Pneumonia and diarrheal diseases was the cause of death for children under five in low-income countries.
Diarrhoea is passing looser or greater common stools than is ordinary for you. It influences most of the people on occasion and is typically nothing to worry about. However, it may be distressing and unsightly till it passes, which commonly takes a few days to every week.
It may be divided into 3 primary classes: watery, fatty (malabsorption), and inflammatory. Watery diarrhea can be subdivided into osmotic, secretory, and purposeful sorts.
Signs and symptoms and signs related to diarrhea can also consist of :
* Frequent loose, watery stools.
* Belly cramps.
* Stomach ache.
* Fever.
* Bleeding.
* Lightheadedness or dizziness from dehydration.
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What general tissue type binds, supports, and protects the body?.
the relatively unchanging pressure in a filling stomach is due to the contraction of the stomach oblique muscle layer. T/F
False, the stomach wall's smooth muscle layer relaxes and expands to maintain constant pressure, while the oblique muscle layer mixes the contents.
Why the statement is false?The relatively unchanging pressure in a filling stomach is due to the relaxation of the stomach wall as it accommodates the increasing volume of ingested material. The stomach wall contains a smooth muscle layer that is able to stretch and expand to accommodate the incoming food and drink.
This allows the stomach to maintain a relatively constant pressure despite the changing volume of its contents. The oblique muscle layer in the stomach is responsible for mixing and churning the contents of the stomach, not for maintaining pressure. Thus, the statement is false.
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The classification of drugs is based on their __________________ in the body.
the drugs were classified based on there activity such as mechanism of action on the human body.
how were the drugs are classified ?
A "drug class" is a set of drugs that share specific characteristics. They are classified using three primary methods: 1
Mechanism of action: The specific changes they bring about in your body.
The physiological impact is how your body reacts to them.
What they're made of in terms of chemical structure
This page explains how classification works, why it's required, and the many forms of categorization.
Not all medications can be easily classified. Some medications are classified using one way but not another.
Others, even within the same system, belong to many classifications. Finasteride, for example, is used to treat enlarged prostates and regenerate hair. As a result, it's divided into two categories based on those applications.
Outside these categorization, there are medications that are utilised off-label (for non-approved reasons). Levothyroxine is a prime example. It is authorised for the treatment of hypothyroidism (low thyroid function). However, it is frequently used off-label to treat depression.
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Chapter 16 Patient Accounts and Practice Management Procedure 16.2 Inform a Patient of Financial Obligations for Services Rendered Date Score Name Tasks: Inform a patient of his/her financial obligation and demonstrate professionalism and sensitivity when discussing the patient's billing record. Equipment and Supplies: • Facility's payment policy Copy of patient's insurance card (or see information in the scenario) Patient's account record (or see information in the scenario) . Obtaining Payments - WMFM Clinic Policy For patients with copayments, all copayments must be collected before the patient leaves the clinic. For patients with balances overdue: Patients must pay 20% of the balance before an appointment can be scheduled. Or patients can establish a 6- or 12-month interest-free payment plan, making the first payment before the next visit can be scheduled. Payments can be made using VISA, Mastercard, personal check (no starter checks accepted), or cash. Payments can also be made online. Scenario #1: Mr. Walter Biller arrives for his appointment. You need to check his eligibility for services and also if he has a copayment for today's visit. His insurance information: account number: 16611; Aetna, Policy/ID Number: CH8327753; and Group Number: 33347H Scenario #2: Christi Brown is meeting with you regarding the bill she received in the mail. She called to make the appointment and she voiced her confusion about the bill. She stated that she thought her insur- ance covered everything. You check her record and see that she met her deductible and now needs to pay 20% of the billed amount. She owes $170. Directions: Role-play the scenarios with a peer. The peer will be the insurance representative in Scenario #1, and then the patient in Scenario #2. You will be the medical assistant. You need to be professional and sensi- tive when working with patients regarding payments. You also need to follow the clinic's policy. Standard: Complete the procedure and all critical steps in minutes with a minimum score of 85% within two attempts (or as indicated by the instructor). Scoring: Divide the points earned by the total possible points. Failure to perform a critical step, indicated by an asterisk (*), results in grade no higher than an 84% (or as indicated by the instructor). Ended Time: Began Total minutes: 354 Chapter 16 Patient Accounts and Practice Management Point Value Attempt 1 Attempt 2 20* 1. 