Can someone please help me?

Answer:

1) Ans; C .

2) Ans; D.

3) Ans; A.

4) Ans; C.

Answer:

D. 34 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

25+9=34

Jim is 34ft below Jenifer

Answer:

33 boys

Step-by-step explanation:

Since 45% of the participants were female and there were a total of 80 students, 36 of the 80 students were female. That means that 44 of the students were male.

25% of 44 is 11. So there are 11 boys that are not employed. From there you can just subtract 44 - 11 and get 33.

33 boys are employed

Answer:

33 students

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's take this step-by-step. First, we know that the sample includes a total number of 80 high school students, and 45% of them are female.

This means that 55% of them are male students, which is required to answer the question. 80 × 0.55 = 44 male students.

Next, 25% of the male students are not employed. This means that 75% of the male students are employed. So, 44 × 0.75 = 33 male students.

The independent variable in this study is sleep deprivation, as the study aims to investigate the effects of sleep deprivation on the ability to drive.

This study is an experimental study that measures the effects of sleep deprivation on the ability to drive. The sample size is 19 professional drivers, and the study uses a within-subjects design as each driver participated in two experimental sessions: one after normal sleep and one after 27 hours of total sleep deprivation. The treatments were assigned in random order, meaning that each driver has an equal chance of being assigned to either the sleep deprivation or normal sleep condition. The outcome variable in this study is performance on a variety of tasks, including a driving simulation. The independent variable in this study is sleep deprivation, as the study aims to investigate the effects of sleep deprivation on the ability to drive.

Thus, The independent variable in this study is sleep deprivation, as the study aims to investigate the effects of sleep deprivation on the ability to drive.

To learn more about Experiment

Visit; brainly.com/question/11256472

#SPJ4

The probability of rolling a sum from 2 to 12 on 2 dices is 100%

Given the data,

The two dice should be rolled.

Now, there are 36 possibilities that might occur while rolling two normal six-sided dice. The reason for this is that when rolling two dice, the total number of outcomes is the product of the numbers of outcomes for each die, and each die has six potential outcomes (numbers 1 through 6).

The resultant 36 results are as follows:

1-1, 1-2, 1-3, 1-4, 1-5, 1-6

2-1, 2-2, 2-3, 2-4, 2-5, 2-6

3-1, 3-2, 3-3, 3-4, 3-5, 3-6

4-1, 4-2, 4-3, 4-4, 4-5, 4-6

5-1, 5-2, 5-3, 5-4, 5-5, 5-6

6-1, 6-2, 6-3, 6-4, 6-5, 6-6

When using two dice, there are a total of 36 possibilities that might occur.

As a result, the results' total ranges from 2 to 12.

Hence , the probability is 100 %

Click here for additional information about probability.

https://brainly.com/question/17089724

#SPJ1

Answer:

y-25=180

Step-by-step explanation:

Same line so 180 degrees.

Answer: D or “y + 25 = 180”

a straight line is 180 degrees, therefore the combination of two angles should equal 180.

With that being said the answer should be y plus 25 = 180!

to find y, flip the equation: 180 - 25 = 155. Therefore y = 155 :)

happy to help! pls give me brainliest <3

Answer:

5 1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Apply +133.3% to the sides

1/2=1/2=1/2.is the value for the given equivalent fraction, by putting the value 3.4 in the numerators respectively

The fractions with distinct numerators and denominators but the same value are said to be equivalent fractions.

For instance, since 2/4 and 3/6 both equal the 1/2, they are identical fractions. An element of a whole is a fraction. The same amount of the whole is represented by equivalent fractions.

1/2 =    /6 =   /8.

a. Multiply numerator and denominator by 3 for equivalenting the equation    /6

Therefore,

3*3/6*3

=9/18

=1/2

therefore:1/2=1/2.

b. Multiply numerator by 4

Therefore,

4/8

=1/2.

Therefore:

1/2=1/2.

1/2=1/2=1/2.

Learn more about equivalent fraction here:

https://brainly.com/question/29775885

#SPJ1

Answer:

The equation of the least square regression line for predicting selling price from appraised value is:

\(\text{Selling Price}=227.0989 + 0.8991\ \text{Appraised Value}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

The general form of the  least square regression line is:

\(y=a+bx\)

Here,

y = dependent variable

x = independent variable

a = y-intercept

b = slope

The Minitab output for regressing selling price on appraised value is:

Predictor          Coef       SE Coef       T

Constant      227.0989    95.044    2.389

Appraisal          0.8991       0.133     6.76

S = 88.7959

R-Sq = 76.5%

R-Sq (adj) = 74.9%

The constant term in the regression output represents the y-intercept and the Appraisal coefficient the slope of the regression line.

