Alcohol Group of answer choices -related offenses account for about 10 percent of police activities in large cities. is a suppressant, relieving anxiety and impairing the brain's control center. dependency is more likely in cultures where access to alcohol is carefully controlled. dependency is hereditary, with nearly 90 percent of alcoholics having a family history of problem drinking.
Answers
Answer: dependency is more likely in cultures where access to alcohol is carefully controlled.
Explanation:
Studies have shown that in cultures where access to alcohol is carefully controlled and viewed as a sign of adulthood, dependency is more likely than in cultures where alcohol is used in religious and ceremonial activities.
This has been put down to people tending to abuse alcohol when they get access to it as opposed to cultures where it is readily available.
Related Questions
Bacteria from a UTI that travels to the kidneys via the ureter can cause _____
Appendicitis
Pyelonephritis
Kidney stones
Gallstones
An elderly patient states that she feels very faint anytime she takes her blood pressure medication. Is this an example of a true allergic reaction or an adverse reaction?
Allergic Reaction
Adverse Reaction
Patients who are bradycardic are at risk of passing out (syncope). What is likely their heart rate?
40 bpm
90 bpm
100 bpm
110 bpm
Where would you first put a physical exam finding of abdominal tenderness and a positive urine pregnancy result?
Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan
Finish this statement: Pertinent positives point the doctor ________.
Leftward
Away from a likely diagnosis
Toward a likely diagnosis
Downward
Answers
1. Bacteria from a UTI that travels to the kidneys via the ureter can cause pyelonephritis. The correct answer is option b.
2. It is an example of an Adverse Reaction. The correct answer is option b.
3. Their likely heart rate of 40 bpm. The correct answer is option a.
4. Would put it in the objective category. The correct answer is option b.
5. Pertinent positives point the doctor toward a likely diagnosis. The correct answer is option c.
1) Bacteria from a UTI that travels to the kidneys via the ureter can cause pyelonephritis: When bacteria from a urinary tract infection (UTI) ascend from the bladder up to the kidneys through the ureter, it can lead to an infection in the kidneys called pyelonephritis.
This condition causes inflammation and infection in the renal tissue and can result in symptoms such as fever, flank pain, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine So, the b correct answer is option b. Pyelonephritis
2) The elderly patient feeling faint when taking blood pressure medication is an example of an adverse reaction, not a true allergic reaction: The patient's symptom of feeling faint after taking blood pressure medication is more likely an adverse reaction to the medication rather than a true allergic reaction.
Adverse reactions refer to unwanted or unexpected reactions to a medication, which can include side effects like dizziness, fainting, or lightheadedness. Allergic reactions, on the other hand, involve an immune response to the medication and typically manifest as symptoms like rash, itching, swelling, or difficulty breathing.
So, the correct answer is option b. Adverse Reaction.
3) Patients who are bradycardic (having a slow heart rate) are at risk of passing out (syncope). Their heart rate is likely around 40 bpm: Bradycardia, which refers to a heart rate below the normal range (usually less than 60 beats per minute), can cause inadequate blood flow to the brain and lead to episodes of fainting or syncope.
In this case, with a heart rate of around 40 bpm, the patient's slow heart rate increases the risk of insufficient blood supply to the brain, potentially resulting in fainting or syncope. So, the correct answer is option a. 40 bpm.
4) A physical exam finding of abdominal tenderness and a positive urine pregnancy result would be first documented under the Objective section: In a medical assessment, the Objective section typically includes objective findings obtained through physical examination, laboratory tests, or imaging.
The physical exam finding of abdominal tenderness and the positive urine pregnancy result would fall under this section, providing measurable and observable information about the patient's condition. So, the correct answer is option b. Objective.
5) Pertinent positives point the doctor toward a likely diagnosis: Pertinent positives refer to specific signs, symptoms, or findings that are relevant to a particular diagnosis. When a doctor identifies pertinent positives during an evaluation, it helps guide them toward a likely diagnosis.
These findings are considered significant in narrowing down potential causes and aiding in the formulation of an accurate diagnosis. So, the correct answer is option c. Toward a likely diagnosis.
The complete question is -
1. Bacteria from a UTI that travels to the kidneys via the ureter can cause _____
a. Appendicitis
b. Pyelonephritis
c. Kidney stones
d. Gallstones
2. An elderly patient states that she feels very faint anytime she takes her blood pressure medication. Is this an example of a true allergic reaction or an adverse reaction?
a. Allergic Reaction
b. Adverse Reaction
3. Patients who are bradycardic are at risk of passing out (syncope). What is likely their heart rate?
a. 40 bpm
b. 90 bpm
c. 100 bpm
d. 110 bpm
4. Where would you first put a physical exam finding of abdominal tenderness and a positive urine pregnancy result?
a. Subjective
b. Objective
c. Assessment
d. Plan
5. Finish this statement: Pertinent positives point the doctor ________.
a. Leftward
b. Away from a likely diagnosis
c. Toward a likely diagnosis
d. Downward
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a nurse is preparing to administer a loading dose of phenytoin (dilantin) 5 mg/kg/day divided equally ever 12 hr for an infant who weighs 12 lb 4 oz. how many mg should the nurse administer per dose
Answers
A nurse is getting ready to give a baby who weighs 12 lb 4 oz. phenytoin 5 mg/kg/day PO split equally every 12 hours. The nurse should provide each dosage at 13.9 mg.
A first-generation anti-convulsant medicine, phenytoin is a hydantoin derivative that effectively treats status epilepticus, complex partial seizures, and generalised tonic-clonic seizures without severely affecting neurological function. In the treatment of epilepsy, phenytoin is used to manage seizures (convulsions), including tonic-clonic (grand mal) and psychomotor (temporal lobe) seizures. Additionally, it is used to both prevent and manage seizures that happen during brain surgery. Phenytoin is used to treat and prevent seizures that may start during or after brain or nervous system surgery, as well as to control some types of seizures. The drug phenytoin belongs to the group of drugs known as anticonvulsants. It functions by reducing the brain's aberrant electrical activity.
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a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
Answers
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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dentify the true statement.
a.
PK is not a good predictor of how quickly the PD effect will start.
b.
How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.,
c.
How slow (or fast) a drug is metabolized can allow us to determine the dosing schedule of a drug.
d.
Both b and c
Answers
The true statement is b. How quickly a drug is distributed in the body is a study of pharmacodynamics of a drug.
Pharmacodynamic actions of a drug include stimulating activity by directly inhibiting a receptor and its downstream effects. Depressing activity by direct receptor inhibition and its downstream effects. Antagonistic or obstruction a receptor by binding to that, however not activating it.
4 stages of pharmacodynamics are Absorption: Describes however the drug moves from the location of administration to the location of action. Distribution: Describes the journey of the drug through the blood to varied tissues of the body. Metabolism: Describes the method that breaks down the drug. Excretion: Describes the removal of the drug from the body.
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If a patient becomes dehydrated, the percentage of plasma in a centrifuged sample of his or her blood would likely.
Answers
Answer:
If a patient becomes dehydrated, the percentage of plasma in a centrifuged sample of his or her blood would likely decrease. This is because dehydration causes a decrease in fluid volume in the body, which can lead to an increase in the concentration of red blood cells and other formed elements in the blood. As a result, the percentage of plasma in the blood would decrease, while the percentage of formed elements would increase.
Write an analysis of the report, making sure to identify each factor that probably played a role in causing the collision and the injuries.
Describe how the injuries could have been prevented.
INJURY REPORT
Injuries occurred outdoors on the school campus as a result of a collision between a student on a bicycle and a student on a skateboard. The students were riding at excessive speeds along a pedestrian-only sidewalk — one on the north side of the building and one on the west side. The collision occurred at the northwest corner of the building. The student on the bicycle suffered a sprained ankle and serious cuts to his head. He was transported to the emergency room for assessment of head trauma. The student on the skateboard suffered serious cuts to his left leg and scrapes to his left elbow. He was also taken to the hospital for stitches to repair his leg wounds. Neither student was wearing a helmet or other protective gear. (6 points)
Answers
Answer:
A.The bicycle and the skateboard where traveling at high speeds so when they collided the damage was greater.B. The injuries could of been prevented by not riding on the sidewalk and also if they where wearing protection for example: helmet, elbow pads etcExplanation:
Hopes this helps. Mark as brainlest plz!A father is in the waiting room of a pediatric clinic while his
teenage daughter is being seen by the doctor. He walks over to
the cooler to get a drink of water and notices that there is a wet
spot on the carpet. He also sees that a little girl and her mother
a
are sitting nearby. The father approaches the MA who is working
at the front desk to report the wet area. The MA walks over to
investigate, and the father
indicates that he things the little girl
may be to blame. If you were the MA, what would you do?
Please help !
Answers
Answer:
Section off the wet area......
Explanation:
I think that the best answer is the last option. It is a more professional approach.
The area of myocardium most vulnerable to ischemia is the:
left ventricular epicardium
right ventricular epicardium
left ventricular subendocardium
right ventricular subendocardium
Answers
The area of myocardium most vulnerable to ischemia is the left ventricular subendocardium.
This is because the left ventricle has a higher workload and demands more oxygen than the right ventricle.
The subendocardium is located at the innermost layer of the heart muscle, and it is supplied by the endocardial vessels.
These vessels are more susceptible to occlusion during atherosclerosis or thrombosis, leading to ischemia in the subendocardial layer of the left ventricle.
The subendocardial layer is also more vulnerable to ischemia because it has less vascularization than the epicardium, which is supplied by the coronary arteries.
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True or false the urine is produce in the kidney
Answers
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The kidneys are part of the urinary tract that makes the urine. Urine has salt and toxins in the blood that gets filtered out by the kidneys. After this process you have urine.
what is drug summation and how does it defer from drug synergism?
Answers
Answer:
The most common method for the quantitative assessment of unusual interaction between agonist drugs is the method of isoboles. This is a graphical procedure, introduced and developed by Loewe,8-10 that uses the dose-effect relation of each drug (alone) in order to derive the set of dose combinations that are expected to give a specified effect level. Most often the selected effect level is 50% of the maximum effect, and the doses of each full agonist drug that individually give this effect are therefore their ED50 doses. In its simplest form this procedure uses the ED50 doses of the individual drugs and uses these as intercept values on a Cartesian coordinate system in which doses are represented on the x- and y-axes. The straight line connecting these intercepts represents the set of points (dose pairs) that give the specified effect (50% of Emax) when there is no interaction between the drugs. This line, called an isobole, conveys numerical information that shows the reduction in the required dose of one drug that accompanies the presence of a dose of the second drug. Understandably this line has a negative slope since the increase in quantity of Drug A means that a lesser quantity of Drug B is needed to achieve the specified effect level. If we denote the intercepts by A for the ED50 of Drug A and by B for the ED50 of Drug B, then the isobole is expressed by the simple linear equation:
aA+bB=1,
where a is the dose of Drug A and b is the dose of Drug B when the 2 are present together (Fig. 1). If an effect level other than 50% of the maximum is used, then this equation still applies and denotes the dose pair (a,b) that gives that particular effect level where the A and B are now the respective individual doses for that effect level. The isobole expressed in Equation 1 allows the assessment of superadditive and subadditive interactions when actual combination doses are tested. If testing shows that the specified effect of a combination is achieved by a dose pair that plots as a point below the isobole, this means that the effect was attained with doses less than those on the line, a situation that denotes superadditivity or synergism. In contrast, an experiment may show that greater combination doses are needed to produce the specified effect and therefore this dose pair plots as a point above the isobole line. Dose pairs that experimentally lie on the line (or not significantly off the line) are termed additive, a situation that means no interaction between the 2 drugs. These cases are illustrated in Fig. 1. Other forms of Equation 1 have been used; for example, one may use an expression for the total dose (a + b) for any fixed ratio combination of doses. These forms are contained in the author’s monograph.4 The reason that a point on the line is termed additive is explained subsequently. But first we ask, why is Equation 1 the basis for defining a zero interaction, and, further, how is this equation derived? The answer to these questions is contained in the section below, which discusses the concept of dose equivalence.
Answer:
when the combine effect of two drugs is greater than the sum of their effects when given separately. Potentiation: when one drug does not elicit a response on its own but enhances the response to another drug.
Unit Test
Most of the pharmacy standards that apply to pharmacy technicians are grouped into the categories of
a. professional standards, facilities standards, and product storage and distribution standards.
b. quality standards, communication standards, and safety and security standards.
c. quality standards, facilities standards, informational security, product storage, and infection control security.
d. operational security, informational security, equipment security, workplace security, and infection control security.
Please select the best answer provided
Answers
Answer:
A. Professional standards, facilities standards, and product storage and distributions standards.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Anna was doing household chores and heard her grandmother fall. Since she studied at a medical university, she was very scared and ran to the sound of a fall. Explain what Anna was afraid of in terms of the fact that the bone is a composite. Describe what will happen to Grandma's bones 2 months after the fall if Anna's fears are justified.
Answers
Answer:
Anna was probably afriad that her grandmother had broken or fractured a bone.
Explanation:
Once old age hits, most people's bones become more fragile and easier to break. Had her fears been justified (Given that my answer is correct), then 2 months after the fall, her grandmother may experience difficulty moving as she once did.
Sorry if its no help, but im pretty sure its the right answer.
Hope its helpful ^^
Brainliest if correct?
Given a 20% w/v solution of chlorhexidine gluconate, what volume is required to make 400 mL of a 2% w/v solution?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
A 2% w/v solution contains 2 g in 100 mL, or 8 g in 400 mL.
An 88 year old woman is brought in for evaluation of blood found in her diapers, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Answers
Answer:
The most likely diagnosis is that the woman has a gastrointestinal bleed.
Explanation:
The explanation for this is because blood in the stool is most commonly caused by a bleed in the upper or lower gastrointestinal tract, and an elderly woman is more likely to have a bleed due to her age.
The increases in poisoning from drug overdose over the past forty years can be attributed to?
Answers
The increase in poisoning from drug overdose over the past forty years can be attributed to death.
What is drug overdose?When a drug or other chemical is consumed or applied in considerably higher amounts than is advised, this is referred to as an overdose (overdose or OD). It is typically utilized in situations where there could be a health danger. An overdose could leave you in a hazardous state or kill you.
Although many poisons are also innocuous at a low enough dosage, the term "overdose" is frequently only referred to medications and not poisons because it suggests that there is a standard safe dosage and usage for the drug. Intentional or inadvertent pharmaceutical misuse can result in drug overdose, which is sometimes used as a method of risking life of self.
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After reading and thoughtfully reflecting over our Ch.10 and Ch.11 lesson. plans for this week's discussion board post, it is important that you remember we tend to argue for four different purposes: 1. Decide 2. Explain 3. Predict 4. Persuade As a result, I would like you to come up with an example of each type of argument that follows the textbook's example of an argument with a reason/premise, reason/premise, and conclusion. For example, if you want to argue to decide, you might say: REASON: Throughout my life've always been interested in all different kinds of electricity. REASON: There are many attractive job opportunities in the field of electrical engineering. CONCLUSION: I will work toward becoming an electrical engineer.
Answers
The four types of arguments discussed in Chapter 10 and Chapter 11 of the textbook are decision, explanation, prediction, and persuasion.
Argumentation is used in various ways to influence others to agree with the speaker's point of view. The four types of arguments discussed in Chapter 10 and Chapter 11 of the textbook are decision, explanation, prediction, and persuasion. Each type of argument has its unique set of reasons and conclusions that the speaker employs to persuade the audience to accept his/her point of view.
The decision argument is used to persuade people to take a particular course of action. In this type of argument, the speaker presents evidence to support the chosen alternative. Explanation arguments are used to clarify difficult or confusing ideas and concepts. They're typically used in academic and scientific contexts.
Prediction arguments are used to support a statement or conclusion that might or might not be true. This type of argument focuses on forecasting future events. Persuasion arguments are used to convince people of something. They are used in advertising and political campaigns to influence people's thinking and behavior.
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Part 2: Explore The State of Connecticut Technical Guidelines for Health Care Response to Victims of Sexual Assault or other similar resources online to find forms related to patient intake of sexual assault victims. Your response must fulfill the following requirements:
• Include a completed Intake checklist based on the transcripts you wrote.
• Include a consent or discharge form based on the transcripts you wrote.
Answers
When it comes to sexual assault, the Intake Checklist and Consent/Discharge Forms are very important in terms of patient intake. These forms should be based on the transcripts provided.
The State of Connecticut Technical Guidelines for Health Care Response to Victims of Sexual Assault is a great resource to find these forms, as well as other similar resources online. Here's a sample of how the Intake Checklist and Consent/Discharge Forms should be completed:
Intake Checklist
The Intake Checklist is a list of items that must be completed when a patient is being admitted for a sexual assault exam. These include:
Patient Information:
Full Name, DOB, Address, Phone, and Emergency Contact
Medical History:
Medical history including any medications or medical conditions.
Sexual Assault Information:
Date and time of assault, where it occurred, and whether a weapon was used.
Consent:
Documentation that the patient has given informed consent for the exam.
Evidence Collection:
Evidence collected must be documented in the checklist.
Consent/Discharge Forms
Consent and Discharge Forms must be signed by the patient prior to the exam. Consent forms indicate the patient's permission for the exam to be conducted, and the discharge form confirms that the patient has been discharged. Consent and Discharge forms are important for legal reasons and to protect both the patient and the healthcare provider.
In conclusion, the Intake Checklist and Consent/Discharge Forms are essential documents to have in order to ensure the proper care and treatment of sexual assault victims. These forms are based on the transcripts provided, and can be found through various resources online, including The State of Connecticut Technical Guidelines for Health Care Response to Victims of Sexual Assault.
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how many millimeters are in 25 milligrams
Answers
Answer:
not possible
Explanation:
millimeters is distance
milligrams is weight
What kind of first aid should be taken in
fire ?
Answers
Answer:
to cool the burned parts with water or wet cloth. This stops the action of the thermal agent and considerably reduces pain. Very extensive burns must be treated either by immersing the part in water at room temperature or by covering the part with damp cloth.Selecting Supplement Pharmacy Technician Tasks
Note that the common tasks are listed toward the top and less common tasks are listed toward the bottom. According to O*NET, what are common supplement tasks performed pharmacy technicians? Check all that apply.
a. publishing pharmacy literature.
b. monitoring robotic dispensing machines.
c. assessing the purity of medications.
d. pricing merchandise and marking items for sale.
e. processing medical insurance claims forms.
f. evaluating the effectiveness of drugs.
Answers
Answer:
B. Monitoring robotic dispensing machines.
D. Pricing merchandise and marking items for sale.
E. Processing medical insurance claims forms.
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
the answer is
B
D
e
i got it right
Explain the difference between a genotype and phenotype.
Answers
Using the drop-down menus, correctly complete the sentences about early programming languages from the 1940 to the 1960s. Some of first programming languages were FORTRAN, LISP, BASIC, and COBOL. BASIC was developed at Dartmouth College for students learning programming. BASIC was for the first high-level programming language with a compiler. was developed for use in artificial intelligence research. was designed for business use. was designed to help programmers when programming was done by the moving of switches on computer panels.
Answers
Answer:Basic, FORTRAN, lisp, cobol and assembly language
Explanation:
I took the dumb quiz lol
Answer:
Basic, FORTRAN, lisp, cobol and assembly language
Explanation:
A patient presents to the vascular lab with right arm and leg weakness and paresthesia, dysphasia, and amaurosis fugax in his left eye. A carotid duplex exam is performed. What would you expect to find on this exam based on the patient's symptoms
Answers
Based on the patient's symptoms, weakness, paresthesia, dysphasia, and amaurosis fugax in his left eye, if a carotid duplex exam is performed, it is expected that a stenosis would be detected on this exam
Paresthesia is a medical condition characterized by a sensation of tingling, burning, or numbness that occurs in different areas of the body. It is usually caused by nerve damage or disease. The symptoms that are presented by the patient indicate an underlying neurological condition and a carotid duplex exam can be done to diagnose and find out what is happening in the body.
A carotid duplex exam is a non-invasive medical test that uses high-frequency sound waves to produce images of the blood vessels in the inlet that carry blood from the heart to the brain. It is used to check for blood flow blockages and abnormalities in the carotid arteries.
Dysphasia is a medical condition characterized by difficulty in swallowing and speaking. It is caused by damage to the parts of the brain that control speech and language. The condition is often associated with strokes.
Amaurosis fugax is a medical condition characterized by temporary vision loss in one eye. It is caused by a temporary decrease in blood flow to the retina. The condition is often associated with carotid artery disease, and a carotid duplex exam can help diagnose it.
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Which of the following is true regarding release of a patient’s medical information?
Answers
Answer:
well if u gone on this site called job description for medicine you will find what u need
Explanation: i dont know the website link but just type up what u need to know
Athletes experience an overall __________ in peripheral resistance, so the heart generates __________ pressure to deliver the same amount of blood. An athlete's arterial pressure would likely be __________ than that in a non-athlete.
a. increase, less, lower
b. increase, more, higher
c. decrease, more, higher
d. decrease, less, lower
Answers
what action used to clean or remove gross debris from surgical instruments in the ultrasonic cleaner
Answers
Research using the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) suggests that...
Answers
Research using the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) suggests that content loaded with triggering or distressing themes can negatively impact mental health.
The DSM, a manual used by mental health professionals to diagnose and classify mental disorders, identifies specific criteria for conditions such as post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and anxiety disorders that can be triggered by exposure to traumatic or distressing content. It is important to be mindful of the content we consume and its potential effects on our mental health.
It is utilized by researchers, regulatory bodies for psychiatric drugs, health insurance providers, pharmaceutical firms, the judicial system, and policymakers—mostly in the United States. After evaluating a patient, mental health practitioners utilize the guidebook to determine the diagnosis and assist in communicating it. Every patient with a mental disease may need to have a DSM diagnosis, according to hospitals, clinics, and insurance companies in the US. In order to categorize patients for study, healthcare professionals employ the DSM.
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on an ekg, what signifies the electronic stimulation of the ventricles?
Answers
The electronic stimulation of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram (EKG) as the QRS complex. This complex appears as a series of three waves that follow the P wave (which represents the electrical stimulation of the atria).
The QRS complex reflects the electrical stimulation of the ventricles, specifically the depolarization of the ventricular muscle cells. The Q wave is the first downward deflection, the R wave is the first upward deflection, and the S wave is the second downward deflection. The size, duration, and shape of the QRS complex can provide valuable information about the health and function of the heart.
In general, a normal QRS complex should be narrow (less than 0.12 seconds), have a consistent shape and duration, and be preceded by a P wave. However, abnormalities in the QRS complex can indicate various cardiac conditions such as bundle branch block, ventricular hypertrophy, or myocardial infarction.
So, in summary, the QRS complex on an EKG signifies the electronic stimulation of the ventricles and can provide important diagnostic information about the heart.
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how high is the chance of getting pregnant with straight parents
Answers
Answer:
You tell me...
Explanation:
Answer:
30 percent get pregnant within the first cycle (about one month). 60 percent get pregnant within three cycles (about three months). 80 percent get pregnant within six cycles (about six months). 85 percent get pregnant within 12 cycles (about one year).
_____________ of medicare is for payment of medical expenses such as office visits and x-ray and laboratory services.
Answers
Part B of medicare is for payment of medical expenses such as office visits and x-ray and laboratory services.
Outpatient medical treatment, such as doctors appointments, some home healthcare services, some lab tests, X-rays, some medicines, and some medical instruments, are covered by Medicare Part B. Medicare Part A covers skilled nursing clinic stays and hospital, as well as some home healthcare services.
If you are eligible for Medicare Part A, you are also eligible for Medicare Part B. If you are 65 or older and already receive Social Security benefits, you are automatically registered. You may, however, decline.
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