10* 10 3. 15* 4. Steps: Scenario #1: Role-play with a peer who will be the insurance representative. Contact the patient's insurance company and verify the patient's eligibility for services. Provide the representative with the patient's information. Find out if the patient has a copayment for today's visit. Document the information obtained. Scenario #1 update: You need to provide the patient with the information that he owes a copayment for today's visit. 2. Inform the patient of his financial obligation of the copayment. Scenario update: He states he does not have the cash with him. Inform the patient of the clinic policy regarding copayments and how the payment can be made. Demonstrate sensitivity and professionalism when discussing the payment. (Refer to the Checklist for Affective Behaviors - Respect and Sensitivity Scenario #2: Role-play with a peer who will be the patient. Determine the amount the patient owes by reviewing the patient's account record. Inform the patient the amount owed for services rendered. Scenario update: Patient states she does not have the money to pay the entire bill today. 6. Inform the patient of the clinic policy regarding overdue accounts and scheduling appointments. Provide the patient with options for the overdue amount based on the clinic policy. Demonstrate sensitivity and professionalism when discussing the payment and the situation. (Refer to the Checklist for Affective Behaviors - Respect and Sensitivity) 15* 5. 15 7. 15* Total Points 100
Financial policies in medical offices are supported by practise management software (PMP). A doctor's "bedside demeanor," or how they relate to, communicate with, and empathies' with the patient's family, is crucial.
In a doctor's office, a financial policy must be easy for the patient to understand while reading it. In order to adequately respond to any patients who have questions regarding the content, a qualified staff member should be present to explain the meaning of the policy to patients. Making arrangements for unpaid balances, keeping both the patient and the medical staff informed of payments, and accepting low-income sliding scale payment options including cash, checks, credit cards, or money orders are the core elements of a good medical office finance strategy.
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What is one of the responsibilities of
Health
care regulatory
agencies?
Answer:
DHHS agency responsible for developing standards and regulations and conducting inspections and investigations to determine compliance, and propose corrective action for noncompliance in matters related to occupational safety and health.
Hope it is helpful
One of the responsibilities of healthcare regulatory agencies is to ensure the safety and quality of healthcare services provided to the public. These agencies play a crucial role in overseeing and enforcing regulations and standards that healthcare providers must follow.
Here are some specific responsibilities of healthcare regulatory agencies:
1. Licensing and Certification: Healthcare regulatory agencies are responsible for licensing and certifying healthcare facilities, such as hospitals, clinics, and nursing homes. They ensure that these facilities meet specific criteria and maintain certain standards of care.
2. Monitoring Compliance: Regulatory agencies monitor healthcare providers to ensure they comply with rules and regulations. This includes conducting inspections, reviewing medical records, and investigating complaints. They also verify that healthcare professionals have the necessary licenses and credentials.
3. Setting Standards: Regulatory agencies establish and enforce standards for healthcare quality and safety. They develop guidelines and protocols that healthcare providers must follow to ensure proper patient care, infection control, medication management, and more.
4. Consumer Protection: These agencies protect consumers by ensuring transparency and accountability in healthcare. They may handle consumer complaints, investigate fraud or malpractice cases, and take appropriate disciplinary actions against healthcare providers who violate regulations.
5. Policy Development: Healthcare regulatory agencies also play a role in developing and implementing healthcare policies. They analyze data and research to make evidence-based decisions that improve public health outcomes and address emerging issues in the healthcare industry.
Overall, healthcare regulatory agencies work to safeguard public health by monitoring and enforcing regulations, ensuring healthcare providers deliver safe and high-quality care.
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You have been asked to set up the machines to make 150 more pills after this batch is finished. Assuming the recipe ingredients are used in the same proportion and at the end of the current batch there will be no filler left in the mixer, how many units of filler ingredient do you need to use to produce the 150 more pills?
Answer:
percentage problem There are 200 Prescriptions in the queue. ... tablets of "Drug Y", assuming your cost for 500 tablets is $425.00 with a 28% markup and ... solution strength How many milligrams of active ingredient will you need to ... How many units . ... Pharmacy Math Dilution Question To get 33mg/ml from a vial of 2.1g.
