Answers
Ashura is writing a paper for her psychology class. The topic is bipolar disorder, and she plans to include a section on "medication" under biomedical treatments.
Ashura plans to include a section on medication under biomedical treatments for bipolar disorder in her psychology paper. Medications are often used as a primary treatment approach for bipolar disorder to help manage symptoms such as mood swings, manic or depressive episodes, and anxiety.
Common medications for bipolar disorder include mood stabilizers, antipsychotics, antidepressants, and benzodiazepines. It's worth noting that medication may not be effective for everyone and different types of medication can have different side effects, so it's important for individuals to work closely with a healthcare provider to find the most effective treatment plan for their specific needs.
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Related Questions
Often when a cancerous tumor is surgically removed from a patient surrounding lymph nodes are removed as well. Why?
Cancers that metastasize will travel to nearby lymph nodes first
Answers
Doctors can assess whether cancer has started to metastasis after removing the lymph nodes. Further spread of aberrant cells may be stopped by a lymphadenectomy.
From the main tumor site, cancer cells can separate and spread to other parts of the body through the lymphatic or blood systems. This is especially true for cancers of the breast, melanoma, head and neck, differentiated thyroid, lung, gastric, and colorectal.
This process of metastasis, wherein cancer cells from the tumors spread to new locations or develop inside the lymph nodes, is then possible. Cancer in additional lymph nodes is most often present in patients who have a positive or affected sentinel lymph node.
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which type of drug treats the symptoms of menopause caused by a decreased level of estradiol?
Answers
The type of drug that is commonly used to treat the symptoms of menopause caused by a decreased level of estradiol is called hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
Estradiol is a steroid hormone that is essential for the development and maintenance of female reproductive health. It is the primary female sex hormone and plays a crucial role in the menstrual cycle, ovulation, and pregnancy. Estradiol is produced primarily in the ovaries, but small amounts are also produced by the adrenal glands in both men and women.
Estradiol levels vary throughout the menstrual cycle, with peak levels occurring during ovulation. It is responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, such as breast growth and the distribution of body fat. It also helps maintain bone density and regulates cholesterol levels.
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A client's Holter monitor strip reveals a heart rate with normal conduction but with a rate consistently above 105 beats/minute. What type of dysrhythmia would the cardiologist likely diagnose
Answers
Answer:
Tachycardia
Explanation:
tachycardia is a SR heart rate >100
an adult client has reported experiencing a dry mouth and urinary retention after several nights of taking an over-the-counter (otc) sleep aid. the nurse should suspect that this medication contains what antihistamine?
Answers
The antihistamine that is most likely to cause dry mouth and urinary retention is diphenhydramine, which is a common ingredient in many over-the-counter sleep aids.
Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine that is used as a sleep aid because it can cause drowsiness. However, it can also cause side effects such as dry mouth, urinary retention, blurred vision, and constipation.
These side effects are more common in older adults, who may be more sensitive to the effects of antihistamines.
If an adult client reports experiencing dry mouth and urinary retention after taking an over-the-counter sleep aid, the nurse should suspect that the medication contains diphenhydramine and should advise the client to stop taking the medication and consult with their healthcare provider.
The nurse should also advise the client to drink plenty of water to help alleviate the dry mouth and to seek medical attention if the urinary retention persists or becomes more severe.
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The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. The child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered to the child for each dose? Round the answer to the hundredth place
Answers
Answer:
Each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.
Explanation:
Given that the doctor prescribed 3 mg / kg twice daily for 5 days, the child weighs 35 pounds and the medication is available as 50 mg / mL, to determine how many mL should be administered to the child for each dose, the following should be done calculation:
1 pound = 0.453592 kilos
35 pounds = 0.453592 x 35 = 15.8757 kilos
15.8757 x 3 = 47.6271
Thus, each dose of the drug must contain 47.62 milligrams of it.
1 kg = 2.205 pound
Since the child weigh 35 pounds, hence:
35 pounds = 35 pounds * 1 kg per 2.205 pound = 15.88 kg
The doctor prescribed 3 mg/kg twice daily for 5 days. For each dose, the mg needed is:
mg = 3 mg/kg * 15.88 kg = 47.64 mg
Since the medication is available as 50 mg/mL, hence:
ml = 47.64 ml / 50 mg/mL = 0.95 ml
0.95 ml should be administered to the child for each dose
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The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a mother whose lactose intolerant school-aged child was recently found to have celiac disease. Which statements by the mother demonstrate understanding of the child's nutritional needs? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
- "I'll try to provide meals that are lower in fats and higher in carbohydrates."
- "She loves raw carrots for snacking, so I'll have to avoid those when the disease is worse."
- "I'll be sure to look at the labels more closely from now on—we need to avoid hydrolyzed vegetable protein."
Answers
The nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a mother who is lactose intolerant, so the statements supporting them are the last option. "I'll be sure to look at the labels more closely from now on—we need to avoid hydrolyzed vegetable protein."
What is the significance of celiac disease in humans?It is a disorder in which the body cannot tolerate gluten, which is abundant in wheat and barley, so people with this condition should adhere to a strict gluten-free diet to manage their symptoms and prevent small intestine damage. Gluten consumption causes abdominal pain, bloating, and diarrhea in these people.
Hence, the nurse is reviewing discharge instructions for a mother who is lactose intolerant, so the statements supporting them are the last option. "I'll be sure to look at the labels more closely from now on—we need to avoid hydrolyzed vegetable protein."
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John Phillips is mowing the grass and mows over a yellow jacket nest. He is stung twice and soon afterward starts complaining of intense itching and exhibits erythema and hives on his arms, torso, and face.
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painpainpainpainpainpainpainpainpainpainpainpainpainpainpainapianpainapianpain.
Why might autoimmune diseases develop in the human body?
Answers
Answer:
When the body senses danger from a virus or infection, the immune system kicks into gear and attacks it. its called an immune response. Sometimes, healthy cells and tissues are caught up in this response, resulting in an autoimmune disease.
Explanation:
I HOPE THIS HELPS!!!
Autoimmune diseases develop in the body because the immune system of the body fights against the health issues of the body.
What are autoimmune diseases?Autoimmune diseases are diseases caused when the immune system of the body attacks the healthy cells of the body. Arthritis is an autoimmune disease.
When our immune system feels danger it attacks, but sometimes it attacks the healthy cells, which causes autoimmune diseases.
Thus, because the immune system of the body battles against the body's health problems, autoimmune illnesses begin to develop in the body.
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What is diagnosis for patient with asymptomatic irregular flat patches on dorsum of the tongue with red centers and an irregular white periphery?
Answers
Answer:
geographic tongue (erythema migrans)
Explanation:
I hope this helps! If it does could you please mark me brainliest.
Which of these actions are appropriate ways to minimize interruptions in chest compressions?a. Switch positions while the AED analyzes.b. Continue compressions while the AED pads are placed.c. Remain in position with the hands a few inches above the patient's chest during shock delivery.
Answers
In order to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the following actions are appropriate :b. Continue compressions while the AED pads are placed.
This means that you should continue performing chest compressions while the automated external defibrillator (AED) pads are being applied to the patient's chest. This helps to ensure that blood circulation is maintained and the interruption in chest compressions is minimized.
The other two options mentioned are not appropriate ways to minimize interruptions in chest compressions:
a. Switch positions while the AED analyzes: It is important to avoid switching positions or interrupting chest compressions while the AED is analyzing the heart rhythm. It is necessary to ensure that uninterrupted chest compressions are performed until the AED prompts to stop and delivers a shock if necessary.
c. Remain in position with the hands a few inches above the patient's chest during shock delivery: During shock delivery, it is crucial to ensure that no one is in contact with the patient or the surrounding area to prevent the electric current from traveling through them.
Remember, in CPR, maintaining high-quality chest compressions with minimal interruptions is essential for the best possible outcome for the patient.
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pertaining to the chest med term
Answers
Answer:
Thoratic
Explanation:
Each of the following occurs when blood clots after a cut EXCEPT:
a. platelets release clotting factor.
b. thromboplastin converts prothrombin into thrombin.
c. thrombin converts fibrin into fibrinogen.
d. fibrin filaments trap cells to produce a clot.
Answers
Each of the following occurs when blood clots after a cut EXCEPT: thrombin converts fibrin into fibrinogen.
So, the correct answer is C.
When blood clots after a cut, platelets release clotting factor to initiate the clotting process. Thromboplastin then converts prothrombin into thrombin, which in turn converts fibrinogen into fibrin. The fibrin filaments then trap cells to produce a clot. However, the statement "thrombin converts fibrin into fibrinogen" is incorrect.
Thrombin actually converts fibrinogen into fibrin, which is an important step in the formation of a blood clot. The clotting process is a complex and crucial mechanism for preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing.
Understanding the steps involved can help in developing treatments for clotting disorders and improving patient outcomes.
Hence, the answer of the question is C.
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What is the outcome of amino acids if someone overeats protein and kcalories in general?
a. The amino acids are stored as fat.
b. The amino acids are excreted as a waste product.
c. The amino acids are stored as glucose.
d. The amino acids are converted to muscle tissue.
Answers
Answer:
c) the amino acids are stored as glucose.
When someone overeats protein and calories, the excess amino acids can be converted to fat, excreted as waste, converted to glucose, or have limited conversion to muscle tissue depending on individual factors, options a, b, c & d are correct.
When someone overeats protein and calories in general, the outcome for amino acids depends on several factors, including the individual's overall energy balance and metabolic processes. Here are the potential outcomes:
a. Some excess amino acids may be converted to fat: When the body has an excess of amino acids, it can convert them into glucose through a process called gluconeogenesis. If the glucose stores are already full, the excess glucose may be converted into fatty acids and stored as adipose tissue.
b. Excretion of amino acids: If the body has an oversupply of amino acids that it cannot utilize or store, they may be excreted as waste products, mainly through urine.
c. Conversion to glucose: In certain situations, the body may convert excess amino acids to glucose through gluconeogenesis. This primarily occurs when the body requires glucose for energy but lacks sufficient carbohydrate intake.
d. Limited conversion to muscle tissue: Excess amino acids alone are unlikely to result in significant muscle tissue growth. The synthesis of muscle tissue requires a combination of factors, including an appropriate exercise stimulus and a balanced nutrient intake, options a, b, c & d are correct.
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For this assignment each group will refer to the group PICOT question that has been developed during in-class work sessions. The group will determine at least two ways to collect data on the outcome component of the question. There will be a discussion board posting to enable submission of this assignment.
For this assignment:
1. Share the group PICOT question and Identify the outcome of the group PICOT question (“O” element). PICOT QUESTION IS In patients with diverticulosis, how does a high fiber diet compared with sulfasalazine affect recurring episodes of diverticulitis within a month?
2. Identify two articles in which single primary research studies are reported. (Do not use systematic reviews, literature reviews, or clinical practice guidelines for this assignment). The articles will be from a peer reviewed journals and will be current (within the last five years).
3. Briefly describe the two outcomes as they are reported in the articles you are submitting: 1) describe how the outcome was defined (conceptual definition) and how it was measured (operational definition); describe the validity and reliability of the measure if applicable….if this is not relevant or not available, make note of it in your assignment.
4. Consider the relevance of your two selected outcomes for the practice environment…..that is, would it be appropriate to measure the outcome in practice as it was described in the article or not? If yes, why? If no, why?
5. Submit a copy of each article with the assignment. Attach as a PDF or HTML file. There will be a discussion board posting to facilitate submission.
Answers
The initials PICOT stands for patients, intervention, comparison, or (occasionally) time, which are components of such a clinical research question. The case scenario is utilised to establish issue in the PICOT.
What does the acronym Picot question mean?PICOT translates as: Patient/Population Issue: Who really is your patient. Age, race, health status, and sex are all factors. What are your plans for the patient, please. (Specific examinations, treatments, and drugs) What is your plan's alternative, in comparison. (Examples: different types of treatments, no treatment, etc.)
What does PICO stand for?A well-known method for formulating a "foreground" research topic is the PICO (people, intervention, control, or outcomes) structure [Table 1]. [3] According to Sackett et al., segmenting the question in four parts will make it easier to find the pertinent data.
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A nurse is explaining prep to a patient. the nurse tells the patient that:
prep may reduce the risk of hiv infection up to 50%.
prep should be taken by anyone who injects illicit drugs.
prep eliminates the need to use other hiv prevention strategies.
prep is a prescription pill that contains two medications used to treat hiv.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
prep may reduce the risk of hiv infection up to 50%.
The correct thing that the nurse is trying to explain to the patient is that PrEP may reduce the risk of HIV infection up to 50%.
What is PrEP?The term PrEP is an acronym for Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis. This is one of the most effective methods of HIV prevention.
Hence, the correct thing that the nurse is trying to explain to the patient is that PrEP may reduce the risk of HIV infection up to 50%.
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identify any two factors that could promote unacceptable behaviour among spectators
Answers
Answer:
. Social Identity Theory
Hooliganism
Explanation:
if someone has a antigen and rh antigen what type of blood would one have?(Please help quickly!)
Answers
2. The physician orders 25 mg of Phenergan to be administered IM. The medication on hand is available as 50 mg / 2 mL. How many cubic centimeters must be administered?
Answers
The patient must be administered 0.5 cubic centimeters of the medication.
Solving for how many cubic centimeters that must be administered:According to the physician's orders, the patient must be administered 25 mg of Phenergan, which is equivalent to 12.5 mg per mL. The medication on hand is available as 50 mg per 2 mL, so 1 mL of the medication contains 25 mg.
50 mg = 2ml
12.5 mg = x ml
solving for x ml, we have:
cross multiply and make x ml the subject of the formular.
50mg * x ml = 12.5mg * 2ml
x ml = 12.5mg * 2ml
50 mg
x ml = 0.5 ml
Note: 1 milliliter = 1 cubic centimeter
Therefore, the patient must be administered 0.5 mL (or 0.5 cubic centimeters) of the medication.
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.Diet-planning principles and dietary guidelines are primarily meant to be used when eating out.
False or true?
Answers
The statement "Diet-planning principles and dietary guidelines are primarily meant to be used when eating out" is false because diet-planning principles and dietary guidelines are designed to help individuals make healthier food choices, whether they are eating at home or dining out.
The diet-plаnning principles of аdequаcy, bаlаnce, cаlorie (energy) control, nutrient density, moderаtion, аnd vаriety аre importаnt concepts in choosing а heаlthful diet. The Dietаry Guidelines аdvice on whаt to eаt аnd drink to meet nutrient needs, promote heаlth, аnd prevent diseаse. The purpose of the Dietаry Guidelines for Аmericаns is to provide аdvice on whаt to eаt аnd drink to build а heаlthy diet thаt cаn promote heаlthy growth аnd development, help prevent diet-relаted chronic diseаse, аnd meet nutrient needs.
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Which type of synovial joint allows you to rotate your head?
O A. Gliding joint
O B. Pivot joint
O C.
Saddle joint
OD
Ball-and-socket joint
Answers
Pivot joint is a freely moving diarthrosis that enables only rotary movement around a single axis. Therefore, option (C) allows you to rotate your head.
What is a pivot joint?The first and second vertebrae of the spine are connected to one another by a pivot joint, which is located at the base of the skull. Consequently, this enables the head to rotate from side to side. A pivot joint is a type of joint that allows for movement of the bones in only one plane, such as rotation around a single axis.
A synovial joint known as the atlantoaxial joint can be categorized as both a biaxial and a pivot joint. This joint is located in the upper region of the neck, between the first and second cervical vertebrae, also known as the atlas and axis, respectively.
Therefore, option (B) is correct.
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Relating to the Expectancy Theory - Sarah has been struggling with her typing speed at work. Her employer has spoken to her multiple times about her reports done on time. Sarah plans to practice typing at home 3 nights a week until her typing speed improves. Which expectancy model of motivation does Sarah have?
Answers
The expectancy model of motivation that Sarah have is the effort to the performance.
What do you mean by the Expectancy theory of motivation?The expectancy theory of motivation may be characterized as the intensity of work effort depending on the perception that an individual's effort will result in the desired outcome. This theory was developed by Victor Vroom in 1964.
Expectancy theory has three components. They are as follows:
Effort → performance (E → P).Performance → outcome (P → O).Outcome → reward. (O → R).Now, according to the context of this question, Sarah belongs to the first component of the expectancy theory where she has to focus on the efforts that improve her performance.
Therefore, the expectancy model of motivation that Sarah have is the effort to the performance.
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Chanthavy Chhet, 46 y/o female admitted for dehydration and gastritis. She is accompanied by her uncle who speaks fluent English, but patient speaks little to no English and is a Cambodian native. The uncle suggests that nursing staff address the patient by CC. Family is concerned that she has not been eating or drinking. Her non-verbal communication indicates abdominal discomfort. Vital signs are: T: 99.4 F, 37.4 C, P:92, R:18, PaO2: 98%, BP: 102/82 sitting, BP: 90/64 standing Directions: Based on the patient you chose to complete the Disease Process paper and the priority nursing diagnosis you identified based on the patient’s needs complete the Nursing Care Plan.
Directions: Complete the Disease Process paper based on one of the patients assigned in Swift River for each week. Your responses should reflect a depth of understanding of the disease process and nursing interventions. An excellent resource for you in completing this assignment is MedlinePlus.gov.
Submit this assignment in the Eshell in Canvas under the appropriate week.
Diagnosis(es) List all of the Swift River Patient’s diagnoses:
Predisposing Factors:
Pathophysiology:
Signs and Symptoms:
Diagnostic Tests and Rationale (labs, radiology, etc)
Potential Complications:
Nursing Interventions:
Possible Nursing Diagnoses-List a minimum of 3 nursing diagnoses using the NANDA approved diagnoses:
Answers
Nursing assessment: The family has complained about eating less. The diagnosis is nutritional imbalance caused by inadequate nutrient absorption or inadequate nutrition compared to body requirements. Results: The patient's nutritional intake will increase.
A clinical or nursing assessment of a client moving from one degree of wellness or competence to another, expressed as "Potential" or "Readiness." A client's performance, current competencies, performance, clinical data, or a clear expression of desire to reach a higher level of state or function in a particular area of health promotion and maintenance are all taken into consideration when a nurse makes a judgement about a patient's wellness state or condition.
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There are two very common suffixes –ectomy and –itis. Shoot 10 terms with these two suffixes?
Answers
The two very common suffixes –ectomy and –it that you can combine with root words to create medical terms that you’ll encounter in medical settings.
Below are 10 terms with these two suffixes:
Ten terms with suffix -ectomy: Adenectomy - surgical removal of a gland Appendectomy - surgical removal of the appendix Cardiectomy - surgical removal of the heart Laryngectomy - surgical removal of the larynxNephrectomy - surgical removal of a kidney Oophorectomy - surgical removal of an ovaryThyroidectomy - surgical removal of the thyroid Tonsillectomy - surgical removal of the tonsils
Hysterectomy - surgical removal of the uterus Gastrectomy - surgical removal of all or part of the stomach terms with suffix -itis: Arthritis - inflammation of one or more joints Bronchitis - inflammation of the bronchial tubes Dermatitis - inflammation of the skinGastritis - inflammation of the stomach Meningitis - inflammation of the meninges of the brainOsteomyelitis - inflammation of the bone marrow and surrounding bone Tonsillitis - inflammation of tonsillitis - inflammation of the colonEncephalitis - inflammation of the brain Hepatitis - inflammation of the liver.
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What is the function of the highlighted
structures?
Connecting to muscles
Controlling center
Destroying foreign invaders
Circulating nutrients
Answers
The highlighted structure depicts the central nervous system (CNS). Hence, it functions as a controlling center. The second option is correct.
What is the central nervous system?The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. The brain and spinal cord consist of many regulatory glands or centers, such as the pituitary gland, hypothalamus, etc. Peripheral nerves derive from this CNS and innervate different body organs to regulate their functions.
Hence, the highlighted CNS acts as a controlling center. Other options do not represent the CNS. The correct answer is second option.
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Choose the correct answer:
What does personalized medicine depend on?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) mutation
D) enzyme
E) polymorphism
Answers
A nurse is assessing a client for a suspected injury. The nurse knows that which of the following are signs of a possible head injury? Select all that apply.
Grey-Turner sign
Halo sign
Raccoon eyes
Kehr's sign
Battle's sign
Answers
Grey-Turner sign, Halo sign, Raccoon eyes, Kehr's sign, and Battle's sign are all signs or symptoms that can be associated with a head injury.
However, the presence of these signs alone does not necessarily indicate a head injury. A thorough medical evaluation and diagnostic testing are required to confirm a head injury.
That being said, here's a brief explanation of each sign you've mentioned:
Grey-Turner sign: refers to bruising in the flanks or sides of the abdomen, which can be a sign of bleeding or injury to the kidneys, pancreas, or other organs in the abdominal cavity.Halo sign: a ring of blood around a clear or pale fluid discharge from the nose or ears, which can indicate a skull fracture or cerebrospinal fluid leak from the brain or spinal cord.Raccoon eyes: refers to bruising around both eyes, which can be a sign of a skull fracture or brain injury.Kehr's sign: refers to pain in the left shoulder, which can be a sign of a ruptured spleen or other injury to the abdomen or chest that causes blood to irritate the diaphragm, which shares nerve pathways with the left shoulder.Battle's sign: refers to bruising behind the ear, which can be a sign of a skull fracture or brain injury.Know more about head injury here https://brainly.com/question/30551461#
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What type of license is required to utilize the two bon rules on delegation to unlicensed personnel?
Answers
Under the RN licensure and role, APRNs may only delegate tasks to unlicensed staff or assistive personnel utilizing the applicable RN Delegation Rules 224 or 225 as appropriate and in compliance with Rule 217.11(3)(B). APRNs are not authorized to exceed the delegation criteria in Rules 224 and 225.
What is BON?
Licensing: The BON issues licenses to graduates of approved nursing education programs seeking licensure by exam and to nurses licensed in other states seeking Texas licensure by endorsement. All nurses are required to renew their licenses on a biennial basis with evidence of required continuing nursing education. The BON licenses qualified registered nurses to enter practice as advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs), including nurse anesthetists, nurse practitioners, clinical nurse specialists, and nurse midwives.
School Approval: The Texas Board of Nursing (BON) approves schools of nursing which prepare nurses for initial entry into nursing practice.
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the interaction of a drug with a receptor site or enzyme is called its effect. a drug can modify the effect of tissues or cells by activating a receptor, or acting as an . a drug can deactivate with a cell, or act as an . finally, a drug can compete with an agonist to deactivate a cell, which makes the drug a .
Answers
The term "drug interactions effect" refers to how a substance interacts with a receptor or an enzyme.
Through the activation of a receptor or the action of a ligand, a drug can change the impact of tissues or cells. A drug may work as an antiviral agent or deactivate a cell. Finally, a drug becomes a receptor antagonist when it works against an agonist to deactivate a cell.
The term "ligand" refers to a molecule that binds to a receptor, such as a drug, hormone, or neurotransmitter. The binding may be reversible and specific. A receptor can be activated or inactivated by a ligand; activation can change how well a cell functions. Each ligand may interact with different subtypes of receptors.Drugs that attracted the receptors are referred to as ligands, and they can be either agonists or antagonists. Agonists are effective because they cause a biological reaction as a result of interactions between receptors and ligands. Drug action is selective because of receptors. As a result, modifications to a drug's chemical structure can significantly alter its affinity for various classes of receptors, changing both its therapeutic and toxic effects.
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The above question is incomplete. Check below the complete question -
Complete the statement. The interaction of a drug with a receptor site or enzyme is called its ________ effect . A drug can modify the effect of tissues or cells by activating a receptor, or acting as an _______ . A drug can deactivate with a cell, or act as an ______ .Finally, a drug can compete with an agonist to deactivate a cell, which makes the drug a ________
Mrs. Park is an elderly retiree. She has a low, fixed income. What could you tell Mrs. Park that might be of assistance?
Answers
The advice that may be of assistance would be to contact her state medical agency and check her qualification for the several programs which may help her by covering her medicare costs.
What are the plans for senior citizens in the United States?For most retired senior citizens, Medicare will be the best health insurance plan. For people aged 65 or higher or for people who have a disability, the Medicare program will provide the best benefits. A person pays into the medicare program via a Medicare tax when they are working.
The benefits for that are availed in the senior years. This medicare plan has several parts which include public options directly from the medicare agency or through private insurance companies.
A person can decide what kind of program will be best suited for them.
For retired senior citizens with a low income, Medicaid is the most affordable plan. People can even qualify for dual enrolment in the Medicare and Medicaid plans.
Therefore, there are various options for senior citizens and retirees.
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All of the following except ____________ are possible side effects of stigmas associated with mental disorders.
All of the following except
A. discrimination
B. labels
C. prejudice
D. negative stereotypes
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
PLEASE HELPPP WILL GIVR BRAINLIEST ANSWER
Answers
The possible side effects of stigmas associated with mental disorders should not include the labels.
What are stigmas?Social stigma refer to the discrimination or the disapproval against the individual or the group that should be based on the social characteristics where it should be make a difference from the other society members.
Its side effects include the discrimination, prejudice. negative stereotypes, etc
Therefore, the option B is correct and the same should be considered.
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