Answer:
Use the table below to answer questions 5-6.

Answer:

By using moving shaft and coiled wire together, electric generators create electricity. Electric generators essentially convert kinetic energy (the energy of motion) into electric energy.

Explanation:

hope this helped

Answer:

All the sides and inner angles of a regular form must be equal. The sides and angles of an irregular form aren't the same. An equilateral triangle, for example, is a regular form because all of its sides and angles are the same length.

OAmalOHopeO

Student understanding of the relationship between variables is aided by the basic ability of graphing.

To learn more about the data analysis, visit :

https://brainly.com/question/20723333

#SPJ9

Answer:

1. Voltage across 600 pF is 10 V.

2. Voltage across 300 pF is 20 V.

3. Voltage across 200 pF is 30 V.

Explanation:

We'll begin by calculating the total capacitance of capacitor. This can be obtained as follow:

Capicitance 1 (C₁) = 600 pF

Capicitance 2 (C₂) = 300 pF

Capicitance 3 (C₃) = 200 pF

Total capacitance (Cₜ) =?

1/Cₜ = 1/C₁ + 1/C₂ + 1/C₃

1/Cₜ = 1/600 + 1/300 + 1/200

1/Cₜ = 1 + 2 + 3 / 600

1/Cₜ = 6/600

1/Cₜ = 1/100

Cₜ = 100 pF

Next, we shall convert 100 pF to Farad (F). This can be obtained as follow:

1 pF = 1×10¯¹² F

Therefore,

100 pF = 100 pF × 1×10¯¹² F / 1 pF

100 pF = 1×10¯¹⁰ F

Thus, 100 pF is equivalent to 1×10¯¹⁰ F.

Next, we shall determine the charge. This can be obtained as follow:

Voltage (V) = 60 V

Capicitance (C) = 1×10¯¹⁰ F

Charge (Q) =?

Q = CV

Q = 60 × 1×10¯¹⁰ F

Q = 6×10¯⁹ C

1. Determination of the voltage across 600 pF.

Capicitance 1 (C₁) = 600 pF = 6×10¯¹⁰ F

Charge (Q) = 6×10¯⁹ C

Voltage 1 (V₁) =?

Q = C₁V₁

6×10¯⁹ = 6×10¯¹⁰ × V₁

Divide both side by 6×10¯¹⁰

V₁ = 6×10¯⁹ / 6×10¯¹⁰

V₁ = 10 V

2. Determination of the voltage across 300 pF.

Capicitance 2 (C₂) = 300 pF = 3×10¯¹⁰ F

Charge (Q) = 6×10¯⁹ C

Voltage 2 (V₂) =?

Q = C₂V₂

6×10¯⁹ = 3×10¯¹⁰ × V₂

Divide both side by 3×10¯¹⁰

V₂ = 6×10¯⁹ / 3×10¯¹⁰

V₂ = 20 V

3. Determination of the voltage across 200 pF.

Capicitance 3 (C₃) = 200 pF = 2×10¯¹⁰ F

Charge (Q) = 6×10¯⁹ C

Voltage 3 (V₃) =?

Q = C₃V₃

6×10¯⁹ = 2×10¯¹⁰ × V₃

Divide both side by 2×10¯¹⁰

V₃ = 6×10¯⁹ / 2×10¯¹⁰

V₃ = 30 V

Answer:

a: True centrifuge works on centripetal force.

b: False separating funnel can't be used to separate blood cells from samples.

e: False separating funnel cannot separate milk and water.

f: Condenser receives high pressure gas from the compressor and convert this gas to a liquid.

Answer:

Antarctica and Australia were one landmass millions of years ago

Explanation:

Thats the answer I'm very sure of it

Answer:

It is Antartica and Australia

Answer:

Filiberto experimenta una deceleración de \(2\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}\).

Explanation:

(The problem was written in Spanish. Hence, explanation will be held in Spanish).

Asúmase que Filiberto se distrae por 2 segundos, puesto que un par equivale a dos, y que el vehículo experimenta un aceleración constante. La deceleración experimentada por el vehículo se deriva de la siguiente fórmula:

\(a = \frac{v-v_{o}}{\Delta t}\)

\(a = \frac{40\,\frac{m}{s}-90\,\frac{m}{s} }{2\,s}\)

\(a = -25\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}\)

Filiberto experimenta una deceleración de \(2\,\frac{m}{s^{2}}\).

