Progestin helps prevent pregnancy by inhibiting ovulation, thickening cervical mucus, and altering the uterine lining, making it an essential component of combination oral contraceptives.
Progestin is a synthetic hormone that is commonly used in combination oral contraceptives. It helps prevent pregnancy by primarily working to thicken the cervical mucus, making it more difficult for sperm to reach the egg. Additionally, progestin can also suppress ovulation, preventing the release of an egg from the ovaries. By using these two methods, progestin helps provide a highly effective form of birth control.
When a woman takes a combination oral contraceptive that contains both progestin and estrogen, the hormones work together to provide comprehensive protection against pregnancy. Estrogen helps to prevent ovulation, while progestin works to thicken cervical mucus and further prevent ovulation. Additionally, progestin can also have an effect on the lining of the uterus, making it less hospitable to a fertilized egg. By providing multiple mechanisms of action, combination oral contraceptives are highly effective at preventing unwanted pregnancy.
Progestin is a synthetic form of the hormone progesterone. It is an essential component of combination oral contraceptives because it helps prevent pregnancy through multiple methods.
1. Inhibiting Ovulation: Progestin works to suppress the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which is necessary for ovulation to occur. By preventing ovulation, there is no egg released for fertilization.
2. Thickening Cervical Mucus: Progestin causes the cervical mucus to thicken, making it difficult for sperm to swim through the cervix and reach the egg. This acts as a barrier to sperm, reducing the likelihood of fertilization.
3. Altering the Uterine Lining: Progestin also affects the lining of the uterus, making it less receptive to a fertilized egg. This means that even if an egg were to be fertilized, it would have a harder time implanting in the uterus and developing into a pregnancy.
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The site investigator receives a copy of an expedited safety report that represents an increased risk to the study participants.
The site investigator has received an expedited safety report indicating an elevated risk to study participants.
What is an expedited safety report?An expedited safety report is a document that details an unexpected adverse event that occurred during a clinical trial and poses a serious risk to study participants. These reports are submitted by the sponsor of the trial to regulatory agencies, ethics committees, and investigators.
What is the role of the site investigator in responding to an expedited safety report?Upon receiving an expedited safety report, the site investigator must take immediate action to ensure the safety and well-being of the study participants. This may involve reviewing the study protocol, examining participant records, and communicating with the sponsor and other relevant parties. The site investigator is also responsible for reporting the adverse event to the appropriate regulatory agencies and ethics committees, as well as taking steps to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.
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Select the accessory organs that deposit secretions directly into the duodenum. (Select multiple)AppendixGallbladderJejunumStomachSalivary GlandsPancreas
The accessory organs that deposit secretions directly into the duodenum are:- Pancreas
- Liver (through the bile ducts)
The salivary glands, stomach, jejunum, appendix do not deposit secretions directly into the duodenum. The gallbladder does not deposit secretions directly into the duodenum, but it stores and releases bile produced by the liver, which does deposit secretions directly into the duodenum through the bile ducts.
The pancreas secretes digestive enzymes, such as amylase, lipase, and proteases, which are essential for the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins in the small intestine. The liver produces bile, which aids in the digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine.
Overall, these accessory organs play important roles in the digestive process, and their secretions are necessary for the proper breakdown and absorption of nutrients in the small intestine.
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Automated hematology procedures have many advantages over manual methods list five of these advantages
Answer:
What are the celluar components of blood? erythrocytes ... Hemoglobin..serves to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide through the body. Upgrade ... Which cell type is most numerous? ... What is the difference between Wintrobe method and Westergen method? ... List five advantages of Automated hematology procedures.
Explanation:
Within the cell, the cleanup crew is/are the
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) nucleus
C) lysosomes
D) cytoplasm
Within the cell, the cleanup crew is/are the C) lysosomes.
Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles containing various enzymes that function primarily in breaking down and recycling cellular waste and debris. They are considered the "waste disposal system" of the cell. These organelles digest excess or worn-out cell components, bacteria, and other foreign particles that enter the cell. This process is essential for maintaining cellular health and proper functioning.
Lysosomes are produced by the endoplasmic reticulum (A) and further processed in the Golgi apparatus. They are not to be confused with the endoplasmic reticulum, which is involved in protein and lipid synthesis, or the nucleus (B), which houses genetic material and controls cellular activities. Additionally, lysosomes are distinct from the cytoplasm (D), which is the fluid matrix that fills the cell and contains various cellular structures.
In summary, (option c) lysosomes serve as the cell's cleanup crew by breaking down and recycling waste materials, contributing to the overall health and efficiency of the cell.
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The results from research have been known to produce harms to members of the sampled population who do not actually participate in the research study. An example of the type of research that could result in group harms is
The results of research have been known to cause harm to members of the sampled population who do not involve themselves in the study of the genetic links between DNA samples found at a prehistoric central Asian archeological site and west coast Native American tribes.
What are the genetic studies?The genetics research shows the relationships between the genes of the current population and the genes of the ancestral population, such as here, where DNA samples from central Asia and DNA samples from a west coast tribe are compared, and in the study, any kind of irresponsibility may lead to any disease spread.
Hence, the results of research have been known to cause harm to members of the sampled population who do not involve themselves in the study of the genetic links between DNA samples found at a prehistoric central Asian archeological site and west coast Native American tribes.
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The question is incomplete and the complete question is the follow
The results from research have been known to produce harms to members of the sampled population who do not actually participate in the research study. An example of the type of research that could result in group harms is
(a) A study of the genetic links between DNA samples found at a prehistoric central Asian archeological site and west coast Native American tribes.
(b) Phase 3 clinical trial of a new anticancer agent in middle-aged women diagnosed with breast cancer
(c Treat the patient with the drug based on physician's best medical judgment)
(d) None of the above
Name three advantages to maintaining the condition of ems vehicals?
Answer:
An ambulance is a medically equipped vehicle which transports patients to treatment facilities, such as hospitals. Typically, out-of-hospital medical care is provided to the patient.
Ambulances are used to respond to medical emergencies by emergency medical services. For this purpose, they are generally equipped with flashing warning lights and sirens. They can rapidly transport paramedics and other first responders to the scene, carry equipment for administering emergency care and transport patients to hospital or other definitive care. Most ambulances use a design based on vans or pick-up trucks. Others take the form of motorcycles, cars, buses, aircraft and boats.
Generally, vehicles count as an ambulance if they can transport patients. However, it varies by jurisdiction as to whether a non-emergency patient transport vehicle (also called an ambulette) is counted as an ambulance. These vehicles are not usually (although there are exceptions) equipped with life-support equipment, and are usually crewed by staff with fewer qualifications than the crew of emergency ambulances. Conversely, EMS agencies may also have emergency response vehicles that cannot transport patients. These are known by names such as nontransporting EMS vehicles, fly-cars or response vehicles.
The term ambulance comes from the Latin word "ambulare" as meaning "to walk or move about which is a reference to early medical care where patients were moved by lifting or wheeling. The word originally meant a moving hospital, which follows an army in its movements Ambulances (Ambulancias in Spanish) were first used for emergency transport in 1487 by the Spanish forces during the siege of Málaga by the Catholic Monarchs against the Emirate of Granada. During the American Civil War vehicles for conveying the wounded off the field of battle were called ambulance wagons. Field hospitals were still called ambulances during the Franco-Prussian Warof 1870 and in the Serbo-Turkish war of 1876 even though the wagons were first referred to as ambulances about 1854 during the Crimean War.An ambulance is a medically equipped vehicle which transports patients to treatment facilities, such as hospitals.Typically, out-of-hospital medical care is provided to the patient.
Explanation:
To maintain adequate nutrition, animals require dietary access to certain amino acids. An amino acid that is referred to as nonessential would be best described as one that:.
To maintain adequate nutrition, animals require dietary access to certain amino acids. An amino acid that is referred to as nonessential would be best described as one that is synthesized in sufficient amounts by the body to meet its physiological requirements even if it is not present in the diet of the animal.
Amino acids are building blocks of proteins. They are essential for the proper growth and function of the body. To maintain adequate nutrition, animals require dietary access to certain amino acids. Nonessential amino acids can be synthesized by the body in sufficient quantities to meet its physiological requirements. These amino acids do not need to be supplied through the diet, as they can be produced by the body itself. There are 11 nonessential amino acids that can be synthesized by the body.However, Essential amino acids are those that cannot be produced by the body in sufficient amounts and must be supplied through the diet. There are 9 essential amino acids that are required for animal nutrition, including histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. They must be supplied by the diet in sufficient quantities to meet the animal's needs.The required daily intake of each essential amino acid varies by species and by life stage. An average daily intake of 0.6 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight is recommended.
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the pharynx starts at the uvula and ends at the esophagus. t/f
True the pharynx starts at the uvula and ends at the esophagus.
The pharynx is a muscular tube that starts at the back of the nose and ends at the esophagus. The uvula is a small, fleshy projection at the back of the throat, which marks the beginning of the pharynx. Therefore, it is true that the pharynx starts at the uvula and ends at the esophagus.
The pharynx is an important part of the digestive and respiratory systems. It serves as a passageway for food, liquids, and air to move from the mouth to the esophagus and lungs, respectively. The pharynx is divided into three parts: the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx. The nasopharynx is located behind the nose and is responsible for the passage of air. The oropharynx is located behind the mouth and is responsible for the passage of food and liquid. The laryngopharynx is located at the bottom of the pharynx and leads to the esophagus and trachea.
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While compounding, you turn a fine powder into a paste through a process called:
While compounding, you turn a fine powder into a paste through a process called levigation.
Levigation is a process used to prepare a paste from a dry powder. The powder is mixed with a small amount of liquid, typically a non-solvent, to form a slurry. This slurry is then ground or rubbed with a spatula against a smooth surface, such as a mortar or slab, to break down the powder particles and form a smooth, homogeneous paste.
Levigation is commonly used in pharmacy compounding to prepare topical medications, ointments, and creams, where a fine powder needs to be mixed with a vehicle to create a smooth, spreadable paste that can be applied to the skin.
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When assessing the older adult, the nurse should know which findings represent common physiological changes associated with aging and which are abnormal findings. A normal and common physiological change is:
A normal and common physiological change associated with aging is a decrease in maximal heart rate and cardiac output, leading to a reduction in aerobic capacity and exercise tolerance.
Other normal physiological changes associated with aging include a decrease in muscle mass and strength, changes in vision and hearing, and a decrease in skin elasticity and subcutaneous fat. These changes are a normal part of aging and do not necessarily indicate an underlying health problem. However, if an older adult experiences sudden or rapid changes in their health status, it may indicate an abnormal finding that requires further evaluation and intervention.
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If an evidence-based clinical protocol has been implemented but evaluation shows that patients still are not achieving expected clinical outcomes, what is the likely reason?.
If an evidence-based clinical protocol has been implemented but shows that patients still are not achieving expected clinical outcomes, what is the likely reason?. All of the previous reasons are possible
What is clinical protocol ?Any experiment in which a substance is delivered to, dispensed to, or utilized in one or more human subjects must have a clinical protocol. The protocol outlines the steps that must be taken by each investigator and how the medication or biologic will be researched. It must include the following.
a description of the study's goals and purposeThe selection and exclusion criteria for patientsa projection of the number of participants in the studya description of the study's design, including the type of control group that will be employed (if any)An explanation of the procedures employed to lessen the bias of researchers, subjects, and analystsTo learn more about clinical protocol From the given link:
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the okinawan dietary pattern has changed remarkably in the post-world war ii era. the adoption of westernized food practices has led to the production of highly processed foods and a marked increase in saturated fat intake. younger okinawans now have a higher risk of obesity and chronic disease than their parents and grandparents who ate in the traditional way. the dietary guidelines recommends limiting saturated fat intake to less than 10% of total calories. on the spreadsheet report, examine the column for calories (cals) and saturated fat (fat-s). approximately what percentage of calories came from saturated fat in elaine's dietary intake on this day?
To accurately determine the percentage of calories that came from saturated fat in Elaine's dietary intake, I would need access to the specific spreadsheet report you mentioned.
Without the actual data, I cannot provide an exact percentage. However, I can guide you on how to calculate it if you provide the values for calories and saturated fat from the spreadsheet.
To calculate the percentage of calories from saturated fat, you would follow these steps:
Locate the values for total calories (cals) and saturated fat (fat-s) in Elaine's dietary intake on the given day from the spreadsheet report.Divide the number of calories from saturated fat by the total calories consumed.Multiply the result by 100 to obtain the percentage.Please provide the values from the spreadsheet, and I'll be happy to help you calculate the percentage.
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A 31 y.o. African-American female collapses at mile 20 of a marathon. Although the temperature is in the 60’s she was advised by her coach to drink as much water as possible. She vomits a large volume of clear fluid and has a seizure. Her BP is 134/74. A serum sodium is found to be 122 mmol/L. What would your next step would be?
Answer:
1 liter of 3% saline
Explanation:
What test will most likely be performed for different disorders and why?
Those who do not exhibit any symptoms of disease are given a screening test to look for probable health disorders or diseases.
What are the many sorts of diagnostic tests?Diagnostic techniques come in a wide variety of forms. Lab testing (such as blood and urine tests), imaging tests (such as mammography and CT scan), endoscopies (such as colonoscopies and bronchoscopies), and biopsies are among examples.
What kind of test is conducted when a sickness is identified quickly?The phrase "rapid diagnostic test" (RDT) is most frequently used in the context of infectious diseases to describe lateral-flow, immunochromatographic assays used to identify specific pathogens. Such assays could more broadly be referred to as point-of-care (POC) tests.
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Describe how the care technique of adequate posture for bed ridden clients can impact parts of the respiratory system. Use correct terminology of the respiratory system in your answer.
Answer:
Patients who suffer from respiratory pathologies, generally present an increase in fluid in the alveoli, where they produce the gas exchange, that is why if we put the patient to bed completely, the gas exchange surface will be less, because the liquid that presents by the pulmonary emphysema is dispersed in more alveoli and therefore the difficulty of breathing is greater.
The ideal position then in this type of patient, where the problem is in the respiratory system, in the position of approximately 130 degrees, or an intermediate position between 180 and 90 degrees, since in this way the upper limb will not be at the same Height than the lower limb, the emphysema fluid does not disperse through the alveoli on a larger surface, but on a smaller surface, and thus the patient will be able to breathe better, and improve their gas exchange capacity.
Explanation:
The greater the occupied alveolar surface, the less capacity for gas exchange and therefore greater difficulty in breathing ... This would happen in patients who are fully reclined, that is, at 180 degrees.
If we position it well, between 90 and 180, approximately 130 degrees, less alveolar surface occupied by the fluid of the emphysema, greater gas exchange and therefore better breathing.
How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
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Joan Seap lives at home, has COPD and ASHD, and is functionally declining. Dr. Smith has revised her comprehensive care plan. Thirty minutes was spent this month completing these services. The code to report is _____.
Answer: Code 99490
Explanation:
From the question, we are told that Joan Seap lives at home, has COPD and ASHD, and is functionally declining. Dr. Smith has revised her comprehensive care plan. Based on the above, the code to report is 99490.
Chronic Care Management CPT 99490 is for the Medicare patients who have chronic conditions.
Which cranial nerves are associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?.
The cranial nerves Oculomotor, Facial, Glossopharyngeal, and Vagus are associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.
The oculomotor, facial, glossopharyngeal, and vagus nerves are cranial nerves that are involved in the parasympathetic nervous system. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus for the oculomotor nerve, superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei for the facial nerve, inferior salivatory nucleus for the glossopharyngeal nerve, the dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve, as well as the nucleus ambiguus for the vagus nerve, are the nuclei specifically related to these.
The parasympathetic nervous system's preganglionic fibers may be located here. Additionally, the second, third, and fourth sacral segments' respective sacral parasympathetic nuclei are all engaged.
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In order from less complex to complex to more complex, which level of organization is directly after tissue?
-Organ
-Organ System
-Organism
-Organelle
Answer:
A.Organ
Explanation:
The level of organization that is directly after the tissue level (from less complex to more complex) is Organ.
What are organization levels?In biology, the organization levels refer to the arrangement of specialized structures.
A cell is the basic unit of all living forms, which is composed of organelles in eukaryotic organisms.A tissue is a group of specialized cells that perform a particular function, whereas an organ is a group of tissues organized to play specific activities in the body.In conclusion, the level of organization that is directly after the tissue level (from less complex to more complex) is Organ.
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You're a forensic scientist who found a bone completely enveloped in tendon. What type of bone would you guess right away that it was?
Short Bone
Long Bone
sesamoid bone
Flat bone
According to the research, the correct option is Long Bone. It is the type of bone a forensic scientist would guess given the description of a bone completely enveloped in tendon.
To find the correct option amongst all other options, we need to know more about Long Bone and which characteristics they have.
What are the characteristics of Long Bones?The bony structures of the human body that are elongated that have a body and two ends or points are called Long Bones. In long bones, the length predominates with respect to the width and thickness and can be enveloped in tendon. They have an elongated shape, which allows identifying a body and two ends called epiphysis.Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is Long Bone. It is the type of bone a forensic scientist would guess right away that it was.
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Type ________ diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels.
Type 2 diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with the administration of oral hypoglycemic medications to help control the blood sugar levels.
What is type 2 diabetes?Diabetes type 2 is a condition that affects the way in which the body controls and uses sugar (also known as glucose) as a fuel. Because of this illness that lasts for a long time (chronic), there is an excessive amount of sugar circulating in the bloodstream. In the long run, having high blood sugar levels can cause problems with the circulatory system, the nervous system, and the immune system.
Diabetes type 2 is primarily caused by two issues that are interrelated. The cells that make up muscle, fat, and the liver all become resistant to the effects of insulin. Due to the abnormal interaction that these cells have with insulin, they are unable to take in the required amount of sugar.
Diet, exercise, and the possible use of oral hypoglycemic drugs are the three components of an ideal treatment plan for type two diabetes. These components work together to help keep blood sugar levels under control.
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The goal of nursing measures to alleviate compression on the umbilical cord is to prevent fetal acidosis. What ph value would indicate that fetal acidosis could be present
Answer:
Arterial blood pH of 7.2 to 7.3
Explanation:
state five reason why hand tools should be properly maintained
After teaching a class on the female reproductive system, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which action as the primary function of the ovaries
The primary function of the ovaries is to produce female gametes known as the eggs.
What are Ovaries?The female gonad is the ovary. The lower left and right quadrants of the abdomen normally house the paired intraperitoneal endocrine organs, respectively. In addition to producing hormones, the ovaries are crucial for reproduction. Estrogen and progesterone are among the hormones secreted by the ovary's granulosa cells and theca cells. The follicles will develop in this location in the ovary during the proliferation phase. The oocyte will be released and start its journey via the fallopian tubes and into the uterus once the dominant follicle matures and luteinizing hormone surges. A temporary endocrine organ called the corpus luteum will replace the ovary and secrete significant levels of progesterone and lower amounts of inhibin A.
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Lenco Industries has cost of goods manufactured of $65 000 in May. The finished goods inventory at the end of May was $20 000 and the cost of goods sold during May was $75 000. The inventory in finished goods at the beginning of May was: $5000. $30 000. $10 000. $20 000
Answer:
The correct answer is:
$30,000
Explanation:
ending inventory = $20,000
sales = $75,000
Manufactured goods = $65,000
Beginning inventory = ???
1. First let us calculate the difference between the cost of goods sold and the cost of goods manufactured, in order to determine the goods from alternative sources order than manufacturing. This is done as follows:
Goods from sources other than manufacturing = (sales) - (manufactured goods)
Goods from sources other than manufacturing = 75,000 - 65,000 = $10,000
This means that out of the $75,000 worth of goods sold, $10,000 was from a source other than manufacturing which can be accurately predicted to be the beginning inventory
2. Next, to calculate the total beginning inventory, we will add the goods sold from the beginning inventory and the ending inventory.
Beginning inventory = (Goods from sources other than manufacturing ) + ending inventory
Beginning inventory = 10,000 + 20,000 = $30,000
Note, since the sales are more than the manufactured goods, the excess is from beginning inventory
a nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. if the chest drainage system is accidentally disconnected, what should the nurse plan to do?
When a nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube and the chest drainage system is accidentally disconnected, the nurse should place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile saline.
Loss of the negative pressure within the pleural space can result from chest trauma. As a result, the lung collapses, resulting in respiratory discomfort and potentially fatal consequences. A chest tube is frequently placed in the pleural area of thoracic trauma patients to drain fluid and air. A chest drainage system is linked to the chest tube (CDS). Nurses who work in trauma and emergency situations need to know how to handle typical issues that can arise in patients who have a chest tube and a CDS.
A drainage system with three chambers, including a water seal, suction control, and drainage collection chamber, is a chest drain, often referred to as an under water sealed drain (UWSD). The purpose of UWSD is to prevent the backflow of air or fluid into the pleural space while still allowing air or fluid to be evacuated from the pleural cavity.
As a result, the lungs can expand and the thoracic cavity's negative pressure can be restored. For respiratory function and hemodynamic stability to be maintained, proper chest drain management is necessary. In the operating room, intensive care unit, and neonatal intensive care unit, as well as in the emergency room and ward sections, chest drains may be routinely installed. Redivac drains, which are distinct from a UWSD, will be implanted in some individuals.
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Of the following three types of fat, which type is the most unhealthy?
please, in the space provided below, list the 7 factors mentioned in the lecture that have prevented effective action against non-communicable diseases .
Anxiety and diabetes The WHO has recognized high blood pressure, high cholesterol, obesity, poor diet, smoking, physical inactivity, and excessive alcohol intake.
What is diabetes' primary underlying cause?Most diabetes kinds have an unknown specific etiology. Sugar accumulates in the blood in every situation. Due to inadequate insulin production by the pancreas, this occurs.
Can you lose diabetes?Diabetes type 2 has no known cure. However, it could be feasible to treat the illness in such a way that you no longer require medication to control it and your body is no longer negatively affected by having blood sugar levels that are too high.
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The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse
will carefully monitor this patient for which symptom(s)?
a. Coughing and shortness of breath
b. Decreased breath sounds
c. Diarrhea
d. Nausea and abdominal distension
A patient getting total parenteral feeding is being cared for by the nurse (TPN). The nurse will keep a close eye on this patient for symptoms of coughing as well as shortness of breath (s).
Patients receiving PN should have their blood sugar, cardiovascular function, water & electrolyte balance, and balance frequently checked to look for a glycogen replenishment syndrome (C).
The nurse tending to a given patient enteral feedings would check for belly distention to see how well the patient tolerated the feeding. The nurse is aware that monitoring blood glucose is crucial while treating a patient getting total parenteral feeding. Regular weight, electrolyte, and blood urea nitrogen monitoring is advised (eg, daily for inpatients). Until until the patient's and the glucose levels are stable, plasma glucose must be checked every six hours.
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A 32 year old female presents to her primary care physician complaining of frontal headaches for over one week. She states the location of her pain to be on top of her eyebrows with radiation to the top of her head. She states she has been more fatigued than usual and has some minor nose congestion. She denies any visual disturbances, nausea, vomiting, cough or fever. You should:
a) Send her to the emergency room for emergent evaluation as she may be having a brain bleed
b) Advise rest and fluids with an anti-inflammatory such as Advil and reassure her she most likely has a viral sinus infection
c) Do nothing
d) Send her for a CT of the head and give steroids