $40,000
npv of project b (infinite repetitions) = $40,000 + $40,000 + $40,000 + $40,000 - $10,000 = $150,000
comparing the npvs, project a (infinite repetitions) has an npv of $130,000, while project b (in
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i like peopel but people dont like me so what do i do i woulder why so can so who can help me please because no one wants to so please help me.
who was in paris????
Answer: i wish i was in paris
Explanation:
Answer:
Ernest hemlingway
Explanation:
he was a Paris writer in 1899-1961
Which sequence of HACCP principles is in the correct order?
A.
Establish critical limits for each CCP, conduct a hazard analysis, and establish corrective actions.
B.
Conduct a hazard analysis, identify CCPs, and establish critical limits for each CCP.
C.
Establish record-keeping procedures, establish corrective actions, and establish CCP monitoring requirements.
D.
Establish CCP monitoring requirements, conduct a hazard analysis, and identify CCPs.
E.
Conduct a hazard analysis, identify CCPs, and establish CCP monitoring requirements.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Hazard analysis of critical control point (HACCP) is a process of identifying and assessing risks alongside the biological , physical and chemical hazards associated with food production .
The sequence of the first three of the seven principles are
1. Conduct hazard analysis to determine potential risks related to food protection
2. Identify the critical control point (CCP) which addresses controlling identified hazards that are mostly likely to cause injury to health
3. Establishing critical limits for each CCP , which is the highest or lowest level a biological ,physical or chemical parameter must be controlled to prevent or minimize hazards.
Answer:
B. Conduct a hazard analysis, identify CCPs, and establish critical limits for each CCP
Explanation:
Matt is the curator at a large national museum. He researches and catalogs new art pieces that are submitted to the museum. What education might have been necessary for Matt to attain this position? O A. O B. O C. O D. high school diploma associate degree in performing arts bachelor's degree in art history doctorate in computer sciences
The best education for Matt to attain the position of curator at a large national museum is an Option C. bachelor's degree in art history.
A curator is a person who is in charge of the collection and display of artifacts in a museum. Curators are responsible for organizing exhibits, acquiring new collections, and keeping the existing ones in good shape, among other duties. The work of a curator demands a high degree of knowledge of the materials they handle, in addition to organizational skills and the ability to engage with the public.
Curators must typically hold a bachelor's degree in a field related to the collection they oversee. Art history, anthropology, or archaeology are popular majors for curators. Additionally, they should have experience in their particular field of expertise. Furthermore, many museums will require their curators to have a Master's degree or Ph.D. in their field or a related one. These degrees are obtained in specialized postgraduate degree programs, and they demonstrate a deeper understanding of the subject matter and a commitment to the field.
The education for Matt to attain this position would be a bachelor's degree in art history. Art history is the study of visual art throughout history. It is an academic discipline that combines cultural and historical perspectives to examine and understand visual art. In this field, you will learn about artists and their works, styles and movements, and the cultural contexts that surrounded them. This knowledge is critical to the work of curating art collections, and it will enable Matt to be efficient in his job. Therefore, the correct option is C.
The question was incomplete, Find the full content below:
Matt is the curator at a large national museum. He researches and catalogs new art pieces that are submitted to the museum. What education might have been necessary for Matt to attain this position?
A. high school diploma
B. associate degree in performing arts
C. bachelor's degree in art history
D. doctorate in computer sciences
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