Explanation:

Suspension bridges, like the Golden Gate Bridge or the Brooklyn Bridge, use tension force as the primary source of force that cables use to hold their spans up. The supporting cables receive the tension forces of the bridge, and this same force passes to the anchorages and into the ground

Answer: Доброе утро, ответ 5+5="4

Explanation:

The system described by the transfer function G(s) = -co² s² + 2a + w², with a damping ratio of 1.3 and a natural frequency of 0.5, has an overdamped unit step response. So, the correct option is (E)

The transfer function of the system is given as G(s) = -co² s² + 2a + w², where co represents the damping ratio, a represents an arbitrary constant, and w represents the natural frequency of the system. We are given that the natural frequency is 0.5 and the damping ratio is 1.3.

To determine the type of unit step response, we need to analyze the damping ratio (co) in relation to the critical damping value (co_critical).

The critical damping ratio (co_critical) is defined as the value where the system is on the threshold between being overdamped and underdamped. It is given by the formula co_critical = 2 * sqrt(a * w²).

In our case, the natural frequency (w) is 0.5, so we can calculate co_critical as follows: co_critical = 2 * sqrt(a * 0.5²).

Since the damping ratio (co) is given as 1.3, we can compare it with co_critical to determine the type of unit step response.

If co > co_critical, the system is considered overdamped (Option E).

If co = co_critical, the system is considered critically damped (Option D).

If co < co_critical, the system is considered underdamped (Option C).

Based on the given values, we can determine that the system is overdamped (Option E) because the damping ratio (1.3) is greater than the critical damping ratio.

To know more about damping ratios, refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/31463018#

#SPJ11

Answer:

Many volcanoes in the Ring of Fire were created through a process of subduction. And most of the planet's subduction zones happen to be located in the Ring of Fire. Subduction happens when tectonic plates shift, and one plate is shoved under another.

Explanation:

The answer to this question is :0.4.

The load factor for bolted joint B can be determined using the equation: Load Factor = Applied Load / Proof Load.

First, we need to calculate the proof load for one M14x2 class 4.8 bolt. The proof load is defined as the maximum load that can be applied to a bolt without causing permanent deformation. The proof strength for class 4.8 bolts is 310 MPa, and the stress area for an M14 bolt is 115 mm^2. Thus, the proof load for one bolt is:

Proof Load = Proof Strength * Stress Area = 310 MPa * 115 mm^2 = 35650 N

Since we have four bolts, the total proof load for the joint is:

Total Proof Load = 4 * Proof Load = 4 * 35650 N = 142600 N

To calculate the load factor, we need to know the applied load. If the applied load is known, we can simply divide it by the proof load to get the load factor. If not, we can calculate the maximum load that can be applied to the joint without exceeding the proof load. In this case, we assume that the applied load is distributed equally among the four bolts, so the maximum load that can be applied to one bolt is:

Maximum Load = Proof Load / Safety Factor

The safety factor is a design parameter that ensures that the joint can withstand loads greater than the expected operating load. A common safety factor for bolted joints is 2.5. Thus, the maximum load that can be applied to one bolt is:

Maximum Load = Proof Load / Safety Factor = 35650 N / 2.5 = 14260 N

Since we have four bolts, the maximum load that can be applied to the joint without exceeding the proof load is:

Maximum Applied Load = 4 * Maximum Load = 4 * 14260 N = 57040 N

Therefore, the load factor for bolted joint B is:

Load Factor = Applied Load / Proof Load = Maximum Applied Load / Total Proof Load = 57040 N / 142600 N = 0.4

For more similar questions on load factor:

https://brainly.com/question/13194953

#SPJ11

The frequency of the sodium light is  50.86(s)⁻¹  and the wavelength of the sodium light is 5.898  x10⁻⁷m .

We are given that,

The energy of sodium light is = ΔE = 3.37 × 10⁻¹⁹J

Therefore, to get the frequency and the wavelength of the sodium light

by the equation which is given as,

ΔE = (hc)/λ

Where, h is the plank constant which is  6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J, c is the velocity of light i.e.3×10⁸m/s  , λ is the wavelength of the light which we have to calculate as,

λ = (hc)/ ΔE

λ = ( 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J-sec)(3×10⁸m/s)/(3.37 × 10⁻¹⁹J-sec)

λ = 5.898  x10⁻⁷m

The frequency f of sodium light can be calculated by,

f = c /λ

f = (3×10⁸m/s)/( 5.898  x10⁻⁷m)

f = (0.5086 × 10¹⁵)s⁻¹

f = 50.86(s)⁻¹

Therefore, the frequency of the sodium light would be 50.86(s)⁻¹  and the wavelength of the sodium light would be 5.898  x10⁻⁷m .

To know more about frequency

https://brainly.com/question/22156659

#SPJ1

(a) The electric field at a point 5.0 cm from the negative charge and along the line between the two charges is -2.58825 x 10⁵ N/C, directed towards the negative charge. (b) The force on an electron placed at that point is 2.58825 x 10⁻⁵ N, directed towards the positive charge.

The electric field at a point due to a point charge is given by the equation E = k * q / r², where E is the electric field, k is the electrostatic constant (k = 9 x 10⁹Nm² /C² ), q is the charge, and r is the distance between the charges.

(a) To find the electric field at a point 5.0 cm from the negative charge, we need to calculate the electric field due to both charges and then subtract the electric field due to the positive charge from the electric field due to the negative charge.

The electric field due to the negative charge (q2) is given by E2 = k * q2 / r², where q2 = -6.4 x 10⁻⁸  C and r = 5.0 cm = 0.05 m.

Plugging in the values, we get E2 = (9 x 10 Nm² /C² ) * (-6.4 x 10 C) / (0.05 m)² = -2.58825 x 10⁵ N/C.

The negative sign indicates that the electric field due to the negative charge is directed towards the negative charge.

(b) To find the force on an electron placed at that point, we need to calculate the force due to both charges and then subtract the force due to the positive charge from the force due to the negative charge.

The force between two charges is given by the equation F = k * |q1 * q2| / r², where F is the force, q1 and q2 are the charges, and r is the distance between the charges.

The force on the electron due to the negative charge (q2) is given by F2 = k * |q2 * e| / r², where q2 = -6.4 x 10⁻⁸ C, e is the charge of an electron (e = -1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C), and r = 5.0 cm = 0.05 m.

Plugging in the values, we get F2 = (9 x 10⁹ Nm²/C²) * |-6.4 x 10⁻⁸ C * -1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ C| / (0.05 m)² = 2.58825 x 10⁻⁵ N.

The positive sign indicates that the force on the electron is directed away from the negative charge, which is towards the positive charge.

So, the answers to the given questions are:

(a) The electric field at a point 5.0 cm from the negative charge and along the line between the two charges is -2.58825 x 10⁵ N/C, directed towards the negative charge.

(b) The force on an electron placed at that point is 2.58825 x 10⁻⁵ N, directed towards the positive charge.

To know more about electron visit;

https://brainly.com/question/12001116

#SPJ11

Answer:

13

Explanation:

Brainlest pls

Answer:

B-13

Explanation:

The protons listed in the atom are 13, and the protons are the same number as the atomic number.

The given statement "Western boundary currents such as the Gulf Stream transport warm water from the tropics towards higher latitudes" is true as Western boundary currents, like the Gulf Stream, do transport warm water from the tropics towards higher latitudes.

These currents are driven by prevailing winds and the rotation of the Earth, which result in a westward flow along the western boundaries of ocean basins. As warm water moves poleward, it transfers heat from the tropics to higher latitudes, influencing the climate of the regions it passes through.

The Gulf Stream, for instance, carries warm water from the Caribbean Sea towards the North Atlantic, contributing to the relatively mild climate of Western Europe.

For more questions like Western click the link below:

https://brainly.com/question/28136534

#SPJ11

Answer:

Explanation:

A simple pendulum consists of a mass (usually represented as a small object or bob) attached to a string or rod of negligible mass. The mass is free to swing back and forth under the influence of gravity.

In the figure, the point of suspension is denoted by "O," and the mass (bob) is represented by the small circle. The string or rod is represented by the vertical line connecting the point of suspension to the bob.

Amplitude:

The amplitude of a pendulum refers to the maximum displacement or swing of the bob from its equilibrium position. In the figure, the amplitude can be represented by the angle formed between the vertical position and the position of the bob when it swings to its maximum distance on one side. It is usually denoted by the symbol "A."

Effective Length:

The effective length of a pendulum refers to the distance from the point of suspension to the center of mass of the bob. It represents the distance over which the mass swings back and forth. In the figure, the effective length can be measured as the length of the string or rod from the point of suspension to the center of the bob. It is usually denoted by the symbol "L."

It is important to note that the amplitude and effective length of a simple pendulum affect its period of oscillation (the time taken for one complete swing). The relationship between these parameters and the period can be described by mathematical formulas.

Overall, the simple pendulum is a fundamental concept in physics and provides a simplified model for understanding oscillatory motion and the principles of periodic motion.

Answer:

an electromagnet is simply coil of w

The force acting on the 12 kg mass would be 11 N.

To solve this problem, we need to use the work-energy principle, which states that the work done by a force on an object is equal to the change in the object's kinetic energy.

First, we need to calculate the initial and final kinetic energy of the 12 kg mass.

The initial kinetic energy is given by:

K₁ = (1/2) * m * v₁²

= (1/2) * 12 kg * (11 m/s)²

= 726 J

The final kinetic energy is given by:

K₂ = (1/2) * m * v₂²

= (1/2) * 12 kg * (26 m/s)²

= 936 J

The change in kinetic energy is:

ΔK = K₂ - K₁

= 936 J - 726 J

= 210 J

Next, we need to calculate the work done by the unknown force. We can do this by using the formula:

W = F * d * cosθ

where W is the work done, F is the force, d is the displacement, and θ is the angle between the force and displacement vectors.

In this case, the displacement is 22 meters, and the angle θ is 30 degrees. So we have:

W = F * d * cosθ

= F * 22 m * cos(30°)

= 19.1 F

Finally, we can use the work-energy principle to solve for the unknown force:

W = ΔK

19.1 F = 210 J

F = 11 N

Therefore, the force acting on the 12 kg mass is 11 N.

To know more about force

https://brainly.com/question/20888400

#SPJ1

According to the right-hand rule, the direction of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying loop of wire is outward from the center of the loop in a clockwise direction when looking down at the loop from above.

The right-hand rule is a hand mnemonic used in physics to identify the direction of axes or parameters that point in three dimensions. Invented in the 19th century, it is used to determine the direction of the magnetic field created by a steady electric current, the direction of the force exerted on a current-carrying wire by a magnetic field, and the direction of the current in a wire if the magnetic field is known. The right-hand rule states that if the thumb of the right hand is pointed in the direction of the current, the fingers of the right hand will curl in the direction of the magnetic field.

To know more about force please refer:

https://brainly.com/question/13191643

#SPJ4

The process involves using the Mach angle formula and the Prandtl-Meyer function, along with the isentropic relation for supersonic flow.

To calculate the deflection angle of the corner in a supersonic flow, we can use the Prandtl-Meyer expansion theory.
Given the initial Mach number (m1) of 1.58 and the initial pressure (p1) of 1 atm, we need to find the deflection angle.
First, we can use the Mach angle formula:
Mach angle (θM) = arcsin(1/m1)
Substituting the given Mach number, we have:
θM = arcsin(1/1.58)
Using a calculator, we find that θM is approximately 37.1 degrees.
Next, we can use the Prandtl-Meyer function to find the Mach angle downstream of the corner (θ2). The Prandtl-Meyer function relates the Mach angles before and after the expansion.
The Prandtl-Meyer function is defined as:
ν(M) = √((γ+1)/(γ-1)) * arctan(√((γ-1)/(γ+1)*(M²-1))) - arctan(√(M²-1))
where γ is the ratio of specific heats and M is the Mach number.
To find θ2, we can rearrange the equation and solve for M2 (Mach number downstream of the corner):
M2 = √(1 + (ν2/√((γ+1)/(γ-1))))
Since ν1 = θM and ν2 = θ2, we can rewrite the equation as:
M2 = √(1 + (θ2/√((γ+1)/(γ-1))))
Now, we can find the Mach number downstream of the corner using the given pressure downstream (p2 = 0.1306 atm) and the ratio of specific heats (γ).
Using the isentropic relation for supersonic flow:
(p2/p1) = (1 + ((γ-1)/2)*M2²)^(γ/(γ-1))
Substituting the given values, we have:
(0.1306/1) = (1 + ((γ-1)/2)*M2²)^(γ/(γ-1))
Solving this equation will give us the Mach number downstream of the corner (M2).
Finally, using the equation:
θ2 = ν2 - ν1
we can find the deflection angle (θ2) by subtracting the Mach angle before the corner (θM) from the Mach angle downstream of the corner (θ2).
In conclusion, to calculate the deflection angle of the corner in a supersonic flow, we can use the Prandtl-Meyer expansion theory. By finding the Mach angle before and after the corner, and subtracting them, we can determine the deflection angle. The process involves using the Mach angle formula and the Prandtl-Meyer function, along with the isentropic relation for supersonic flow. By substituting the given values, we can find the Mach number downstream of the corner and calculate the deflection angle.

To know more about Prandtl-Meyer function visit:

https://brainly.com/question/32148514

#SPJ11

Answer:

Time to reach ground = t = 6 sec

Explanation:

Acceleration due to gravity = g = 9.8 m/s²

Initial Velocity of the Rock = Vi = 0 m/s (Because, the rock will be at rest, initially)

When a rock is dropped and takes 6 seconds to touch the ground, its maximum speed will be \(6^{th}\) second.

The force of gravity causes a rock to accelerate when it is dropped from a cliff. On Earth, the acceleration caused by gravity is roughly 9.8 meters per second squared (m/s2). This indicates that the rock's speed increases by 9.8 m/s per second as it falls.

According to the question, it takes the rock 6 seconds to hit the ground. It takes the rock exactly this long to fall from the cliff to the ground.

One must comprehend that the rock's speed rises steadily as it falls in order to determine the moment at which it is moving at its fastest. The rock's initial velocity (Vi) is 0 m/s because it begins at rest. The acceleration brought on by gravity causes it to move faster as it drops.

The rock will reach its highest speed just before it touches the ground because its velocity is constantly rising. As a result, the rock is moving at its fastest at the moment of impact (t = 6 sec).

Thus, the maximum speed will be at T= 6 seconds.

Learn more about speed here:

https://brainly.com/question/17661499

#SPJ7

the barriers if the interval are Aand B the of displacement goes up.

from B to C it just stays the same, then from C to D no Movement, and from time D to E movement, but steady

Answer:

Let β = v / c          

proper time Δt'  is measured in a frame at the same place in a given frame - the proper time is measured in spaceship II moving at .28 c

a) spaceship I is moving at (.6 - .28) c = .32 c relative to proper time

Δt = Δt' / (1 - β^2)^1/2      as measured by students in ship I

Δt = 50 / (1 - .32^2)^1/2 = 52.8 m        measured by students

b) Δt = 50 / (1 - .28^2)^1/2 = 52.1 min  time elapsed for observer on earth

The distance between the boat and the shoal of fish is 360 m. So, the correct answer is option D.

Speed of the sound in water, v = 1500 m/s

Time after which the pulse of the sound wave is heard, t = 0.48 s

The reflection of sound is the phenomenon when sound travelling through one medium collides with the surface of another medium and reflects back in a different direction.

The waves are known as incident and reflected sound waves.

The expression for the total distance travelled by the sound wave during the reflection is given by,

d = v x t

d = 1500 x 0.48

d = 720 m

Therefore, the distance between the boat and the shoal of fish is,

d/2 = 720/2 = 360 m

To learn more about reflection of sound, click:

https://brainly.com/question/5343062

#SPJ1

Answer:

sEE BELOW

Explanation:

Well.....because the numbers are 'astronomical'....meaning VERY, VERY , VERY LARGE

Answer:

B. a large change in velocity over a short time interval

Explanation:

A "chjange in velocity" is acceleration.  Acceleration is in units of meters/sec/sec or meter/sec^2.

)meters/sec) is velocity.  Sec is the time.

Velocity/Time:  A large change on the top (Velocity), divided by a small change in the bottom (sec) means the largest value for accceleration.