The right upper quadrant of the abdomen showing bruises after forceful trauma is MOST indicative of liver damage. A membrane fold that connects the intestines to the body's walls is called the mesentery.
Where is abdomen pain located?Any discomfort you have between your chest and groyne is considered abdominal pain. This is sometimes referred to as the belly or stomach area. The abdominal region is split into smaller regions because it houses a variety of different organs.
Which abdomen discomfort is severe?Sudden, severe stomach pain may be caused by dangerous conditions like appendicitis, which requires the removal of an appendix since it causes the organ to swell. a stomach ulcer that is bleeding or open. Acute cholecystitis can induce gallbladder inflammation that may call for surgical removal.
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The complete question is -
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the:
a. liver.
b. spleen.
c. kidney.
d. stomach.
you are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. she has dentures, which are tight fitting. adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. when you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. you should:
Removing her dentures will allow you to examine her chest rise and restart ventilations .You should periodically check the airway when using the bag-mask device to ventilate an apneic patient wearing dentures to make sure they are not loose.
An apneic patient wearing dentures should be ventilated using a bag mask device, right?You should periodically check the airway when using the bag-mask device to ventilate an apneic patient wearing dentures to make sure they are not loose. You must: join the bag-mask device to the tube's 15-mm adaptor when ventilating a patient who has a tracheostomy tube and a stoma.Rationale, Squeeze the bag for one second while using a bag-valve mask to ventilate any patient who is apneic and look for a noticeable chest rise. Adults with apnea should be ventilated at a rate of 10 to 12 breaths per minute (one breath every 5 seconds).Removing her dentures will allow you to examine her chest rise and restart ventilations .You should periodically check the airway when using the bag-mask device to ventilate an apneic patient wearing dentures to make sure they are not loose.To learn more about Bag-mask device refer to:
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What should Susan do in this situation? Are there any viable reasons the son should have access to his mother’s medical information?
The missing part of the question is: On Susan's third day at work, a man comes into the office and demands to see his mother's health record. Susan accesses the record and sees that the mother has not granted permission for information to be given to her son.
Susan should tell the man that he can't see his mother's health record.
Health records keep track of the health history of a patient. Only physicians aiding the patient can see it and add information to it; also, the patient has the right to see it.
The son can not see his mother's health record since it is confidential information that can only be seen by
doctorsmedical personnelthe patientIn other words, as it is confidential information, Susan can see it because she is medical personnel. However, she can not divulge any information or give the medical history to the patient's son or any other person.
The only viable reason for the son to have access to his mother's medical information is if the medical personnel is legally bound to do it. Otherwise, Susan should not divulge any information, even to the patient's son.
In conclusion, Susan can not allow the patient's son access to his medical information unless she is legally bound to do so.
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"The Nurse Practitioner is teaching a patient about the role of medications in the treatment of asthma. Which statement by the patient would require further teaching?"
Answer:
The treatment of asthma because...
Explanation:
You have to learn about the different ways to teach a patient about asthma. Before you can learn about the Medication to cure the cause of the symptoms of asthma. If that makes sense
When should you give a person a second dose of naloxone?
a) If you do not see any improvement 2 - 5 minutes after giving a first dose
b) If you are unwilling to perform CPR on the person
c) If the person beesomes responsive after receiving a first dose
d) If the person asks you for another dose
Naloxone, also known as Narcan, is an opioid reversal or opioid antagonist medication given to patients experiencing opioid overdose. Its route of administration is often IM, IV, subcutaneously, or nasally for patients that are unconscious and unresponsive. If the patient is responsive, they likely will not need this agent and can, instead, simply be transported to emergency services if there is concern over the amount of drug consumed. If the first dose of naloxone seems ineffective after 2-5 minutes, a second dose can and should be administered.
