Can someone help me pls it’s freshmen work.

As the question is incomplete, an integer, a rational number that is not an integer, and an irrational number are explained with examples.

                                negative interger: -12, -6, -32 etc.

                                 zero integers: 0

To know more about rational numbers try the:

https://brainly.com/question/19079438

#SPJ4

B. 2 and OD. 15 are not possible lengths for the third side of the triangle.

To determine the possible values for the length of the third side of a triangle, we need to consider the triangle inequality theorem, which states that the sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be greater than the length of the third side.

Given that two sides have lengths 6 and 9, we can analyze the possibilities:

6 + 9 > x

x > 15 - The sum of the two known sides is greater than any possible third side.

6 + x > 9

x > 3 - The length of the unknown side must be greater than the difference between the two known sides.

9 + x > 6

x > -3 - Since the length of a side cannot be negative, this inequality is always satisfied.

Based on the analysis, the possible values for the length of the third side are:

A. 7

C. 4

□E. 10

O F. 12

B. 2 and OD. 15 are not possible lengths for the third side of the triangle.

for such more question on lengths

https://brainly.com/question/24176380

#SPJ8

The inequalities and their graphs are;

1)  -x - 5 ≤ -2 is represented by the third graph

2) 6 + x ≤ 3 is represented by the fourth graph

3) x - 4 < -7 is represented by the second graph

4) 2x > -6 is represented by the first graph

1) We are given the inequality;

-x - 5 ≤ -2

Rearranging gives us;

-x ≤ -2 + 5

- x ≤ 3

Divide both sides by -1 to get;

x ≥ -3

The graph must be a closed circle starting at -3 and pointing to the right.

It is the third graph in the link at the end of this answers.

2) We are given the inequality; 6 + x ≤ 3

Rearranging gives;

x ≤ -6 + 3

x ≤ -3

The graph must be a closed circle starting at -3 and pointing to the left. Thus, it is the fourth graph.

3) We are given the inequality; x - 4 < -7

Rearranging gives us;

x < -7 + 4

x < -3

The graph must be an open circle starting at -3 and pointing to the left.

Thus, it is the second graph.

4) We are given the Inequality; 2x > -6

Divide both sides by 2 to get;

x > -6/2

x > -3

It must be a graph with an open circle starting at -3 and then to the right.

Thus, it is the first graph as seen in the attached link

Read more about Inequality Line Graphs at; https://brainly.com/question/14119831

#SPJ1

Answer:kepler's 3rd law

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) Is this an observational study or an experiment?

ans=Observational study – no treatment was imposed

(b) What are the explanatory and response variables?

ans=explanatory – time spent in child care from birth to age 4 response – adult rating of children’s behavior

d) Does this study show that child care causes children to be more aggressive? Explain.

No. Observational studies cannot show cause-and-effect

Researchers=someone whose job is to study a subject carefully, especially in order to discover new information or understand the subject better: She is a leading researcher in the field.

learn more about researcher here

https://brainly.com/question/25257437

#SPJ4

The coefficient of determination in a regression analysis with a coefficient of correlation of 0.16 is 0.026, which corresponds to option d.

The coefficient of determination, denoted as R-squared, is a measure of how well the regression line fits the observed data. It represents the proportion of the variance in the dependent variable that can be explained by the independent variable(s).

The coefficient of correlation, denoted as r, is the square root of the coefficient of determination. In this case, since the coefficient of correlation is 0.16, the coefficient of determination is 0.16 squared, which is equal to 0.026.

Option d, 0.0256, is the closest value to the coefficient of determination of 0.026, which corresponds to the given coefficient of correlation of 0.16. Therefore, option d is the correct answer.

Learn more about R-squared here:

https://brainly.com/question/27511381

#SPJ11

Answer:

Por la compra de un televisor en $ 130000 se ha pagado →1/4 del total al contado → el restante en 6 cuotas de igual valor .

el valor de cada cuota =?