Then the equation of the least square regression line for predicting selling price from appraised value is:

\(\text{Selling Price}=227.0989 + 0.8991\ \text{Appraised Value}\)

Answer:

4(7 + x)

Step-by-step explanation:

28 + 4x

4 ⋅ 7 + 4x

4(7 + x)

good luck hope this helps :)

Find the greatest common factor for the terms involved in the polynomial.

In this case, the greatest common factor between 28 and 4 is 4.

So a 4 factors out of this polynomial.

That leaves us with each term divided by 4

inside a set of parentheses.

So we have 4(7 + x).

Now you can check your answer by distributing the 4 through

the parentheses and you will end up with your original polynomial.

If you would do this in whole number form, it'll be 40/7.

Answer:

3 5/7

Step-by-step explanation:

picture

Kamryn would save $159.99 in interest by raising her credit score from 665 to 680 when borrowing $13,250.00 with a simple interest rate loan.

To determine the amount of interest Kamryn will save by raising her credit score from 665 to 680, we need to compare the interest rates associated with each credit score range.

According to the given information, a credit score of 665 falls within the range of 580-669, where the corresponding simple interest rate is 10.358%.

Let's calculate the interest Kamryn would pay on a loan of $13,250.00 at an interest rate of 10.358%.

Interest = Principal * Rate

= $13,250.00 * 0.10358

≈ $1,370.56

Therefore, if Kamryn were to borrow $13,250.00 with a credit score of 665, she would pay approximately $1,370.56 in interest.

Now, let's consider the scenario where Kamryn raises her credit score to 680. A credit score of 680 falls within the range of 670-739, where the corresponding simple interest rate is 9.132%.

Calculating the interest with a credit score of 680:

Interest = Principal * Rate

= $13,250.00 * 0.09132

≈ $1,210.57

Thus, if Kamryn were able to raise her credit score from 665 to 680, she would save approximately $1,370.56 - $1,210.57 = $159.99 in interest.

Therefore, Kamryn would save approximately $159.99 in interest by raising her credit score from 665 to 680 when borrowing $13,250.00 with a simple interest rate loan.

For more question on interest visit:

https://brainly.com/question/25720319

#SPJ8

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

(21+13/74-18x3)x10=17

rad3/ 2=0.86

ad 281^r2-160^2=231

2^10-2^9=512

ultima= 4

The size of the velocity of the ball in the direction of the wind is 2 units

To find the size of the velocity of the ball in the direction of the wind, we can take the dot product of the ball's velocity vector and the wind velocity vector.

The dot product is defined as:

v1 • v2 = (x1 × x2) + (y1 × y2)

Substituting the coordinates of the ball's velocity vector and the wind velocity vector, we get:

(2, 1) • (3, -4) = (2 ×3) + (1 × (-4))

= 6 - 4

= 2

Therefore, the size of the velocity of the ball in the direction of the wind is 2. This represents the component of the ball's velocity that is aligned with the wind.

Learn more about size of velocity on:

https://brainly.com/question/13899086

#SPJ1

Answer: 13500%

Step-by-step explanation:

73+62=135

135 to make a percentage you would multiply 135 times 100=13500%

I think thats right

Answer:

24 2/5ft

Step-by-step explanation:

add all the sides together.

4ft x 2

3ft x 2      

10 2/5 x 1

=

24 2/5

Answer:

2x+16

Step-by-step explanation:

2(x+7)+2 = (f⋅g)(x)

2x+14+2=

2x+16= (f⋅g)(x)

ok

Is this correct?

Vetex = (-1, -12)

Answer:

The power is 4

Step-by-step explanation:

2401 = 7 ^ (6-2x)

rewriting 2401 as 7^4

7^4 =  7 ^ (6-2x)

Answer:

7 to the power of 4

Step-by-step explanation:

7 x 7 x 7 x 7 = 2401

or 7^4

The table is completed as follows using the double-declining-balance method of depreciation:

Year Cost   Accumulated  Book Value  Depreciation Accumulated  Book

                   Depreciation        B.O.Y         Expense     Depreciation  Value

                        B.O.Y                                                               E.O.Y       E.O.Y

1    $30,000          $0           $30,000         $12,000         $12,000  $18,000

2   $30,000    $12,000          $18,000         $7,200           $19,200  $10,800

3   $30,000   $19,200          $10,800           $4,320          $23,520   $6,480

The double-declining-balance approach is what?

The double-declining-balance method is one of the depreciation techniques in use, however it adds additional costs in the first years of an asset's life.

In this depreciation method, the straight-line rate, which is computed as the product of 100/estimated useful life multiplied by 2, is twice.

At the conclusion of each year, the leftover balance for the depreciation charge is adjusted using the double rate.

The difference between the closing balance from the previous year and the residual value is used to determine the depreciation charge for the most recent year.

Auto  = $30,000

Estimated useful life = 5 years

Residual = $800

Depreciable amount = $30,000 - $800 = 29,200

Straight-line depreciation rate = 100/5 = 20%

Double-declining depreciation rate =20% x 2 = 40%

Depreciation Expense:

1st year = 30,000 x 40/100 = 12,000

2nd year = 18,000 x 40/100 = 7,200

3rd year = 10,800 x 40/100 = 4,320

4th year = 6,480 x 40/100 = 2,592

5th year = 3,888 x 40/100 = 1,555

Year Cost   Accumulated  Book Value  Depreciation Accumulated Book

                   Depreciation        B.O.Y         Expense      Depreciation   Value

                        B.O.Y                                                               E.O.Y       E.O.Y

1    $30,000          $0           $30,000         $12,000         $12,000  $18,000

2   $30,000    $12,000          $18,000         $7,200           $19,200  $10,800

3   $30,000   $19,200          $10,800           $4,320          $23,520   $6,480

4   $30,000  $23,520          $6,480           $2,592           $26,112   $3,888

5  $30,000  $26,112            $3,888          $1555           $27,667     $2,332

Learn more about declining balance method here;

https://brainly.com/question/29335025

#SPJ1

Answer:do homework

Step-by-step explanation:

Step-by-step explanation:

angles 1 and 3 are supplementary angles (together they have 180°), because together they make sure that line f is a straight line, and there are no segments of the line angling "off". a straight line can be always seen as prolonged diameter of a circle. each side represents a half-circle with 180°.

a line intersecting 2 parallel lines has the same intersection angles with both lines, as parallel lines perfectly copy each other's behavior and attributes except for the y-intercept.

the angles of intersecting lines are the same in both sides of any of the 2 lines, they are just left-right mirrored.

therefore,

angle 1 = 82° = angle 2

angle 3 = 180 - angle 1 = 180 - 82 = 98° = angle 4

Answer:

  ∠1 = 82°

  ∠3 = 98°

Step-by-step explanation:

You want the measures of angles 1 and 3 where a transversal crosses parallel lines and one of the angles is marked as 82°.

The "alternate interior angles theorem" tells you that the alternate interior angles created by a transversal crossing parallel lines are congruent. Hence angle 1 is congruent to the one marked 82°.

  ∠1 = 82°

The angles of a linear pair are supplementary. Angles 1 and 3 form a linear pair, so ...

  ∠3 = 180° -∠1 = 180° -82°

  ∠3 = 98°

__

Additional comment

"Interior" angles are between the parallel lines. "Exterior" angles are outside the parallel lines. "Alternate" angles are on opposite sides of the transversal. "Consecutive" or "same-side" angles are on the same side of the transversal. (Angles 2 and 4 are "consecutive".)

"Corresponding" angles are in the same direction from the point of intersection of the transversal with the parallel lines. In this figure, angle 2 and the one marked 82° are corresponding. Corresponding angles are congruent. If you remember that, and that vertical angles are congruent, and linear pairs are supplementary, you can figure out all of the other relationships.

In the end, when the lines are parallel, all of the acute angles are congruent, and all of the obtuse angles are congruent. The acute and obtuse angles are supplementary. The angle relations themselves are pretty simple; the rest is a lot of vocabulary.

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

Mark me brainliest plzzz

By using the table, we see that the correct options are:

a) f(2) = 7

b) f(x) = 3 when x = 8.

c) f⁻¹(7) = 2

d) f⁻¹(x) = 8 when x = 3.

Here we have a table of x and f(x).

First, we want to find f(2). To get that, we need to go to the row where we have x = 2.

In that same row we can see that f(x) = 7.

Then f(2) = 7.

Then it says:

"if f(x) = 3, then x = ?"

This time we do the opposite. We find the row where f(x) = 3, and then we see the value of x in that row.

In the second row (counting from the bottom) we can see that when x = 8, f(x) = 3.

Then:

"if f(x) = 3, x = 8"

Then we want to get the inverse of f(x) evaluated in 7.

Here we use the rule:

\(f(x) = y\\f^{-1}(y) = x\)

Then

\(f(2) = 7\\f^{-1}(7) = 2\)

The answer here is 2.

Finally:

"if the inverse evaluated in x si 8, then what is the value of x"

Similar to before, we know that when we evaluate f(x) in 8, the outcome is 3.

Then when we evaluate the inverse in 3, the outcome is 8.

So here we must have x = 3.

If you want to learn more about inverse functions:

https://brainly.com/question/14391067

#SPJ1

Answer: $5.04

Step-by-step explanation:

1.) Start by subtracting 2002 from 2018. (2018-2002=16)

2.) plug into the equation ( y= 0.24(16)+1.20)

3.) plug into calculator and you should get 5.04

Answer:

5.04

Step-by-step explanation:

5.04

Answer:

The answer is 48 boxes of candy

Step-by-step explanation: You have to do 64 divided by 16 and you get 4 so that means each box is 4 dollars then you subtract 96-64 then you get 48.