CPR should not be optional if a patient needs CPR. If the patient is experiencing an overdose and an initial dose of naloxone has been administered, if they are still breathing and have a pulse, CPR is not required. If they are unresponsive with no breathing or pulse as a result of an overdose, CPR is not a choice -- it must be performed and the naloxone also administered. If the patient is unresponsive with no breathing or pulse and you are unaware if it is the result of an overdose, giving the initial and secondary doses of naloxone will not harm the patient; neglecting to perform CPR will. The takeaway here is Narcan is NOT a substitute for chest compressions and rescue breaths if the patient needs CPR!
If the patient becomes responsive after receiving a first dose, the second dose will not be necessary. Just like performing CPR, if the person becomes responsive, they do not need more CPR. However, in both cases they will requires immediate emergency services and monitoring; another dose of naloxone may be possibly be given then if needed.
Lastly, the patient likely will not ask for another dose of naloxone. The medication blocks the effects of the opioid, usually by blocking the receptors they bind to, propelling the patient into withdrawal though free opioid molecules are still in their bloodstream. As a result, they will likely be irritated and combative, not necessarily asking for another dose. In the event that it does occur, you could tell them that no longer need the Narcan, and if they insist you can give them a second dose -- again, the medication is not harmful if given to a person not actively overdosing so if they need a nocebo effect to take place, so be it. This, however, is not an official indication for a second dose of naloxone to be administered.
The cell cycle control systems of cancer cells differ from those of normal cells. Select the best explanation for this fact.
A. Cancer cells are immortal.
B. Genetic changes alter the function of the cancer cell's protein products.
C. Cancer cells divide excessively and invade other tissues.
D. Genetic changes alter the function of the cancer cell's protein products.
The correct answer is B. Genetic changes alter the function of the cancer cell's protein products.
The cell cycle is the mechanism through which cells divide and replicate. Cell growth, DNA replication, segregation, and cytokinesis are all controlled by cell cycle control systems, ensuring that cells divide accurately and avoid uncontrolled division.
Cancer cells are cells that have undergone several genetic mutations that allow them to continue dividing and replicating beyond normal cellular controls.
Cancer cells' cycle control systems differ from those of normal cells because genetic changes alter the function of the cancer cell's protein products. Because proteins are critical players in cell division, cancer cells' altered protein activity can throw off the balance of cell cycle control systems in the cells.
Cancer cells' proteins differ from those of normal cells, so treatments that target normal cells' proteins may not be as effective against cancer cells.
Therefore, Genetic changes alter the function of the cancer cell's protein products is the best explanation for the fact that the cell cycle control systems of cancer cells differ from those of normal cells.
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Laboratory testing is ordered for Maria. Based on Maria's signs and symptoms, you expect the laboratory results to reveal (select all that apply):
Answer:
Sepsis disease.
Explanation:
Maria has a symptoms of body swelling, reduced urine output and difficulty in breathing. The disease can be caused by fungal infection or bacteria attack. Body swelling is the major symptom of this disease. The laboratory report is expected to result in Sepsis positive.
Infants born to mothers with a prepregnancy BMI of 25 or higher are ______ to experience health problems compared to infants born to mothers of BMI in the range of 18.5 - 24.9.
The degree of closeness of measurements of quantity to that quantity actual (true) value
All of the following except ____________ are possible side effects of stigmas associated with mental disorders.
All of the following except
A. discrimination
B. labels
C. prejudice
D. negative stereotypes
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
PLEASE HELPPP WILL GIVR BRAINLIEST ANSWER
The possible side effects of stigmas associated with mental disorders should not include the labels.
What are stigmas?Social stigma refer to the discrimination or the disapproval against the individual or the group that should be based on the social characteristics where it should be make a difference from the other society members.
Its side effects include the discrimination, prejudice. negative stereotypes, etc
Therefore, the option B is correct and the same should be considered.
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you are asked to see mr. bob smith, a 65 y/o retired plumber with hip and knee pain. pmh is negative. after a thorough musculoskeletal examination, your correct diagnosis is osteoarthritis. you have likely also detected that mr. smith has:
It is detected that Mr. smith has Heberden's nodes.
What is Heberden's nodes?Heberden's nodes are small, pea-sized lumps of bone that occur in the joint closest to the tip of the finger, also called the distal interphalangeal joint. Heberden's nodes are a symptom of osteoarthritis (OA) of the hands.
Osteoarthritis is the main cause of Heberden's nodes. It is a form of arthritis that occurs when the tissue that covers the ends of bones, called cartilage, wears away. Cartilage can break down from slow wear and tear over time or if you have joint damage.
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The nurse is caring for a client admitted for treatment of active sarcoidosis. What is the nurse’s best approach to assessing this client?
The nurse is caring for a client admitted for treatment of active sarcoidosis. What is
The nurse’s best approach to assessing the client with active sarcoidosis is to perform
a complete head-to-toe assessment.
What is Sarcoidosis?Sarcoidosis serves as a disease which brings about the growth of tiny collections of inflammatory cells (granulomas) in any part of your body.
This can be felt in the lungs and lymph nodes, that is why the nurse needs to perform
a complete head-to-toe assessment.
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Nursing is a very humble job in which nurse assist and take care of the patients. The nurse’s best approach to assessing the client with sarcoidosis is complete body assessment.
What is sarcoidosis?Sarcoidosis is a disease that brings about the growth of collections of tiny inflammatory cells aslo called as granulomas in any part of your body.
It occurs most commonly in lungs and lymph nodes but also eye, skin, heart and other organs.
A nurse which is caring for the patient having sarcoidosis must approach for a complete body assessment. It also includes the test such as blood and urine test along with a CT scan.
Thus, the nurse’s best approach to assessing this client is to have a complete body assessment.
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Does the education of women tend to reduce their fertility?
Why?
A patient is in cardiac arrest. High-quality chest compressions are being given. The patient is intubated, and an IV has been started. The rhythm is asystole. What is the first drug/dose to administer?
Answer:
The first drug to administer is epinephrine in a dose of 1 mg or vasopressin in a dose of 40 units IV or IO.
Explanation:
Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is a hormone that increases the blood flow to the heart. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone, increases blood pressure since it constricts the arteries. As a result, the blood flow to the heart increases, and the chances to save the person too. The dosages of these two drugs are the same for every person, height and weight do not affect it, and it was established after studies to be the most effective dose.
at 0700 (7 am) the health care provider has ordered the nurse to begin an iv infusion and has ordered the client to receive 125 ml/hr of iv fluid. at what time will the nurse be prepared to hang the next liter of iv fluid?
The correct option is B, that is, the nurse will be prepared to hang the next liter of IV-fluid at 1500 (3 PM) after the healthcare provider ordered the nurse to start IV-fluid of 125 ml/hr.
The following equation can be used to determine how long it will take the IV to finish before it runs out:
Time (hours) = Volume (ml) x Drip Rate (ml/hour)
At the beginning, the volume of the IV-fluid
1500 hours = Volume x 125 ml/hour
Volume = 1500/125
Volume = 12 ml
But the next IV-fluid will be hanged at
Time (hours) = Volume (ml) x Drip Rate (ml/hour)
Time = 12 x 125
Time = 1500 hours
Thus, at 1500 hours or 3 PM, the nurse will prepare the next IV-fluid.
The administration of delivering nutrients and water directly into the circulation for instantaneous absorption and usage by the body is known as IV therapy, sometimes known as intravenous therapy.
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The complete question is:
At 0700 (7 AM) the health care provider has ordered the nurse to begin an IV infusion and has ordered the client to receive 125 mL/hr of IV fluid. At what time will the nurse be prepared to hang the next liter of IV fluid?
A. 2100 (8 PM)
B. 1500 (3 PM)
C. 1300 (1 PM)
D. 1100 (11 AM)
While functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the emt to?
When functioning at a large-scale terrorist incident, it is important for the EMT to do the following:
Firstly, the EMT should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and a visible identification badge that allows easy identification to law enforcement and other responders.
Secondly, the EMT should establish a triage zone that is separate from the cold, warm, and hot zones. The cold zone should serve as the area where EMS and non-essential responders can perform non-patient care tasks and wait for further instructions
Thirdly, the EMT should have a coordinated and efficient communication system with other responders, such as law enforcement and the incident commander.
Fourthly, the EMT should establish a transportation system that incorporates local hospitals and alternate care facilities.
Finally, the EMT should have a proper disaster response plan in place and establish a command post where planning, logistics, and the overall management of the incident can occur. These measures are essential in ensuring the safety of both the EMTs and patients.
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What diagnosis involves an abnormal collection of blood? a) Cancer b) Aneurism c) Angina O d) Carcinoma
Answer:
Aneurism
Explanation:
An aneurysm is the collection of a blood vessel due to a weak spot in the artery wall. Aneurysms can occur in any artery in the body. These places can be in the brain, heart, kidney, or abdomen. When an aneurysm increases, it can rupture and generate uncontrolled internal bleeding, which can become lethal in many cases.
Hi,
Answer:
The diagnosis that involves an abnormal collection of blood is:
Aneurysm : ( is the abnormal dilation of an artery.)
when a normally well adjusted person becomes ill, she is likely to
Yes she is unfortunately
Describe the difference between supination & pronation, circumduction & rotation, contraction & relaxation,
adduction & abduction.
Answer:
Explanation:
Supination and pronation are used to describe the up or down orientation of your hand. When your palm or forearm faces up, it’s supinated. When your palm or forearm faces down, it’s pronated.
Circumduction is when the limb moves in a circle and rotation is when the limb turns around its long axis, like using a screwdriver.
Contraction is when you flex/activate your muscle so it stiffens, and relaxation is when your muscle is at rest.
Abduction is movement away from the midline of the body, and adduction is a movement towards the midline of the body
Answer:
Supination means that when you walk, your weight tends to be more on the outside of your foot. Pronation means that when you walk, your weight tends to be more on the inside of your foot. An easy way to remember the difference is that supination has the term “up” in it.
Explanation:
A specialized system of data collection to detect trends in the incidence and severity of a specific disease or health related syndrome and is also known as:
A specialized system of data collection to detect trends in the incidence and severity of a specific disease or health-related syndrome is also known as a disease surveillance system.
This system collects data on the number of cases, incidence rates, and trends in the occurrence of specific diseases or syndromes. The information is then analyzed to identify patterns, trends, and potential outbreaks, and appropriate interventions are developed to prevent or control the spread of the disease.
Disease surveillance systems are essential in monitoring the spread of infectious diseases, identifying emerging public health threats, and evaluating the effectiveness of public health interventions. These systems may use different types of data sources, including laboratory reports, hospital discharge data, mortality data, and other health-related data.
Surveillance systems may be established at the local, state, or national level, and may focus on specific diseases or syndromes. They are often used by public health agencies, healthcare providers, and researchers to identify and respond to health threats and to monitor the effectiveness of public health programs.
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what are two ways in which white blood cells fight pathogens that have enterd the body
Answer:
If a pathogen enters your body, white blood cells of your immune system quickly recognise its foreign antigens. This stimulates specific lymphocytes to grow, multiply and finally produce antibodies that will stick to the antigens on the invading pathogens and destroy them.
Explanation:
Explain the Gibbs Donnan equilibrium
How much phenylephrine HCl would be needed to prepare 40mL of a 5% solution?
Answer:
When using small volumes and low-concentration products, it is usually easier
to use the same method to calculate the amount of drug (stock) and diluent as to calculate the amount of active ingredient, since these products are not labeled in percent
Explanation:
Concentrations of the solute can be calculated using the (w/v%) and (m/v%). For 5% phenylephrine hydrochloric acid solution the solute concentration needed will be 2 grams.
What is percentage concentration?Percentage concentration is the calculation of the weight or the mass of the with respect to the volume of the solvent and multiplied by 100. w/v% calculates the concentration based on the weight/volume percentage, whereas m/v% calculates based on mass/volume percentage.
Given,
Percentage = 5%
Volume = 40 mL
Substituting values:
w/v (%) = mass of solute(g) ÷ volume of solution (mL) × 100
5% = mass ÷ 40 × 100
mass = 5 × 40 ÷ 100
= 2 gm
Therefore, 40 ml of 5% phenylephrine HCl can be prepared by 2 gm of solute dissolved in the solution.
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Upon leaving a patient’s room where you assisted the patient to the bathroom, ou notice you are in a contact isolation room. What should you do? A. Not if the Charge Nurse that you did not wear the appropriate PPE while in the room.
B. Thoroughly wash hands with soap and water.
C. Examine clothing to ensure there was no contact with the patient’s bodily fluid.
D. Notify program Manager.
E. All of the above.
E. All of the above. In this scenario, since you realize that you were in a contact isolation room without wearing the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), it is important to take appropriate actions to address the situation:
A. Notify the Charge Nurse: Inform the Charge Nurse about the oversight and acknowledge that you did not wear the appropriate PPE while in the room. This allows them to be aware of the situation and take necessary steps.
B. Thoroughly wash hands with soap and water: After leaving the patient's room, it is crucial to practice proper hand hygiene by thoroughly washing your hands with soap and water. This helps to reduce the risk of spreading any potential pathogens.
C. Examine clothing for contact with bodily fluids: Take a moment to examine your clothing to ensure that there was no contact with the patient's bodily fluids. If there is any visible soiling or contamination, appropriate measures should be taken to address it, such as changing into clean attire.
D. Notify program manager: Depending on the organization's policies, it may be necessary to notify the program manager or any designated personnel responsible for infection control. They can provide guidance and ensure that appropriate follow-up actions are taken.
By following all of the above steps, you demonstrate accountability, take responsibility for the oversight, and actively work towards mitigating any potential risks associated with the breach of contact isolation protocols.
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The oncoming nurse has just received report and is preparing to make her initial rounds. Which postpartum client should the nurse see first?1) A primipara 6 hours postpartum saturating one peripad every two hours2) A multigravida 1 hour postpartum and complaining of intense perineal pain3) A primigravida 12 hours postpartum with the uterine fundus at the umbilicus4) A multigravida 72 hours postpartum with a brownish pink lochia discharge.
The nurse should see the client described in option 2) A multigravida 1-hour postpartum complaining of intense perineal pain requires immediate attention first.
This could indicate a potential complication such as perineal tears, hematoma, or other trauma related to the perineal area. Prompt assessment and intervention are necessary to address the client's pain, ensure proper healing, and prevent further complications.
The other options describe postpartum clients with varying conditions:
A primipara 6 hours postpartum saturating one peripad every two hours: This client's lochia flow is within the expected range for the early postpartum period. While regular monitoring is needed, it does not indicate an immediate need for assessment or intervention.
A primigravida 12 hours postpartum with the uterine fundus at the umbilicus: The location of the uterine fundus at the umbilicus suggests that the client's uterus is slightly above the expected level for this timeframe. However, it does not require immediate attention unless other signs of uterine complications are present.
A multigravida 72 hours postpartum with a brownish-pink lochia discharge: The description of the lochia discharge is consistent with the expected changes in lochia color over time. As long as the client is not experiencing other concerning symptoms, this does not require immediate attention.
It's important to note that clinical judgment may vary depending on the specific circumstances and the client's overall condition. The nurse should assess each client comprehensively and prioritize care based on their individual needs and potential complications. Hence, 2) is the correct option.
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preindopril mechanism of action ?
Answer:
inhibition of ACE activity.
Explanation:
The mechanism through which perindoprilat lowers blood pressure. ACE is a peptidyl dipeptidase that catalyzes conversion of the inactive decapepetide, angiotensin i, to the vasoconstrictor, angiotensin ii.
Perindopril, and generally any medication ending in the suffix -pril, is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, meaning its mechanism of action is to block the conversion of blood hormone angiotensin 1 to vasoconstricting blood hormone angiotension 2, as well as increase increase plasma levels of enzyme renin and reduce levels of aldosterone, with the goal of causing systemic vasodilation which leads to a decrease in blood pressure in those with hypertension (HTN) and decreased risk of death from cardiovascular events in patients with coronary artery disease (CAD).
What is the difference is Licensure, Regulation, and Accreditation?
Answer:
Licensure is about getting the legal right to practice or serve in a specific role. Accreditation is about enabling a facility to have the respect of its industry peers. Another critical distinction between licensing and accreditation is who they apply to. A license applies to a single individual looking to practice
Answer:
Licensure is the act of granting authority by the state. Each state has agencies responsible for issuing and renewing licenses to health care professionals.
Registration means that you have graduated from an accredited school and have passed a standardized national exam administered by a nongovernmental agency.
Accreditation is an educational institution that is recognized by an outside agency, such as national board or commission, as having standards that qualify graduates for professional practice.
Explanation:
Businesses must be conscious of the __________, or social norms and beliefs in which they operate.
Answer:
culture
Explanation:
Cultural norms are the shared, sanctioned, and integrated systems of beliefs and practices that are passed down through generations and characterize a cultural group. Norms cultivate reliable guidelines for daily living and contribute to the health and well-being of a culture. They act as prescriptions for correct and moral behavior, lend meaning and coherence to life, and provide a means of achieving a sense of integrity, safety, and belonging. These normative beliefs, together with related cultural values and rituals, impose a sense of order and control on aspects of life that might otherwise appear chaotic or unpredictable.
Businesses must be conscious of the culture or social norms and beliefs in which they operate.
Why cultural norms are very important to be shared?Cultural norms has been considered as they shared, or sanctioned, and the integrated systems of the beliefs as well as practices that has been passed down just through the generations as well as characterize the cultural group. Norms that cultivate the reliable guidelines for the daily living as well as it contribute to the health and well-being of the culture.
They will act as the prescriptions for correct and the moral behavior, that lend meaning as well as the coherence to life, and the provide the means of the achieving a particular sense of the integrity, safety, and the belonging. These normative beliefs, that all together with the related cultural values along with the rituals, has been imposed the sense of order and the control on the aspects of the life that would might otherwise appear chaotic or it is unpredictable.
Therefore, Businesses must be conscious of the culture or social norms and beliefs in which they operate.
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Match the following terms with the letters shown on the illustration.
D
J
E
K
Sam is a fast-food fanatic. For breakfast, he stops for coffee and doughnuts. For lunch he has iced tea, a roast beef sub with lettuce and mayonnaise, and a cookie. For dinner he has a soft drink, burger, and fries. Name two vitamins likely to be lacking in Sam's diet if he eats like this every day. Why is his diet likely to be deficient in these vitamins?
Your health can suffer if you don't consume enough of these foods, increasing your chances of developing diabetes, heart disease, some types of cancer, and nutritional deficiency.
What results in less intake of vegetables and fruits in diet?The clinical spectrum of vitamin A deficiency's ocular manifestations, known as xerophthalmia, includes everything from night blindness and Bitot spots to the potentially blinding phases of corneal xerosis, ulceration, and necrosis (keratomalacia).
Low levels of vitamin C lead to the illness known as scurvy. Because they didn't consume enough fruits and vegetables, it used to be frequent among long-distance sailors.
Therefore, vitamin A and C deficiency occur due to less intake of vegetables and fruits.
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PepsiCo recently announced that they have created a sleep-aid beverage called Driftwell. The product, which is expected to be in stores in December 2020, contains magnesium and an amino acid, L-theanine as key ingredients. Magnesium included in the dietary supplement is:
A product which contains magnesium and an amino acid, L-theanine as key ingredients.
Magnesium included in the dietary supplement is A vitamin and is need for health.Magnesium is a mineral that contributes to proper body functioning and proper sleep. Our body can't make Magnesium, so we need to take it from our diet.
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