Step-by-step explanation:

Para resolver el ejercicio se procede a realizar la operación indicada de calcular el valor de cada una de las 6 cuotas de igual valor, de la siguiente manera :

1/4 * $130000 = $ 32500

$ 130000 - $ 32500 = 97500 $ 97500 /6 = $ 16250

El valor de cada una de las 6 cuotas restantes es de $ 16250 .

The value of volume of the cone​ is,

⇒ V = 53.9π cm³

We have to given that;

The slant side of a cone is,

⇒ 15 cm

And, the radius of the base is

⇒ 7 cm.

Since, We know that;

Volume of cone is,

⇒ V = 1/3 πr² (√l² - r²)

Here, r = 7 cm

l = 15 cm

Hence, We get;

⇒ V = 1/3 πr² (√l² - r²)

⇒ V = 1/3 π (7)² (√15² - 7²)

⇒ V = 1/3π × 49 (√176)

⇒ V = 1/3π × 49 × 13.3

⇒ V = 53.9π cm³

Thus, The volume of the cone​ is,

⇒ V = 53.9π cm³

Learn more about the multiplication visit:

https://brainly.com/question/10873737

#SPJ1

Answer:

Below

Step-by-step explanation:

Z score is the ± standard deviations from the mean

Anjelique has travelled further than Jamila because she has travelled 120 kilometres, whereas Jamila has travelled 115 kilometres.

In terms of length, a mile equals 1760 yards or 1.6 kilometres. This is a commonly used unit to determine how far apart two places are. A mile is a unit of measurement for distance that is used all over the world that is equal to 5280 feet, or around 1.609 kilometres.

Another unit of measurement, the kilometre, is made up of 1000 metres (0.62 miles) and is frequently used to determine how far apart two sites are from one another.

1-mile equals 1.609 kilometres.

Given,

Anjelique travels 75 miles = 75×1.6 = 120kms

Jamila travels = 115kms

120kms>115kms

Therefore, Anjelique has travelled further than Jamila.

To know more about miles into kilometres, visit:

https://brainly.com/question/5280112

#SPJ1

The complete question is:

Anjelique travels 75 miles Jamila travels 115 kilometres show that Anjelique travelled further than Jamila.

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

when it's a power of the power we multiply the powers to get a single value for the power.

(6^(1/4))^4=6^(4*(1/4)) (4*(1/4)=1)

=6^1=6

so the answer is D

Answer:

27.5ft

Step-by-step explanation:

a² + b² = c²

Plug in what you have:

a² + 12² = 30²

Get a by itself:

a² = 30² - 12²

Simplify:

a² = 900 - 144

Simplify:

a² = 756

Simplify:

√a = √756

Then you get 27.49 and when you round you get 27.5

According to the information, we can infer that the histograms indicate that female students tend to have a higher frequency of studying times compared to male students during the week prior to their AP tests.

By comparing the histograms, we can observe that the frequency of studying times for female students is generally higher across all time intervals compared to male students. Female students have a higher frequency in each category, indicating that they spend more time studying than male students during the week before the AP tests.

To further analyze the distributions, we can also consider the measures of center and variation. The measures of center, such as the mean or median, would provide insights into the typical studying time for each group. Additionally, measures of variation, such as the standard deviation or interquartile range, would indicate the spread or variability of studying times within each group.

Accoding to the above, based on the provided frequency distributions, it can be concluded that female students tend to dedicate more time to studying during the week prior to their AP tests compared to male students.

Learn more about distribution in: https://brainly.com/question/29664850
#SPJ1

Answer: 48 in^2

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve each shape

1. The first shape is a rectangle; take 5 times 2 = 10 in^2

2. The second shape is a square; take 2 times 2 = 4 in^2

We see that there are 4 rectangles and 2 squares.

So, we take 10 times 4 = 40 in^2

Then we take 4 times 2 = 8 in^2

Then we add 40 with 8 = 48 in^2

The first available time for the meeting can be Monday at 8:00 AM Vancouver time or Monday at 9:30 PM Bangalore time. Since the Vancouver team has flexible work hours, they can attend the meeting anytime after 6:00 AM. However, they will not work before 6:00 AM after 10:00 PM Tuesday to Thursday.

It means that they are available for the meeting between 6:00 AM to 10:00 PM on Monday. In Shenzhen, the team can work from 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM Shenzhen time from Monday to Saturday. Since the meeting needs to be scheduled early as possible, it can't be scheduled after 6:00 PM Shenzhen time on Monday. It means that the meeting can only be scheduled between 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM Shenzhen time.

Now, we have two options to choose from that are as follows:

Option 1: Monday 8:00 AM Vancouver time (6:00 PM Shenzhen time, 9:30 PM Bangalore time)

Option 2: Monday 5:00 PM Vancouver time (Tuesday 9:00 AM Shenzhen time, 7:30 AM Bangalore time). However, we can't schedule the meeting at 5:00 PM Vancouver time because it falls between 10:00 PM Tuesday to Thursday as the Vancouver team will not work between this time. Therefore, the first available time for the meeting is Monday at 8:00 AM Vancouver time or Monday at 9:30 PM Bangalore time.

You can learn more about Vancouver at: brainly.com/question/30549520

#SPJ11

The amount of money company B charges more for x miles than company A is 4¢

let

Number of miles= x

Company A:

35.50 + 9x

This means company A charges 9¢ per mile

Company B:

55.50 + 13x

This means company B charges 13¢ per mile

The amount of money company B charges more for x miles than Company A = 13¢ - 9¢

= 4¢

Therefore, company B charges 4¢ more than company A for x miles.

Read more on equation:

https://brainly.com/question/2972832

#SPJ1

Answer:

  1.4×10¹⁸ m³

Step-by-step explanation:

You want 1.4×10⁹ km³ expressed in terms of m³.

1 km = 10³ m. Substituting that value for km in the given expression, we find the volume is ...

  1.4×10⁹ km³ = 1.4×10⁹×(10³ m)³ = 1.4×10¹⁸ m³

<95141404393>

Therefore, The given value of 1.4 × 109 km3 is converted into m3 by multiplying it with the conversion factor of (109 m3/km3), which gives 1.4 × 1018 m3.

The given value is 1.4 × 109 km3 to be converted into

m3.1 km = 1000 m.

Hence,

1 km3 = (1000 m)3 = 109 m3.

Therefore,

1.4 × 109 km3 = 1.4 × 109 × (109 m3/km3) = 1.4 × 1018 m3.

Hence, 1.4 × 109 km3 is equal to

1.4 × 1018 m3.

To convert

1.4 × 109 km3

into m3, the given value is multiplied by

(109 m3/km3), as 1 km3 = (1000 m)3 = 109 m3.

Therefore,

1.4 × 109 km3 = 1.4 × 109 × (109 m3/km3) = 1.4 × 1018 m3.

Hence, the conversion factor from km3 to m3 is 109, and this factor is multiplied by the given value. In the final answer, the value is expressed as 1.4 × 1018 m3.

Therefore, The given value of 1.4 × 109 km3 is converted into m3 by multiplying it with the conversion factor of (109 m3/km3), which gives 1.4 × 1018 m3.

To learn more about scale factor visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29967135

#SPJ11

The capacity of fish tank in quarts is 246.

Therefore the answer is 246.

A pint is a unit of volume in the US customary system of measurement and is equal to 16 fluid ounces. A quart is also a unit of volume in the US customary system of measurement and is equal to 32 fluid ounces or 2 pints.

There are 2 pints in 1 quart, so to convert from pints to quarts, we need to divide by 2.

The capacity of the fish tank in pints is 492.

Therefore, the capacity of the fish tank in quarts is

= 492 pints / 2 pints per quart

= 246 quarts

So, the capacity of the tank in quarts is 246 quarts.

To know more on pints quarts conversion

https://brainly.com/question/17732315

#SPJ4

Answer: Shows us the pictures of the subsets.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

p

Answer:

16.3ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6.84

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!!!

The number of tires that minimizes the cost is 800., And the cost for that number of tires is, $45.

What is parabola?

When the value of an is less than 0, a 0, the parabola's graph is downward (or opens down). When the value of an is more than zero, a > 0, the parabola's graph is upward (or expands). As a result, the direction of the parabola depends on the sign of the coefficient "a."

Consider, the equation

C = 0.002x^2 - 3.2x + 1325

Here, a = 0.002 > 0

Since, if a > 0 then parabola is open upward and having minimum value at it's vertex.

First, to  find the vertex of the quadratic equation.

Since,

V = (-b/2a, f(-b/2a))

Let, a = 0.002,  b = -3.2,   c = 1325

So,

-b/2a = 3.2/2(0.002) = 800

Therefore, the number of tires that minimizes the cost is 800.

Now to find the cost for that number of tires.

Plug x = 800 into the above quadratic equation

C = 0.002(800)^2 - 3.2(800) + 1325

C = 45

Hence, the cost for that number of tires is $45.

To know more about the parabola, click on the link
https://brainly.com/question/27872359
#SPJ4

Given data:

In a rectangle the opposite sides are always parallel and equal.

Answer:

In this case, we can do substitution.

Step-by-step explanation:

For the first one, (s - t)(x) = ((x - 5) - 4x^2)(x) = x^2 - 21x

For the second one, (s*t)(x) = ((x - 5) *4x^2)(x) = 4x^4 - 20x^3

And for the last one,  (s+t)(-2) = ((x - 5) + 4x^2)(-2) = -8x^2 - 2x + 10

Hope your happy with the answer :)

a. The missing probability value is 0.4.

b. E(X) = 1.4.

c. Var(X) = 0.56 and σx = 0.75.

d. E(Z) = 2.27, Var(Z) = 2.56, and σz = 1.60.

The given probability distribution of the random variable X shows the probabilities associated with each possible outcome. To find the missing probability value, we know that the sum of all probabilities must equal 1. Therefore, the missing probability can be calculated by subtracting the sum of the probabilities already given from 1. In this case, 0.1 + 0.2 + 0.3 = 0.6, so the missing probability value is 1 - 0.6 = 0.4.

To find the expected value or mean of X (E(X)), we multiply each value of X by its corresponding probability and then sum up the results. In this case, (0 * 0.1) + (1 * 0.2) + (2 * 0.3) + (3 * 0.4) = 0.4 + 0.2 + 0.6 + 1.2 = 1.4.

To calculate the variance (Var(X)) of X, we use the formula: Var(X) = Σ[(X - E(X))^2 * P(X)], where Σ denotes the sum over all values of X. The standard deviation (σx) is the square root of the variance. Using this formula, we find Var(X) = [(0 - 1.4)² * 0.1] + [(1 - 1.4)^2 * 0.2] + [(2 - 1.4)² * 0.3] + [(3 - 1.4)² * 0.4] = 0.56. Taking the square root, we get σx = √(0.56) ≈ 0.75.

Now, let's consider the new random variable Z = 1 + (2/3)X. To find E(Z), we substitute the values of X into the formula and calculate the expected value. E(Z) = 1 + (2/3)E(X) = 1 + (2/3) * 1.4 = 2.27.

To calculate Var(Z), we use the formula Var(Z) = (2/3)² * Var(X). Substituting the known values, Var(Z) = (2/3)² * 0.56 = 2.56.

Finally, the standard deviation of Z (σz) is the square root of Var(Z). Therefore, σz = √(2.56) = 1.60.

Learn more about probability value

brainly.com/question/30897652

#SPJ11

Answer:

The shape is a reduction, and the scale factor is actually 2/3.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: sample answer

A dilation will map shape II onto shape III. The bottom left coordinate of shape II is (3, 3) and the bottom left coordinate of shape III is (2, 2). So, to get the corresponding coordinates of shape III, multiply the coordinates of shape II by 2/3. This is true for every set of coordinates. So, the scale factor is2/3 . Because the scale factor is less than 1, the dilation is a reduction.