Explanation:
oiio
all of the areas belong to the _______ hemisphere of the______
Answer:
The Antarctic is a cold, remote area in the Southern Hemisphere encompassed by the Antarctic Convergence
A
the petty cash fund has $0.82. your policy and procedure requires that there be a minimum of $100 in the
fund. after adding the $100, you reimburse several employees for out-of-pocket business expenses in the
following amounts: purchase of folders: $5.16, payment of courier: $75.00, and replenishment of soda machine:
$15.00. after completing the petty cash log, what is the ending balance?
Petty Cash Fund 0.82 + 100.00 Added= 100.82. Reimbursements $5.16+$15.00+$75.00= 95.16.100.82-95.6= $5.22 Ending balance.
What is Balance?The net residual balance in an account is the finishing balance. It is typically measured as part of the closing process at the conclusion of a reporting period.
The term "closing balance" in banking simply means the balance in your account at the end of the day, month, or year. Both credit and debit sums are included in this.
There may be outstanding transactions that haven't been cleared by the bank yet that wouldn't be included in a bank closure statement but would be included in an accounting closing statement, causing a bank closing balance to differ from an accounting closing balance.
Therefore, Petty Cash Fund 0.82 + 100.00 Added= 100.82. Reimbursements $5.16+$15.00+$75.00= 95.16.100.82-95.6= $5.22 Ending balance.
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What are the 2 main fluid systems in your body?
A.blood and lymph
B.water and oxygen
C.blood and plasma
D.hormones and sugar
Answer:
A. Blood and Lymph
Explanation:
Hope this helps!
Which vessel type is most frequently used for phlebotomy? a. Artery b. Vein c. Capillary d. Both a and c
The vessel type is most frequently used for phlebotomy is vein(B)
The most preferred vein for phlebotomy is the central cubital vein, commonly referred to as the antecubital vein. The median cubital vein, which is situated in the center of the chest, is a firmly fixed, stable vein that seldom rolls during drawing blood.
The first three veins In venipuncture, also described as phlebotomy, three veins are most frequently utilised. The basilic, middle cubital, and cephalic veins are those. The antecubital region contains these three veins. Here on external, from outside or, of the arm is where you can find the cephalic vein.
Blood is often drawn by phlebotomists through vessels there in ampulla, a pitted region of the right fore arm on the side opposite the elbow. The median cubital, basilic, and cephalic veins are the primary veins that pass through this location.
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Check all items that are a function of cerebrospinal fluid.
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is an essential fluid that surrounds and cushions the brain and spinal cord. It performs several important functions that are crucial for the proper functioning of the nervous system. Some of the functions of CSF include maintaining the ionic balance, removing waste products from the brain, providing nutrients to the nervous tissue, and regulating the pressure inside the skull. Additionally, CSF acts as a shock absorber that protects the brain and spinal cord from physical trauma.
Furthermore, CSF helps in the diagnosis of various neurological disorders by allowing the analysis of its contents, such as proteins, glucose, and cells. In summary, CSF plays a vital role in maintaining the health and proper functioning of the central nervous system.
You asked me to check all items that are a function of cerebrospinal fluid. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) serves several important functions in the central nervous system:
1. Protection: CSF acts as a cushion, protecting the brain and spinal cord from potential injury.
2. Buoyancy: CSF provides buoyancy, reducing the effective weight of the brain and preventing it from compressing the delicate tissues at the base of the skull.
3. Nutrient and waste exchange: CSF facilitates the exchange of nutrients, gases, and waste products between the brain and blood, helping to maintain the optimal brain environment.
4. Chemical stability: CSF helps to maintain the balance of electrolytes and other chemicals in the brain, ensuring proper neuron function.
5. Immune defense: CSF contains immune cells and proteins that provide defense against infections.
In summary, the main functions of cerebrospinal fluid are protection, buoyancy, nutrient and waste exchange, chemical stability, and immune defense.
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Suppose a genetic test is developed that can inexpensively distinguish a group of probable high cost folks from lower cost folks, at least with respect to the disease tested. Your health insurance company chooses not to use this test in your underwriting practices, but your competition does. Explain what is likely to happen to your premiums and enrollments and those of your competition.
The company not using the genetic test may initially attract individuals seeking lower premiums, but they may face financial challenges if a significant number of high-cost individuals with the specific disease enroll.
If a genetic test is developed that can distinguish a group of probable high-cost individuals from lower-cost individuals in terms of a specific disease, and one health insurance company chooses not to use this test in their underwriting practices while their competition does, several outcomes are possible.
For the health insurance company that chooses not to use the genetic test;
Premiums: The premiums for this company may initially be lower compared to the competition since they are not factoring in the potential cost differences associated with the specific disease identified by the genetic test. However, over time, if a significant number of high-cost individuals with the specific disease enroll with this company, their costs may increase.
Enrollments: Initially, the company may attract individuals who are aware that the genetic test is not being used for underwriting. These individuals may be those who suspect they fall into the high-risk category but want to avoid paying higher premiums.
For the health insurance company that chooses to use the genetic test;
Premiums: The company that uses the genetic test in their underwriting practices may set their premiums higher to account for the potential cost differences associated with the specific disease identified by the test. They aim to align the premiums with the expected expenses of the insured individuals who are at a higher risk of developing the disease.
Enrollments: Individuals who are aware of their high-risk status, as determined by the genetic test, may be more inclined to enroll with this company, as they anticipate higher healthcare costs related to the specific disease. On the other hand, individuals who are identified as lower-risk by the genetic test may be discouraged from enrolling due to the higher premiums associated with the potential cost differences.
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what is the characteristic feature of the third heart sound, s 3?
The characteristic feature of the third heart sound (S3) is a low-pitched, soft sound that occurs during the early diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle. It is often described as a "ventricular gallop" and is best heard with the bell of the stethoscope placed at the apex of the heart.
S3 is caused by the rapid filling of the ventricles during the passive phase of ventricular diastole, when blood from the atria is rapidly flowing into the relaxed ventricles. The sound is produced by the vibration of the ventricular walls as they accommodate the increased volume of blood. It is typically heard immediately after the second heart sound (S2), resulting in the cadence "Ken-tuc-ky" when auscultated.
The presence of an S3 sound can indicate various underlying conditions, such as heart failure, volume overload, or impaired ventricular function. It is commonly heard in conditions like dilated cardiomyopathy, acute myocardial infarction, and congestive heart failure. However, the absence of an S3 sound does not rule out these conditions, as its presence can vary depending on individual patient factors and circumstances. Clinical correlation with other signs and symptoms is important for accurate diagnosis and management.
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what is most likely to happen if there is widespread use of an antiviral drug to treat and control a communicable disease?
If there is widespread use of an antiviral drug to treat and control a communicable disease, it is most likely that the spread of the disease will be slowed.
The complaint's transmission will most probably be delayed or indeed stopped, and the inflexibility of the sickness in infected persons will be lowered, If an antiviral drug is extensively used to treat and control a transmissible complaint. Antiviral specifics serve by snooping with the capacity of contagions to replicate and spread by targeting particular factors of contagions, similar as reduplication or attachment processes.
Antiviral specifics, when used beforehand in the course of an infection, can help to lessen the duration and inflexibility of the sickness, as well as the peril of transmission to others. In the event of a transmissible complaint, wide use of an effective antiviral drug can reduce the number of persons who get the sickness.
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What first antibody Response to viral infections
Answer:
hello the awnser should be Fc receptors
Which form of telemedicine involves real-time exchanges between a patient and a health science professional?.
Note that the form of telemedicine involves real-time exchanges between a patient and a health science professional is "Interactive telemedicine"
What is Telemedicine?Telehealth is the delivery of health-related services and information via the use of electronic information and telecommunications technology. It enables long-distance interaction between patients and clinicians, as well as care, guidance, reminders, instruction, intervention, monitoring, and remote entries.
Telehealth contributes to increased healthcare value and affordability. Virtual care technology saves patients time and money, minimizes patient transfers, ER and urgent care center visits, and saves payers money.
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Regarding the structural organization of kidney nephrons, the macula densa cells of the distal tubule are in close proximity of the following blood vessels associated with the same nephron (choose at least one):
(A) Afferent arteriole
(B) Glomerular capillaries
(C) Efferent arteriole
(D) Peritubular capillaries
(E) Vasa recta
hello
the answer to the question is (A) and (C)
A dog owner notices their dog has had tarry diarrhea, dark stools, vomiting and has become very lethargic. What is the diagnosis and treatment?
Any infection, even severe ones like leptospirosis, parvovirus, distemper, kennel cough, and heartworm disease, can make your dog sluggish. Feces are one way that the parvovirus spreads.
What causes diarrhoea and vomiting most frequently in dogs?ingesting foreign items like cloth, bones, or toys. consuming poisons or toxins. viral illnesses such coronavirus, distemper, or parvovirus. Roundworms, hookworms, whipworms, Coccidia, or Giardia are examples of parasites.
Black stools, sometimes referred to as melena, can be caused by a variety of conditions, including pancreatitis and renal failure as well as exposure to toxins or a foreign substance in the digestive system. Dr. Spangler continues, "Cancer, foreign things, parasites, and viral or bacterial infections are some of the more typical causes of black dog faeces."
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In Florida, insurance is regulated by how many different parties?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer:
Assuming since this was posted in medicine that this is just for medical insurance. You are looking at 4 parties.
I also assume this question comes from a state-related review guide since this was a question on the study guide before. I remember getting this one correct. The answer is certainly 4.
All of the following would be an example of the cognitive component of anxiety, EXCEPT:
a. worrying
O b. fearing loss of control
O c. avoiding a situation
O d. becoming extremely wary of people and events
Answer:
D. I think is the answer.
Explanation:
Koch's postulates help identify a causative agent of a particular disease. Which postulates could we satisfy in this clinical case? Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS Style)
Hello. This question is incomplete. The full question is:
Koch's postulates help identify a causative agent of a particular disease. Which postulates could we satisfy in this clinical case? Select all that apply. (NCLEX-HESI-TEAS Style)
The case of the nauseating lunch
Answer:
We can satisfy all Koch's postulates in this clinical case.
Explanation:
Regardless of the case, all Koch's postulates must be performed in order to establish a casual relationship between a pathogen and a particular disease. In this case, we can say that no postulates should be used separately, or in groups, but all must be used in order to determine the pathogen.
Koch's postulates are:
The microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease, but should not be found in healthy organisms. The microorganism must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture. The cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced into a healthy organism. The microorganism must be reisolated from the inoculated, diseased experimental host and identified as being identical to the original specific causative agent.which of the following are legitimate concerns that have been raised about the diagnostic and statistical manual (dsm)?
In order to diagnose psychiatric diseases, doctors and psychiatrists in the United States frequently consult the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM).
The DSM, which is published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA), includes all subtypes of mental health illnesses that can affect adults and kids. It includes explanations, signs, and other requirements for making a diagnosis of mental health illnesses. Additionally, it includes data on who is most susceptible to certain illnesses, the average age of onset, the progression and duration of the Mental Disorders, risk factors and prognostic indicators, and other diagnostic concerns. Mental Disorders have an impact on how you think, feel, behave, and feel about things. They could come and go or last a while (chronic).
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a spinal tap is normally performed at what portion of the spine?
A spinal tap, also known as a lumbar puncture, is normally performed in the lower portion of the spine, specifically in the lumbar region. The procedure is commonly used for diagnostic purposes to evaluate conditions such as meningitis, multiple sclerosis, or certain neurological disorders.
A spinal tap is a medical procedure that involves the insertion of a needle into the subarachnoid space of the spinal canal. This space contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), which surrounds and protects the brain and spinal cord. The lumbar region of the spine, located in the lower back, is chosen for the procedure because it provides easier access to the subarachnoid space without the risk of damaging the spinal cord.
During a spinal tap, the patient is usually positioned on their side or sitting upright and the needle is inserted between the lower vertebrae of the lumbar spine. This allows the healthcare professional to collect a sample of CSF or measure the pressure within the spinal canal. The procedure is commonly used for diagnostic purposes to evaluate conditions such as meningitis, multiple sclerosis, or certain neurological disorders.
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hich type of white blood cells produces defensive proteins called antibodies? natural killer cells phagocytic cells b cells t cells
B cells are the type of white blood cells that produce defensive proteins called antibodies. Antibodies are soluble proteins produced by plasma cells, which are a kind of B cell, in response to an antigen.
These antibodies can recognize and bind to the antigen to neutralize or eliminate it from the body. This is a very effective way for the immune system to recognize and eliminate foreign invaders like bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens.
B cells are part of the adaptive immune system, which means that they can recognize and respond to specific antigens. When a B cell encounters an antigen, it undergoes a process of activation and differentiation that leads to the production of plasma cells and memory B cells. Plasma cells are responsible for producing large amounts of antibodies, which are secreted into the bloodstream and other body fluids. Memory B cells, on the other hand, are long-lived cells that can remember the antigen and respond more quickly and effectively if it is encountered again in the future.
B cells play a crucial role in defending the body against infections and diseases. They are activated by various signals, including antigens, cytokines, and other immune cells. Once activated, B cells undergo a process of proliferation and differentiation that leads to the production of plasma cells and memory B cells. These cells are essential for the production of protective antibodies that can neutralize or eliminate pathogens. Overall, the immune system relies heavily on B cells to mount an effective response against invading pathogens.
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A psychosomatic disease is best defined as a disease in which
there are no observable symptoms.
mental factors do not affect overall health.
the body and mind contribute to an illness.
stress is unrelated to physical conditions.
Answer:
Body and mind contribute to the illness
Explanation:
The national institute on alcohol abuse and alcoholism reports that ____percent of college students report academic consequences from drinking including missing class, falling behind in class, and doing poorly in class O 23O 25O 22O 26
Answer:
not sure ask ater
Explanation:
which of the following compounds would be required to be prepared in a biological safety cabinet (BSC)
A. Pantoprazole IV
B. Ranitidine IV
C. Methotrexate IV
D. Insulin IV
Given what we know, of the options listed, Methotrexate IV is the compound that requires the most care when handling and should prompt the use of a biological safety cabinet.
What is Methotrexate IV? This is a medicine used often for cancer treatment. It can be used to treat cancers such as leukemia.Great care must be taken during its handling.This includes the use of a BSC and proper protective equipment.Therefore, given the nature of the Methotrexate IV compound and its risk for those handling the substance, it is the option listed that most appropriately prompts the use of a hazard or biosafety cabinet.
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Mr. Joseph arrived at the office with an ear infection. After the doctor carefully examined Mr. Joseph’s ears, he noticed that there was something in the left ear. He ordered his medical assistant to perform an ear irrigation on the patient. What instructions should the medical assistant give to the patient regarding the procedure?
Mr. Joseph should go for the ear irrigation method. Ear irrigation is a medical process. This process is used for the cleaning of the internal ear. The hydrogen peroxide solution is flushed into the ear canal. Sterile saline solution can also be used. This method is used for the removal of the ear wax.
The build-up wax can cause hear impairment and development of the infections. The ear irrigation method is quite an effective method. The ear which is built up over time cause hearing loss, headache, and dizziness as the organs help in balancing.
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a nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. for which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess? (select all that apply.)
Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs are characteristic clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure. Here option B is the correct answer.
A) Peripheral edema and distended neck veins: These are commonly seen in right-sided heart failure rather than left-sided heart failure. In left-sided heart failure, the impaired function of the left ventricle leads to a backup of blood in the pulmonary circulation, resulting in respiratory symptoms.
B) Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs: Dyspnea, or difficulty breathing, is a hallmark sign of left-sided heart failure. As the left ventricle fails to effectively pump blood, fluid accumulates in the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion and crackles upon auscultation.
C) Chest pain and cyanosis of the extremities: Chest pain is not typically associated with left-sided heart failure unless there is an underlying cause such as myocardial ischemia.
Cyanosis of the extremities is more commonly observed in conditions that affect peripheral circulation, such as arterial occlusion or severe hypoxemia. Therefore option B is the correct answer.
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Complete question:
Which of the following clinical manifestations would a nurse assess in a client with left-sided heart failure?
A) Peripheral edema and distended neck veins
B) Dyspnea and crackles in the lungs
C) Chest pain and cyanosis of the extremities
D) Increased urine output and hypertension
outline four differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus