Areas of the immune system located near orifices where lymphocytes congregate as they cleanse and filter the blood of foreign material are called

Answers

Answer 1

Areas of the immune system located near orifices where lymphocytes congregate as they cleanse and filter the blood of foreign material are called mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT).

The immune system is composed of a complex network of cells, tissues, and organs that work together to protect the body from foreign material, such as disease-causing organisms or toxins. Areas of the immune system located near orifices, such as the mouth, nose, and genitals, are called mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT).

These areas contain lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell that is specialized for recognizing and destroying foreign material. The lymphocytes in MALT help to cleanse and filter the blood, trapping any foreign material that may be present. This helps to keep the body healthy and free from disease.

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Related Questions

What do these data tell us about the carcinogenic potential of EMBS?
a. Can it cause cancer in mice?
b. Can it cause cancer in humans?

Answers

These data suggest that EMBS has a potential to cause cancer in mice, but it is not clear whether it can cause cancer in humans. Further studies are needed to determine the potential risks of EMBS exposure in humans.

About EMBS

These data suggest that EMBS has a potential to cause cancer in mice, as it was found to increase the incidence of tumors in mice that were exposed to it. However, it is not clear whether EMBS can cause cancer in humans.

Further studies would be needed to determine the potential risks of EMBS exposure in humans. It is important to note that the results of animal studies are not always directly applicable to humans. There are many differences between mice and humans that can affect the way that they respond to chemicals and other substances.

Therefore, it is important to conduct further research to determine the potential risks of EMBS exposure in humans. In conclusion, these data suggest that EMBS has a potential to cause cancer in mice, but it is not clear whether it can cause cancer in humans. Further studies are needed to determine the potential risks of EMBS exposure in humans.

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How is energy transferred and transformed during the photosynthetic process?

Answers

Answer:

Photosynthesis is the process of converting light energy into chemical energy in the form of glucose, in small structures called chloroplasts. ... In cellular respiration, the energy stored in the bonds of the glucose molecule is broken down and transformed to another type of energy, ATP.

Photosynthesis is the process plants use to convert energy from the sun into usable energy for their cells. Plants use the light energy of the sun, carbon dioxide, and water to make glucose (a sugar), and oxygen. The energy of the sun is captured and stored in the bonds between atoms in glucose molecules.

The tiny compartments where photosynthesis occurs are called chloroplasts, using a pigment called chlorophyll, which makes the plants green. The first energy transformation occurs when light energy from the sun is converted to chemical energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (or ATP) and another molecule called nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (or NADPH). ATP and NADPH provide the energy needed for the next energy transformation.

The plant cells then use the ATP and NADPH to assemble molecules of carbon dioxide and other carbon chains into glucose molecules. The glucose molecules can then be linked together to form cellulose, which plants can use to grow new leaves and stems.

microtubules start at the centrosome and then connect to the kinetochores, which are structures at the central region of chromosomes

Answers

Microtubules start at the centrosome and then connect to the kinetochores, which are structures at the central region of chromosomes. The centrosome is the main microtubule-organizing center (MTOC) in most animal cells, whereas plant cells lack a typical centrosome.

The two spindle poles are the central region of a chromosome where a kinetochore is connected. Microtubules are a type of cytoskeletal protein filament that plays a crucial role in the mechanics of cell division.

Microtubules, together with actin and intermediate filaments, form the cytoskeleton, which is the structural framework of the cell. Microtubules also transport vesicles and organelles, support cell shape, and mediate cell signaling.

They are also crucial in cell division, serving as a framework for the mitotic spindle, a structure that segregates chromosomes during cell division.

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what is the purpose of the taxonomic system

Answers

Explanation:

The purpose of a taxonomic system is to allow for a scientific classification throughout the world. Explanation:Taxonomy is the process that describes the diversity of living things. This process is done using devices such as classification and nomenclature.

I hope it's helpful!

“The purpose of a taxonomic system is to allow for a scientific classification throughout the world. Explanation: Taxonomy is the process that describes the diversity of living things. This process is done using devices such as classification and nomenclature.”

What will be the result if a eukaryotic cell completes mitosis but does not undergo cytokinesis?
Group of answer choices
A one cell with one nucleus containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell
B one cell with two nuclei, each identical to the nucleus of the parent cell
C two cells, each cell with half of the genetic material of the parent cell
D one cell with two nuclei, each containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell

Answers

A cell completing mitosis but not undergoing cytokinesis would result in one cell with two nuclei, each identical to the nucleus of the parent cell ie option B

Mitosis is the process of cell division which results in the formation of two identical daughter cells. Ie if the genetic composition of the parent was diploid or 2n, the daughter cells also end up with a genetic composition of 2n

Cytokinesis refers to the splitting of the cytoplasm during cell division to facilitate its equal distribution among the daughter cells. During the stages of mitosis ie from anaphase to telophase, there is splitting of cytoplasm or cytokinesis occurring. The division of the nucleus continues throughout the M phase of mitosis.

Failure of cytokinesis and normal Karyokinesis would thus result in one cell with two nuclei, containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell.

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The correct answer is D: one cell with two nuclei, each containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell.

Mitosis is the process by which eukaryotic cells divide their genetic material and form two identical daughter cells. Cytokinesis, on the other hand, is the subsequent process of dividing the cytoplasm and other cellular components to separate the two daughter cells.If a eukaryotic cell completes mitosis but does not undergo cytokinesis, the result would be a single cell with two nuclei. The genetic material, represented by the chromosomes, would be divided equally between the two nuclei. This condition is known as binucleation.The lack of cytokinesis would result in a cell with two nuclei sharing the same cytoplasm and cellular components. Although it is not the typical outcome of mitosis, binucleated cells can be observed in certain physiological or pathological conditions, such as liver regeneration or certain diseases.

Therefore, the correct answer is D: one cell with two nuclei, each containing half of the genetic material of the parent cell.

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Explain what happened to the population in both environment and why that support or refute the claim that yellow color is always an adaptive trait in a yellow environment

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Yellow Ostrilopes had a higher chance of surviving in areas where there were predators because they blended in. A trait of yellow was adaptability.

The weather has changed to be dry. In this population, the distribution of traits changed as generations progressed in this environment, changing the large diversity of water-storage traits to solely Level 9 water-storage traits, which are adaptive traits.

A characteristic is a feature of the entire or a specific part of an organism's developmental pattern. Hence, an adaptive trait is a feature of the developmental pattern that aids in the survival and/or reproduction of its bearer in a particular series of conditions. It is up to the person to adopt the adaptive trait.

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testable question?
hypothesis?

independent variable?
dependent variable?
three controlled variables:

Answers

During an experiment, the researcher asks a question that can be tested to answer it. The researcher makes a hypothesis to explain what is expected to occur, and what is the relationship between variables.  

Note: Since I could not find the complete question, I will provide definitions of the exposed terminology as a guide for you to find the answers.

What are testable question, hypothesis, and variables?

Testable questions are the questions the researcher makes before conducting an experiment, and for which there is no answer yet.

It is a question the investigator can test to find its answer.

The hypothesis is a prediction the researcher makes as a potential explanation of what is going on or what is expected to occur. It expresses a direct relationship between the involved variables.

There are three types of variables in an experiment,

Independent variables are the ones that affect or influence other variables. The researcher modifies these variables on purpose to observe the changes they produce in other variables.

Dependent variables are the ones affected by all the changes in the independent variables. They also change as the independent variable is modified.

Controlled variables are all the other variables in which the researcher is not interested. They must be controlled and kept constant because they might affect the results.

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what muscles make up the floor of the femoral triangle

Answers

The main answer is that the muscles that make up the floor of the femoral triangle are the iliopsoas muscle and the pectineus muscle.

The femoral triangle is an anatomical region located in the upper thigh, bordered by various structures. The floor of the femoral triangle is formed by the underlying muscles.

The iliopsoas muscle is a composite muscle consisting of the iliacus and the psoas major muscles. It originates from the lumbar vertebrae and inserts onto the femur. It plays a role in hip flexion and is located deep within the femoral triangle.

The pectineus muscle is a small muscle located in the upper thigh. It originates from the superior pubic ramus and inserts onto the femur. It assists in hip flexion and adduction.

Together, the iliopsoas and pectineus muscles form the floor of the femoral triangle, providing support and stability to the structures in this region.

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What if the SHH you are making needs to be accumulated in the cell so that it can be released all at once into the extracellular space at a specific time? How would you store the produced SHH? What would need to occur to release all of the SHH from storage into the extracellular space?

Answers

If SHH is to be accumulated and then released into cellular space at a specific time, it would be necessary to establish storage mechanisms and release mechanisms.

To store the produced SHH would require specialized cellular compartments.

To release all of the stored SHH, a signal or stimulus would need to trigger the release of SHH from storage into the extracellular space.

What steps would the SHH storage and release process take place?SHH production.Storage.Storage regulation.Production of the SHH release signal.SHH release.

SHH is a protein that is stored within the cell and is released into the extracellular space in times of need. These processes need to work in a very regulated way in order to achieve their objectives. For this reason, well-regulated and optimized storage and release mechanisms are needed.

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Which statement best illustrates a biotic or an abiotic factor that is often found in a city park?
Decaying leaves are an abiotic factor because they are living.
Rocks are an abiotic factor because they have never been alive.
Water in ponds is a biotic factor, because it provides a habitat for living things.
Oxygen is a biotic factor, because it is required for life and found in all living things.

Answers

Answer:

Rocks are an abiotic factor because they have never been alive.

Explanation:

Just took the test

Answer:

B- Rocks are an abiotic factor because they have never been alive.

Explanation:

Edge 2020 got an 100

What is the primary advantage of multiple researchers obtaining the same result?
O Conclusions are more credible when they are independently verified.
O Conclusions are less likely to be forgotten years later.
O Conclusions are less likely to require additional research at a later date.
O Conclusions are more likely to be disproved by additional research.

Answers

Hello!

The primary advantage of multiple researchers obtaining the same result is the conclusion is likely to be more credible when they are independently verified. As the work done by them gives the same result, it can be easier to believe.

Answer:

Discoveries are more credible when they are independently verified.

Explanation:

Discoveries are more credible when they are independently verified. Discoveries are less likely to be forgotten years later. Discoveries are less likely to require additional research at a later date...

If multiple researches obtained the same result, it means that the test is highly repeatable ! Highly repeatable results are always very welcomes, because people believe that they have a high validity and high credibility. 

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PLZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ HELPME I BEGGING YOU!!!

Which condition does Elisa have? *
A. Asthma
B. Anemia
C. Pancreatic Injury
D. Diabetes



WRITE YOUR DIAGNOSIS HERE: "It is my opinion that Elisa has _________. This is because _________ and __________ ." (This is a sample starter for you to use. Write your claim and support it with evidence.) *

PLZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZZ HELPME I BEGGING YOU!!!Which condition does Elisa have? *A. AsthmaB. AnemiaC.

Answers

Answer

A asthma

Explanation:

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Answers

Answer:

It would most likely be within the mantle. the mantle is in the interior of the earth;. So inner core.

Explanation:

Describe the difference in MPS (and hypertrophy) with overfeeding in an untrained/obese group compared to a group of trained individuals.

Answers

In an untrained/obese group, overfeeding can lead to an increase in muscle protein synthesis (MPS) and hypertrophy, but the response may be blunted compared to a group of trained individuals.

Trained individuals generally have a higher baseline level of MPS and muscle mass, which may limit the extent of MPS and hypertrophy in response to overfeeding.

In an untrained or obese group, overfeeding can provide an excess of nutrients, including protein, which can stimulate MPS and promote muscle hypertrophy. However, several factors may affect the response to overfeeding in this group. Untrained individuals may have lower baseline levels of MPS and muscle mass compared to trained individuals, which can limit the potential for substantial increases in MPS and hypertrophy.

Additionally, obesity is associated with metabolic dysregulation, such as insulin resistance and chronic inflammation, which can negatively impact muscle protein metabolism. These metabolic disturbances can impair the anabolic response to overfeeding and limit the extent of MPS and hypertrophy.

On the other hand, trained individuals who regularly engage in resistance exercise have already established a higher baseline level of MPS and muscle mass. Their muscles are more sensitive to the anabolic stimuli of overfeeding and may exhibit a greater response in terms of MPS and hypertrophy. Trained individuals also tend to have better metabolic health, which can further enhance the muscle protein synthesis response to overfeeding.

In summary, while both untrained/obese individuals and trained individuals may experience increases in MPS and hypertrophy with overfeeding, the response in the untrained/obese group may be blunted due to lower baseline levels of MPS, metabolic dysregulation, and impaired muscle protein metabolism. Trained individuals, with their higher baseline levels of MPS and muscle mass, may exhibit a more pronounced response to overfeeding in terms of MPS and hypertrophy.

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For the following template
DNA sequence:
3 TÁC AGA - GGT -
TCG - ATC 5'
a) provide the amino acid
sequence
b) provide the anticodons in
order
c) Mutate the above DNA
sequence to introduce a
silent substitution. Write the
mutated DNA sequence
down.
Make sure to clearly
indicate if your answer for
each part by labeling it a) or
b) or c)

Answers

Answer:

a) Methionine- Serine- Proline- Serine- STOP.

b) UAC- AGA - GGU -

UCG - AUC

c) AUG- UCG- CCA- AGC- UAG

Explanation:

A) The DNA sequence in this question is given as follows: 3 TÁC -AGA - GGT -

TCG - ATC 5'. This sequence undergoes transcription and translation (gene expression) in order to give rise to an amino acid sequence.

The mRNA sequence that will result following transcription is: AUG- UCU- CCA- AGC- UAG

Following translation, each codon in the above mRNA sequence will result in the following amino acid sequence: Methionine- Serine- Proline- Serine- STOP.

B) Anticodons are a group of three nucleotides that are complementary to a codon found on the tRNA molecule. The anticodons for each codon on the mRNA sequence is: UAC- AGA - GGU -

UCG - AUC

C) Silent mutation is a type of substitution mutation in which one or more nucleotide base is replaced by another in such a way that it does not change or alter the amino acid sequence. Using the mRNA sequence: AUG- UCU- CCA- AGC- UAG

A mutated sequence is as follows: AUG- UCG- CCA- AGC- UAG. Note that, G has replaced U in the second nucleotide. However, there is no change in amino acid that results because the same UCU that codes for SERINE is also encoded by UCG.

Animal Systems:Question 7
The following is a list of several human body systems.

1 Transport of nutrients and gases to cells
2. Contractions/Movement of the body
3. Productions of gametes
4. Exchange of gases

Which two functions of systems in the list describes the circulatory and misstems?
Answers
1 and 4
1 and 3
1 and 2
2 and 3​

Answers

Answer:

2 and 3

Explanation:

no explanation please

List the sequence of events that occur as the avocado seed germinates.

Answers

Answer: The sequence of events of avocado seed germination includes:

Water absorption --> enzyme activation --> radicle emerges --> lengthening of the hypocotyl --> growth of epicotyl and plumule development --> shrinking of the cotyledons.

Explanation:

Germination is defined as all the changes that occurs when a seed embryo resumes it's growth and development to become an independent seedling. Seeds usually germinate in two ways:

--> EPIGEAL germination: in this type of germination, the hypocotyl grows rapidly and elongates, carrying the cotyledon above the soil.The AVOCADO seed is a typical example of a dicotyledonous plant.

The sequence of events of avocado seed germination starts by imbibition which is the rapid in take or absorption of water by the seed through osmosis. Hydration of the embryo activates the enzymes in it which converts insoluble stored food materials into soluble forms. The testa splits and the radicle emerges first. It grows downwards as the primary root from which root hairs and branch roots arise( to form a tap root system). Next, the hypocotyl lengthens, pushes its way up through the soil carrying with it the cotyledons and the plumule. The cotyledons turn green on exposure to sunlight and start to photosynthesize. The epicotyl then grows and the plumule develops into a green shoot. By the time the first foliage leaves grow and begin to photosynthesize, the cotyledons shrink and drop off.

The ultimate objective of the forensic investigation is to obtain evidence that will reveal the _____. There are two factors of -36 such that one factor is 11 less than half of the other factor. Choose all the pairs of these factors.

Answers

The correct answer to this open question is the following.

The ultimate objective of the forensic investigation is to obtain evidence that will reveal the identity of the victim.

When we refer to forensic sciences, we need to understand that these activities are aimed at examining the evidence the police find in the scene of a crime. To find the facts of a crime, forensic experts have to use scientific techniques and principles because the results of the investigation have to be objective. The evidence these experts collect is going to be useful for juries in a trial.

Can someone please help me!

Can someone please help me!

Answers

Answer:

thats the 2 number point okay,plasma contains platelets ,ok

a doctor has ordered 4 units of red blood cells for a patient with anti-e in his serum. how many units would have to be screened to yield 4 e-negative units? (note: the frequency of the e-antigen in the general population is 30%)

Answers

13.3 units of red blood cells would have to be screened to yield 4 e-negative units.

Red blood cells with the "e" antigen are commonly found in the general population and make up about 30% of red blood cells. If a patient has anti-e in their serum, this means that their blood would attack red blood cells with the e antigen if they were transfused. To avoid this reaction, the doctor has ordered e-negative red blood cells for the patient.

To yield 4 units of e-negative blood, a larger number of red blood cells would need to be screened. This is because only 70% of red blood cells do not have the e antigen. To get 4 units of e-negative blood, approximately 13.3 units of red blood cells would need to be screened.

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The percentage of oxygen in air is 21%.
The mass of air in a classroom was 220 kg
Calculate the mass of oxygen in the classroom.
Mass of oxygen=?

Answers

The mass of oxygen in the room would be 46.2 kg.

Percent composition

The percent composition of a component of a substance refers to the mass of the component in relation to the mass of the substance itself. This can be mathematically expressed as:

Percent composition = mass of component/mass of substance x 100%

In this case, the percent composition of oxygen in the air is given as 21% and the total mass of air in the classroom is given as 220 kg. The amount of oxygen in the classroom can be calculated as follows:

Percent composition of oxygen = mass of oxygen/mass of air

Making the mass of oxygen the subject of the formula:

Mass of oxygen = percent composition of oxygen x mass of air

Now, let's substitute the values:

Mass of oxygen = 21% x 220

                           = 0.21 x 220

                            = 46.2 kg.

In other words, the mass of oxygen in the classroom would be 46.2 kg.

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which statements describe earths continents? Check all that app

Answers

Answer:

Hey!

Well next time please put up the different options that we can pick from!

Explanation:

\(WelpItsHappenedAgain!!!\)

How does the urban and natural water cycle compare?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

he natural water cycle is a continuing process of evaporation, condensation, precipitation and groundwater (Figure 1). ... The urban water cycle (Figure 2) shows the consequences of increased development. More development and more concrete means less infiltration of rainwater into the soil, and more run off.

~Hope it helps! And stay safe~

Both the urban and natural water cycles have a lot of differences in their properties and occurrence. This is because due to the presence of artificial surroundings in urban areas.

What do you mean by the water cycle?

The water cycle may be defined as the continuous movement of water throughout the atmosphere. It involves all the processes and stages of water.

Due to the development in the urban areas, the natural water cycle gets affected. The natural water cycle deals with evaporation, condensation, sublimation, etc. but the urban water cycle has concrete walls, infertile soil, and a ruptured environment where there is less or no rainfall at all.

Therefore, Both the urban and natural water cycles have a lot of differences in their properties and occurrence.

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____________are proteins that bind to the core promoter near the start point for transcription and are involved in the recruitment of RNA polymerase II.

Answers

Transcription factors are proteins that bind to the core promoter near the start point for transcription and are involved in the recruitment of RNA polymerase II.

What are Transcription factors?

The promotion of gene expression is reliant on the presence of specific proteins called transcription factors that bind to certain DNA molecules located in a target gene's promoter region.

These regulators are vital for governing various biological processes like embryonic development, tissue differentiation, and response mechanisms towards molecular signals from their surroundings.

Through their interactions with RNA polymerases or recruitment of co-regulating agents to the relevant machinery, transcription factors modify expression rates based on their activation-repression tendencies.

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Bone marrow stem cells differentiate into any type of cell. true or false?

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Bone marrow mesenchymal stem cells have pluripotent potential and mainly into osteoblasts into the skeleton, but its unbalanced.

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Stem cells from bone marrow are pluripotent which can differentiate from signaling mechanisms.

Simone cut a large blossom into several small pieces and re-wired the pieces to create small flowers. What is this technique called?

O Feathering
O Wiring
O Extending
O Pruning

Answers

Answer:

O Feathering

Explanation:

Feathering refers to the technique by which large flowers are cut into small pieces, which are then used to create smaller flowers. Feathering consists of removing the petals and wire the petals in order to create a smaller form. Carnations are a type of flower in which feathering is applied. This process was widely used by florists in the past but currently is uncommon due to the excessive time and labor involved in this technique.

Recombinant DNA technology is used for all of the following EXCEPT ________.
insertion of genes from humans or plants into bacteria or viruses
human-insulin production by bacterial cells
amplification of DNA for microbe identification
hepatitis-B-vaccine production using yeast cells
culturing unknown organisms
culturing organisms

Answers

Recombinant DNA technology is used for all of the following EXCEPT

culturing organisms.

Culture is the process of reproducing an organism for scientific study. We say microorganisms are cultured when they are grown. Culture is the process of reproducing an organism for scientific study.

What is recombinant DNA technology, and what are some examples?

The joining of DNA molecules from two different species is known as recombinant DNA technology. The recombined DNA molecule is inserted into a host organism, resulting in new genetic combinations useful to science, medicine, agriculture, and industry.

What types of DNA recombination exist?

In living organisms, at least four types of recombination have been identified: (1) general or homologous recombination, (2) illegitimate or nonhomologous recombination, (3) site-specific recombination, and (4) replicative recombination.

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Full Question :Recombinant DNA technology is used for all of the following EXCEPT ________.

insertion of genes from humans or plants into bacteria or viruses

human-insulin production by bacterial cells

amplification of DNA for microbe identification

hepatitis-B-vaccine production using yeast cells

culturing unknown organisms

culturing organisms

What kind of fossil is created when minerals fill in the hollows of animal tracks?
A. Frozen fossils
B. Imprint fossils
C. Amber fossils
D. Cast fossils

Answers

Answer: The correct answer to the question is option D

CAST FOSSILS.

Explanation: To understand what a cast fossil really is,let's look at what a fossil is generally.

Fossils are traces of what are formed and left of living things which dates back to a long time ago. Fossils are often found in sedimentary rocks examples; Shales, limestone and sandstone.Fossils are left over animals/plants.

Not all fossils are remains of living things.

There are different types of fossils; FROZEN FOSSILS; When an animal is trapped and freezed as a result of drop in temperature.

IMPRINT FOSSILS; They are prints made and left when animals walk or move over clays,these imprints dries and get covered by other sediments.plants also leave imprint fossils.

AMBER FOSSILS; These are fossils that are formed when tiny insects and bugs become trapped in saps of trees, when these saps dries up,they become hard and and an Amber is formed.(a seminiferous material).

CAST FOSSILS; These are fossils that form as a result of the death of plant,animal or any organism,when this happens,chemical reaction occurs which brings about a degradation in the bones and flesh if the organism,cavities are formed and minerals are deposited in those cavities bringing about a cast which looks like the original form or image of the organism.

which basal transcription factor contains a subunit that causes local distortion in dna so that proteins can assemble to the promoter?
A. TFIID
B. TFIIH
C. TFIIA
D. TFIIF

Answers

TFIIF is a basal transcription factor that contains a subunit, RAP30, responsible for causing local distortion in DNA so that proteins can assemble to the promoter. This is crucial for the initiation of transcription and the subsequent production of RNA molecules. The correct option is D.

The basal transcription factor that contains a subunit responsible for causing local distortion in DNA is TFIIF. TFIIF is composed of two subunits, one of which is the RAP30 subunit. The RAP30 subunit binds to the promoter region of the DNA and induces a conformational change that causes local distortion in the DNA.

This distortion allows other transcription factors and RNA polymerase II to assemble at the promoter, which is necessary for transcription initiation.

TFIIF also has another subunit, RAP74, which interacts with RNA polymerase II and helps to stabilize the transcription initiation complex. Together, the two subunits of TFIIF play a crucial role in the initiation of transcription by regulating the assembly of the pre-initiation complex at the promoter region of DNA.

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Insulin is an important hormone that allows the body to use glucose from food. After an individual eats a meal, glucose travels through the blood stream and reaches beta cells in the pancreas. The glucose causes the beta cells to release insulin. Insulin then travels through the blood stream and attaches to insulin receptors on other cells, which allows them to take in glucose and use it for energy.

Answers

Insulin allows cells in the muscles, liver and adipose tissue to take up this glucose and use it as a source of energy so that they can function properly.

What is Insulin?

Insulin is defined as a peptide hormone produced by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets in humans encoded by the INS gene, which is considered the body's main anabolic hormone.

Insulin is the essential hormone which allows the body to use glucose from food. After a person eats a meal, glucose travels through the bloodstream and reaches beta cells in the pancreas where glucose causes the beta cells to release insulin.

Thus, Insulin allows cells in the muscles, liver and adipose tissue to take up this glucose and use it as a source of energy so that they can function properly.

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Other Questions
How many grams of a 15 percent alcohol solution should be mixed with 40 grams of a 30 percent solution to obtain a solutionthat is 25 percent alcohol? One of your direct reports thinks that you are not acting responsibly or in the best interests of the company with him or the department in which you work. The direct report has informed you that your communication and work style are lacking and that this is also causing problems with others in the department. You are upset over this news and realize it could cause you problems with your boss and those above. What would you do, when, why, and how? Cammie received 100 NQOs (each option provides a right to purchase 10 shares of MNL stock for $10 per share). She started working for MNL Corporation four years ago (5/1/Y1) when MNLs stock price was $8 per share. Now (8/15/Y5) that MNLs stock price is $40 per share, she intends to exercise all of her options. After acquiring the 1,000 MNL shares with her stock options, she held the shares for over one year and sold (on 10/1/Y6) them at $60 per share. (Leave no answer blank. Enter zero if applicable. Input all amounts as positive values.) Problem 12-27 Part a (Static)a. What are Cammies taxes due on the grant date (5/1/Y1), exercise date (8/15/Y5), and sale date (10/1/Y6), assuming her ordinary marginal rate is 32 percent and her long-term capital gains rate is 15 percent?AmountTax on grant dateTax on exercise dateTax on sale dateb. What are MNL Corporations tax savings on the grant date (5/1/Y1), exercise date (8/15/Y5), and sale date (10/1/Y6)?AmountTax on grant dateTax on exercise dateTax on sale date An ice age is a period in which large areas of earth are covered in ice a senator wishes to estimate the proportion of united states voters who favor abolising the electoral college. how large a sample is needed in order to be 90% confident that the sample proportion will not differ from the true proportion by more than 5% Gina has 7 4/8 feet of silver ribbon and 5 6/8 of gold ribbon. How much more silver ribbon does Gina have than gold ribbon? Enter your answer as a mixed number. Using examples from the text, Living With Art ,compare and contrast how artists create Visual Unity and Conceptual Unity. Selected balance sheet accounts for Tibbetts Company on September 30, 2019, are as follows: Cash $ 38,400 Marketable securities 108,000 Accounts receivable, net 132,000 Inventory 150,000 Prepaid expenses 16,800 Total current assets $445,200 Accounts payable $135,000 Other accrued liabilities. 33,000 Short-term debt 60,000 Total current liabilities $228,000 Required: a. Calculate the working capital, current ratio, and acid-test ratio for Tibbetts Company as of September 30, 2019. b. Summarized here are the transactions/events that took place during the fiscal year ended September 30, 2020. Prepare journal entries for the below transactions and indicate the effect of each item on Tibbetts Company's working capital, current ratio, and acid-test ratio. Use + for increase,- for decrease, and (NE) for no effect. 1. Credit sales for the year amounted to $288,000. The cost of goods sold was $187,200. 2. Collected accounts receivable, $302,400. 3. Purchased inventory on account, $201,600. 4. Issued 600 shares of common stock for $22 per share. 5. Wrote off $8,400 of uncollectible accounts using the allowance for bad debts. 6. Declared and paid a cash dividend, $24,000. FILL THE BLANK. the fact that both rolex and timex have a competitive advantage selling wristwatches is an indication that: ______ As a mother, Maria is expected to take care of her children, love her children and teach her children. These expectations are examples of: A story is written in first-person point of view whenA. someone big and important is telling the story.B. someone outside of the action is telling the story.C. someone uses the words "he" and "she" to tell a story.D. someone taking part in the action is telling the story. Difference between G-mail and E-mail why, according to kingston's mother's version of the aunt's story, does the aunt get married along with 16 other couples over a period of a just a few days? technician a says that a missing wire harness grommet may cause wind noise. technician b says that dealer installed bug shields will not affect airflow around a vehicle. who is right? 1. correct for the water vapor present in the wet dry ice experiment and compare with the mean value for the dry ice experiment. does the presence of water vapor affect the result? use the equations in this laboratory to prove why water vapor does or does not have a large effect on the value obtained 1. Which choice best states the meaning of this sentence, from paragraph 32:"They too have been deaf to the voice of justice and of consanguinity"? ILL GIVE YOU BRAINLIEST!!The type of biome that we live in here in Knightdale, NC is what? *1 pointA TundraA SavannahA Tropical RainforestA Temperate Deciduous ForestA Temperate RainforestA Boreal Forest a.) find a polynomial which when added to the polynomial 3x^2+3x-1 is equivalent to 1b.) find a polynomial which when added to the polynomial 3x^2+3x-1 is equivalent to 2x^2-3PLEASE HELP!!! At which location on the HR Diagram would you find the hottest star? Question 4 options: A B C D What promoted the government to make these changes? Cuba