HELPPPO PLEASE!!! SIMPLify THIS FOR ME step by step plsssss

Answer:

6 hours 15 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

1 litre = 1000cm³

45 litres = 45000cm³

Volume = rate × time

45000 = 2 × t

t = 22500 secs

= 375 mins

BRAINLIEST PLEASE

All time values listed above are equivalent, so you only need to pick one value to write as the answer.

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Work Shown:

1 liter = 1000 cubic cm

45 liters = 45*1000 = 45000 cubic cm

The container has a capacity of 45000 cubic cm

It will take 45000/2 = 22500 seconds to fill the container since the rate is 2 cubic cm per second.

-----------------

Convert from seconds to minutes

22500 seconds = (22500)*(1 min/60 sec)

22500 seconds = (22500/60) min

22500 seconds = 375 min

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Convert to hours

375 min = (375)*(1 hr/60 min)

375 min = (375/60) hr

375 min = 6.25 hr

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Converting to hours,minutes

6.25 hr = 6 hr + 0.25 hr

6.25 hr = 6 hr + (0.25*60) min

6.25 hr = 6 hr + 15 min

6.25 hr = 6 hr, 15 min

Answer:

7% of 40 is 2.80

Step-by-step explanation:

0.07 x 40 = 2.8

Answer:

17.5%

Convert fraction (ratio) 7 / 40

then divide 7 by 40 and multiply by 100 and you get 17.5%

plz mark brainliest

2 cents per ounce.

Work

$8.80 divided by 44

As a result, the rectangle's perimeter is 230 cm as the rectangle's base has a 69 cm width.

Four straight sides that are aligned and equal in length make up a rectangle, a two-dimensional geometric object. A rectangles has four right-angled angles (90 degrees). A rectangle can be thought of as a quadrilateral with all angles equal to 90 degrees, or as a trapezoid with two pairs of parallel sides. By multiplying the rectangle's length and breadth, the area of the rectangle may be determined. By summing the measurements of all four sides, one may get a rectangle's perimeter. In many commonplace items like window, book covers, and screens, rectangles are frequently used.

given

According to the information provided, the rectangle's base has a 69 cm width.

We also know that the height is equal to the base by two thirds. As a result, the rectangle's height can be determined as follows:

Height equals 2/3 of base height, or 69 cm.

size = 46 cm

Knowing the rectangle's base and height, we can use the following formula to get its perimeter:

P = 2l + 2w

P = 2(69 cm) + 2(46 cm) (46 cm)

P = 230 cm if P = 138 cm plus 92 cm.

As a result, the rectangle's perimeter is 230 cm as the rectangle's base has a 69 cm width.

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The complete question is: - In a rectangle the base measures 69 cm and the height is 2/3 of the base. Calculate the perimeter.[230] Please help with a photo

Step-by-step explanation:

\( { \alpha }^{4} + { \beta }^{4} = ( {( { \alpha }^{2} })^{2} + {( { \beta }^{2} })^{2} \)

\( = {( { \alpha }^{2} + { \beta }^{2} })^{2} - 2( { \alpha }^{2} )( { \beta }^{2} )\)

\( {( {( \alpha + \beta )}^{2} - 2 \alpha \beta ) }^{2} - 2( { \alpha )}^{2} ( { \beta )}^{2} \)

I hope it helped you

The correct equation of the circle with center (0,0) that passes through the point (-6,-6) is:

(x + 6)² + (y + 6)² = 72

Please note that the equation represents the circle with center (0,0) and radius √72.\(\)

Answer:

The equation of a circle with center (0,0) that passes through the point (-6,-6) is:

(x - 0)² + (y - 0)² = r²

where r is the radius of the circle. Since the center of the circle is (0,0), we can use the distance formula to find the radius:

r = √(0 - (-6))² + (0 - (-6))² = √(6² + 6²) = √72

Therefore, the equation of the circle is:

x² + y² = 72

Option B. y = 3 (one-third) Superscript x is the function that is graphed in this question.

We have exponential functions to be of the form abˣ

This can be written in the form of f(x) = \(3\frac{1}{3} ^x\)

So it crosses through the point (0, 3).

From the way that the curve passes through the circle, we can see that the it is said to pass through at (0, 3) and approaches y = 0 in quadrant 1

Hence this would put our answer to be y = 3 (one-third) Superscript x

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Answer:the answer is b dont care

Step-by-step explanation:

On a coordinate plane, an exponential decay function is shown. The curve starts in quadrant 2 and decreases into quadrant 1. It crosses the y-axis at (0, 3) and approaches y = 0 in quadrant 1.

y = one-third (3) Superscript x

y = 3 (one-third) Superscript x

y = (one-half) Superscript x Baseline + 2

y = (2) Superscript x Baseline minus 1

we have that

The zero is a reference point

so

+3 means -----> 3 units at the right of point x=0 (move forward) ----> final point x=3

-1 -----> 1 unit at the left of point x=3 (move backward) -----> final point x=2

-2 -----> 2 units at the left of point x=2 (move backward) ----> final point x=0

+1 ---->1 unit at the right of point x=0 (move forward) ----> final point x=1

Graph the moves

The first move -----> +3

Second move

-1

Third move

-2

Fourth move

+1

\((\stackrel{x_1}{1}~,~\stackrel{y_1}{6})\qquad (\stackrel{x_2}{-5}~,~\stackrel{y_2}{-7}) ~\hfill \stackrel{slope}{m}\implies \cfrac{\stackrel{\textit{\large rise}} {\stackrel{y_2}{-7}-\stackrel{y1}{6}}}{\underset{\textit{\large run}} {\underset{x_2}{-5}-\underset{x_1}{1}}} \implies \cfrac{ -13 }{ -6 } \implies \cfrac{13 }{ 6 }\)

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Ronald's walking speed is 3 miles per hour, and he walks for 2 hours, so he covers 3 * 2 = 6 miles. In the next hour, he runs at a speed of 6 miles per hour, covering an additional 6 miles. Therefore, Ronald traveled a total of 6 + 6 = 12 miles.

Answer:

42/11

Step-by-step explanation:

11/7 = 6/v

cross multiply:

11v = 6x7 = 42.

v = 42/11 ≈ 3.81

Answer:

9576

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of the triangle × height

(1/2×28×19)×36

Answer:

\(3\sqrt{5}i\)

Step-by-step explanation:

\(\sqrt{-45}\)

\(\sqrt{-9*5}\)

\(\sqrt{-9}\sqrt{5}\)

\(3i\sqrt{5}\)

\(3\sqrt{5}i\)

The length of side AD is,

⇒ AD = 16

We have to given that;

The given figure is a right triangular prism.

In the prism:

• DF = 22 in.

• EG = 11 in.

• Volume of the prism = 1936 cubic in.

Since, Volume of right triangular prism is,

V = 1/2 (bh) x L

Substitute all the values we get;

V = 1/2 (22 × 11) × AD

1936 = 121 × AD

AD = 16

Thus, The length of side AD is, 16

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37.902

Step-by-step explanation:

3.14x12+12

The 3 different ways to make number 15638 with only hundreds tens and once are:

156 hundreds, 3 tens and 8 ones,

150 hundreds, 63 tens and 8 ones,

150 hundreds, 60 tens and 38 ones

Consider the given number 15,638

The number 15,638 can be read as:

1 Ten Thousands 5 Thousands 6 Hundreds 3 Tens and 8 ones

It is required to write the number with only hundreds tens and once.

The number 15,638 can be written as:

15638 = 156×100+3×10+8×1

It can be written as:

156 hundreds, 3 tens and 8 ones

Again the provided number can be written as:

15638=150×100+63×10+8×1

It can be written as:

150 hundreds, 63 tens and 8 ones

15638 can be written as:

15638=150×100+60×10+38×1

150 hundreds, 60 tens and 38 ones

Hence, The 3 different ways to make number 15638 with only hundreds tens and once are:

156 hundreds, 3 tens and 8 ones

150 hundreds, 63 tens and 8 ones

150 hundreds, 60 tens and 38 ones

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Answer:

The 2 possible numbers are -11 and -1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:0=4

Step-by-step explanation:

2(w+2)-w=(w-1)+9

2w+4-w=(w-1)+9

1w+4=(w-1)+9

w+4=w-1+9

w+4=w+8

w+4 - 4 = w+8 - 4

w=w+4

w-w = w-w +4

0=4

Answer:

II and III only

Step-by-step explanation:

One variable quantity is said to vary jointly as a number of other variable quantities, when it varies directly as their product.

The probability that the teacher will choose two girls would be = 1/6

Probability is defined as the expression that shows the possibility of an outcome of an event which may or may not happen.

The total number of students in the class = 9

The total number of girls = 4

The total number of boys = 5

The formula for finding probability = No of favourable outcome/Total number of outcomes.

The probability that teacher choose first girl = 4/9

One girl is selected we must reduce the number of girls available for selection to 4 - 1 = 3.

We must also reduce the number of children available for selection 9 - 1 = 8.

The probability that teacher choose second girl = 3/8

Thus, the probability = 4/9 × 3/8 = 1/6

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Answer:

$4

Step-by-step explanation:

40/10 = 4

Answer:

150 pens given away

Step-by-step explanation:

10% of 500 is 50

50x3=150

500-150=350

So first we need to find the mean of this set. This value is given by adding all the elements in the set and dividing that result by the total number of elements. In this case it would be the sum of all the distance divided by 8 since there are 8 different distances:

So the mean is 84.9875 and that's the answer to part a.

In part b we must calculate the variance. This value is given by the sum of the square deviations divided by the total number of elements. The square deviations (S) are the squares of the difference between each element and the mean:

Where S is the square deviation, x the value of the element and the greek letter μ is the mean. In this case x would be each distance and μ=84.9875. So the square deviations are given by:

We need to calculate this quantity for each of the 8 distances. Then we add the 8 results and we divide them by 8. This way we find the variance. In the following table you can see the distances, the square deviation of each and the values of the mean and the variance:

Then, the answer to part a is 84.9875 and to part b is 2.1731.

Answer:

1 out of 6

Step-by-step explanation:

Each roll of the die is an independent event. This means that the second roll does not rely on the first roll. The probability of rolling a six is one out of six. The probability of rolling a two is also one out of six. Since the two events are independent of each other, you would take the average of the two probabilities, which since they are both one out of six, the probability of rolling a six and then a two is one out of six.

Answer:

1/7 should be the answer you are looking for

The function that represents the dotted line of the graph using transformation rules is; f(x - 1) - 4.

For the function f(x) of the given graph,  when we look at the solid line, we see that it has a root at x = -1 which means it has a zero at x = -1.

However, when observing the dashed line, we see that it has a root at x = 0 which means it has a zero at x = 0.

Thus, we can  deduce from transformation rules that the function was moved by 1 unit to the right to get the new function.

Secondly, we observe that the dashed line is also below the function f(x), and we observe further that 4 was subtracted. Therefore, when we use the transformation rules again for subtracting from a function, we get the final function as; f(x - 1) - 4.

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Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation: