a ten-year-old boy has sporadic attacks of muscle paralysis, often following a period of exercise. the patient has four brothers all of whom have suffered similar symptoms. the onset of these attacks is characterized by pain associated with contractures of the affected muscles. later in the attack those muscles become paralyzed and flaccid. analysis of the blood samples taken during an attack indicates that the patient is hyperkalemic
Answers
The ten-year-old boy's sporadic attacks of muscle paralysis, preceded by pain and contractures, along with a family history of similar symptoms, suggest a possible diagnosis of periodic paralysis. The analysis of blood samples indicating hyperkalemia further supports this diagnosis.
Periodic paralysis is a group of rare genetic disorders characterized by episodes of muscle weakness or paralysis. These attacks are often triggered by factors like exercise, stress, or certain foods. In this case, the boy's symptoms, along with a family history of similar symptoms in his brothers, point towards a genetic form of periodic paralysis.
The onset of attacks with pain and contractures suggests that the boy may have a specific subtype called paramyotonia congenita, which is associated with hyperkalemic periodic paralysis. Hyperkalemia refers to elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can disrupt the normal electrical signaling in muscle cells and lead to muscle weakness or paralysis.
Further diagnostic tests, such as genetic testing and electromyography (EMG), may be conducted to confirm the diagnosis and determine the specific genetic mutation responsible for the condition.
Treatment options may include lifestyle modifications to avoid triggers, management of potassium levels through dietary changes or medication, and symptomatic relief during attacks. Regular follow-up with a healthcare provider specializing in neuromuscular disorders is essential for proper management and support.
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Related Questions
A woman who is breastfeeding is not able to eat enough food for two weeks because of a lack of money. What effect will it have on her breast milk?.
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Answer:
The quantity of milk will decrease but it will still be nutritionally adequate.
The _______ is made up of all of the nerves that connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body.
Answers
Answer:
peripheral nervous system
Explanation:
Peripheral nervous system consists of all of the body's nerves connected to the central nervous system.
What is Peripheral nervous system?
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is outside the brain and spinal cord. It sends information from our body to our brain and executes brain directives to our body.
There are two main parts to the peripheral nervous system: The autonomic nervous system (ANS) controls the body's automatic processes and glands. Somatic nervous system (SNS): controls muscle movement and sends information from the ears, eyes, and skin to the central nervous system.
Meanwhile the brain and the spinal cord are the components that make up the central nervous system (CNS).
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An infertile couple seeks the assistance of a clinic when they are unable to conceive a child. Through in vitro fertilization, (IVF), their dream is realized when they give birth to a baby girl. After some time passes, the baby's features appear to be Asian (the couple is white). Their worst nightmare begins when they learn that the husband is not the biological father of the child. The clinic is ordered to reveal the identity of all donors who could potentially be the father of the child. Whose rights are superior? the child, the mother, the unknown father? As a malpractice case, how do you begin to assess damages?
Answers
1. Rights of the Child: The rights of the child should be a primary concern in such cases. The child has the right to know their genetic identity and biological origins, as this information can be crucial for their well-being and understanding of their own identity. Establishing the truth about their parentage can have significant emotional, psychological, and medical implications for the child. Therefore, the child's rights to genetic information and the truth about their parentage may be considered paramount.
2. Rights of the Mother: The mother's rights may include the right to privacy and reproductive autonomy. However, in a case where there is a discrepancy between the intended father and the biological father, these rights may be weighed against the child's right to know their genetic identity. The extent of the mother's rights and the legal obligations towards disclosing the information can vary based on local laws and specific contractual agreements between the parents and the IVF clinic.
3. Rights of the Unknown Father: The rights of the unknown biological father may also come into consideration. However, since the identity of the biological father is typically unknown, it may be challenging to assess or protect his specific rights. The focus is often on the rights of the child and the legal obligations of the IVF clinic to provide the necessary information to establish the child's parentage accurately.
Assessing damages in a malpractice case related to IVF can involve a variety of factors, such as emotional distress, psychological harm, breach of contract, professional negligence, and any associated medical costs. Legal experts specializing in family law or medical malpractice would typically be involved in evaluating the specific circumstances of the case, the applicable laws, and determining the appropriate course of action for assessing damages.
It is crucial to consult with a legal professional who specializes in reproductive law, family law, or medical malpractice to understand the specific legal principles and regulations that apply to the jurisdiction where the case is being considered. They can provide accurate and tailored advice based on the relevant laws and precedents in that jurisdiction.
Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly.
Wellness programs are one way of helping groups of people improve their health.
One effective method that wellness programs can use is providing self- ____ materials to their participants.
Answers
Answer:
Self Care
Explanation:
wellness programs provide self care materials to their participants. Wellness programs will work only if someone is dedicated and willing
fatty acids in foods consumed influence the composition of fats in the body.
Answers
The composition of fats in the body is influenced by the consumption of fatty acids in foods. When consuming foods high in unsaturated fatty acids, the body tends to store this type of fatty acid, incorporating it into the body's fat composition. Similarly, if foods high in saturated fatty acids are consumed, the same occurs with this type of fat.
There are two main types of fatty acids:
Saturated fatty acids: Saturated fatty acids are solid at room temperature. It is advisable to limit their intake as they are associated with elevated levels of cholesterol in the body.
Unsaturated fatty acids: Unsaturated fatty acids are liquid at room temperature. They are often considered "good" fats because they are associated with decreased cholesterol levels and a reduced risk of heart disease.
When it comes to saturated fat intake, it is recommended to consume no more than 13 grams per day. Therefore, 150 mg can be considered a small amount of saturated fat.
By understanding the differences between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids and their effects on cholesterol levels, individuals can make informed dietary choices to promote better health and reduce the risk of heart disease.
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_____ functioning is more closely associated with a decline in ADLs.
Emotional
Social
Physical
Neurological
Answers
The physical functioning is more often associated with a decline in ADLs.
Which cognitive functions tend to decline during the lifespan?The idea formation, conception, and cognitive flexibility drop with age, particularly in terms of older than age 70.
Speech and lingo role stays mostly on intact with running age.
Thus option "A" is correct, extreme dysfunction is associated with a more rapid decline in ADLs.
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The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned to the surgical unit after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which assessment finding will require the most immediate action?
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The assessment finding that would require the most immediate action for a client who has just returned to the surgical unit after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) would be excessive bleeding or signs of hemorrhage.
TURP is a surgical procedure that involves removing part of the prostate gland, and bleeding is a potential complication. If the client exhibits signs of active bleeding, such as bright red or profuse bleeding from the surgical site, significant drop in blood pressure, rapid heart rate, or signs of hypovolemia, immediate action should be taken to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.
This may involve applying direct pressure to the bleeding site, administering intravenous fluids or blood products, and notifying the healthcare provider or surgical team for further interventions or emergency measures.
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The first people to put as much emphasis on prevention of disease as on the treatment of disease conditions were the
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In Ancient Greece, doctors have placed equal emphasis on the prevention of diseases as on the treatment of diseases. A healthy lifestyle was promoted to the general public in order to keep their body and mind fit and healthy.
The Greek physician Hippocrates, known as the "father of medicine," emphasized that a healthy lifestyle, balanced diet, and physical activity are important factors for good health. The ancient Greeks believed that health was a product of harmony and balance between the body and the mind and that imbalances in the four humors of the body (blood, phlegm, black bile, and yellow bile) could lead to disease.
Greeks were the first people to put as much emphasis on the prevention of disease as on the treatment of disease conditions. A healthy lifestyle was promoted to the general public in order to keep their body and mind fit and healthy. Hippocrates was the Greek physician who emphasized that a healthy lifestyle, balanced diet, and physical activity are important factors for good health.
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Match the given work profiles to their respective job roles. NEED ASAP
Answers
Answer:
Matt- Public Health Officer
Rose- Veterinary Researcher
Georgia- Food Safetey Officer
Kane- Veterinary Professor
Which of the following adult standards for blood lipids is considered unhealthy?
a. HDL higher than 60 mg/dL
b. LDL higher than 160 mg/dL
c. LDL between 100 and 110 mg/dL
d. Triglycerides less than 150 mg/dL
e. Total blood cholesterol below 200 mg/dL
Answers
The unhealthy adult standard for blood lipids is b. LDL higher than 160 mg/dL. High levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol in the blood are considered unhealthy as they are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. LDL cholesterol is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol because it can contribute to the formation of plaques in the arteries, leading to the narrowing and blockage of blood vessels.
Maintaining healthy blood lipid levels is important for overall cardiovascular health. While the other options listed may vary based on individual factors and specific guidelines, an LDL level higher than 160 mg/dL is generally considered unhealthy and may warrant intervention such as lifestyle modifications or medication to lower cholesterol levels.
It's important to note that blood lipid targets and thresholds may vary depending on an individual's overall health, the presence of other risk factors, and specific medical conditions. Regular monitoring, consultation with healthcare professionals, and individualized management plans are essential for maintaining optimal blood lipid levels and reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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When the person is being fed through an intravenous central catheter, they are given _____________________ nutrition.
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Parenteral nutrition is used to treat patients who cannot eat or have limited digestive powers by providing a liquid mixture of nutrients directly to the bloodstream. Parenteral nutrition is delivered intravenously to a vein and includes protein, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, minerals, and any other nutrients required by the body.
Parenteral nutrition is different than enteral nutrition, which is the use of a feeding tube to provide nutrients directly to the stomach for digestion. Parenteral nutrition may be used if a feeding tube didn't work or if the patient suffers from conditions like Crohn's disease, cancer, short bowel syndrome, or ischemic bowel disease to list a few.
Which of the following lists the element of the heart's conduction system in the correct order? (A) SA node,AV bundle ,AV node, Bundle branches, conduction myofibers (B) SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Bundle branches, Conduction myofibers
Answers
The correct order of the elements in the heart's conduction system is SA node, AV node, AV bundle, Bundle branches, conduction myofibers. The correct option is B.
The heart's conduction system plays a vital role in synchronizing the electrical signals that control the rhythm of the heartbeat. The sequence of events starts with the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is often referred to as the natural pacemaker of the heart.
The SA node generates electrical impulses that initiate each heartbeat. From the SA node, the electrical signals travel to the atrioventricular (AV) node, which is located in the atrial septum. The AV node acts as a gateway, delaying the electrical impulse for a brief moment before allowing it to pass into the ventricles. The correct option is B
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A person receives Ty21a vaccine because he is traveling to a country in which typhoid fever is endemic. If he plans to continue this type of travel in the future, when is it recommended that he be revaccinated against typhoid fever
Answers
Answer:
in five (5) years
Explanation:
Typhoid fever is a disease caused by eating or drinking food or water contaminated with a bacteria called Salmonella typhi. Some symptoms of typhoid fever include high fever, abdominal pain, weakness, constipation and mild vomiting. The S. typhi Ty21a (Ty21a) vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine created by reducing the virulence of the pathogen, which is orally administrated. Revaccination with Ty21a is recommended after 5 years in the USA and 7 years in Canada after first vaccination, regardless of the risk of infection. However, the period of protection after Ty21a immunization still has not been well defined.
Why did they change to unleaded fuel for cars
Answers
which healthcare common procedural coding system (hcpcs) level ii codes are temporary codes for procedures, services, and supplies?
Answers
HCPCS Level II codes are temporary codes for procedures, services, and supplies that are not represented by CPT® codes.
HCPCS Level II codes are used primarily for the products, materials, and supplies and are released each year on January 1st. This coding system is widely used for Medicare and Medicaid billing and can be used in a variety of medical billing processes. Temporary codes used in this coding system are denoted by the letter "T" followed by four digits.
These temporary codes are also referred to as miscellaneous codes. Healthcare Common Procedural Coding System (HCPCS) Level II codes are used to identify products, supplies, and services that are not included in the Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) coding system. The HCPCS level II coding system includes codes for medical equipment and supplies, services, and procedures that are not included in the CPT coding system.
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What causes gum recession
Answers
Is this right?
Vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts ___________ times greater than the dri.
Answers
Base on some findings, it is discovered that vitamins a and d are unlikely to cause toxicities unless taken in amounts 5 to 10 times greater than the RDA.
What are vitamins?Vitamins are organic compounds that are gotten from plants which cannot be synthesized by the body but it is needed in small amount for body growth and wellness.
Vitamin A and D are fat soluble vitamins because they are soluble in organic solvent . The sources include potatoes, milk , spinach, cheese and so on. Vitamin A and D have low toxicities but if it is taken in large quantity greater than the daily requirement can be toxic to human health.
Therefore, fat soluble vitamin A and D can be toxic to human body if it is taken in large amount.
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How many milliliters (mL) are there in 2 tablespoons?
Answers
Answer:
29.57 mL
Explanation:
tablespoons milliliters
2 tbsp 29.57 mL
3 tbsp 44.36 mL
4 tbsp 59.15 mL
5 tbsp 73.93 mL
Between which two numbers is the quotient of 88 ÷ 5?
Answers
Tablet Strength at 0.13 mg. The patient has been prescribed a pension of 65 micrograms x 3. How long was a 50-table bottle enough for this. for dosing in theory?
Answers
The 50-tablet bottle would be enough for approximately 33 days of dosing on this regimen.
The patient has been prescribed a dose of 65 micrograms taken three times a day, which is a total daily dose of 65 x 3 = 195 micrograms.
Since each tablet has a strength of 0.13 mg, we need to convert the dose to milligrams before we can calculate how many tablets are needed.
195 micrograms = 0.195 milligrams
To calculate the number of tablets needed, we divide the total dose by the strength of each tablet:
Number of tablets = total dose/strength per tablet
Number of tablets = 0.195 mg / 0.13 mg per tablet
Number of tablets = 1.5 tablets per day
Since there are 50 tablets in a bottle, a bottle would last:
Days of supply = total tablets in bottles/tablets per day
Days of supply = 50 tablets / 1.5 tablets per day
Days of supply = 33.3 days (rounded down)
Therefore, a 50-tablet bottle would be enough for approximately 33 days of dosing on this regimen.
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When emptying a urinary bag its not alright to touch the drainage tube on the graduated cylinder: True or False
Answers
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The drainage tube should not come into contact with the container or whatever it is being emptied into.
You find a person at the bottom of the stairs. He appears to have fallen and seems badly hurt. After sending someone for help, you would:________
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A nurse is explaining prep to a patient. the nurse tells the patient that:
prep may reduce the risk of hiv infection up to 50%.
prep should be taken by anyone who injects illicit drugs.
prep eliminates the need to use other hiv prevention strategies.
prep is a prescription pill that contains two medications used to treat hiv.
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
prep may reduce the risk of hiv infection up to 50%.
The correct thing that the nurse is trying to explain to the patient is that PrEP may reduce the risk of HIV infection up to 50%.
What is PrEP?The term PrEP is an acronym for Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis. This is one of the most effective methods of HIV prevention.
Hence, the correct thing that the nurse is trying to explain to the patient is that PrEP may reduce the risk of HIV infection up to 50%.
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A 34 pound child with epilesy is prescribed tegretol (carbamazepine) 15 mg/kg/day, taken in four doses/ Tegretol suspension is 100 mg/5ml whats the vollume of one dose of medication?
Answers
Answer:
volume = 11.56ml
Explanation:
Composition of Tegretol Suspension = 100mg/5ml
This means that:
100mg = 5ml
1 mg = 5/100 ml
1 mg = 0.05ml
prescribed dosage = 15mg/kg/day
weight of child = 34 pounds
1 pound = 0.4535 kg
∴ 34 pounds = 0.4535 × 34 = 15.419 kg
∴ prescribed dose = 15mg/kg
1kg = 15mg
∴ 15.419kg = 15 × 15.419 = 231.285mg
composition = 100mg/5ml
100mg = 5ml
1 mg = 5/100 = 0.05ml
∴231.285mg = 0.05 × 231.285
= 11.56ml
When communicating with medical control via radio, you should:A) request confirmation for any orders given.B) use codes or signals to ensure patient privacy.C) carry out all verbal orders without question.D) avoid the use of complicated medical
Answers
When communicating with medical control via radio, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure effective and safe communication. One of the recommended practices is to request confirmation for any orders given.
When communicating with medical control via radio, it is crucial to maintain clear and accurate communication. Requesting confirmation for any orders given is essential because it allows for clarification and reduces the risk of errors. It ensures that both parties involved in the communication are on the same page and have a shared understanding of the instructions or directives. This practice promotes patient safety and reduces the likelihood of mistakes in providing appropriate medical interventions.
Additionally, using codes or signals to ensure patient privacy is important in radio communications. Medical information is highly sensitive, and maintaining patient confidentiality is a legal and ethical requirement. By using codes or signals, healthcare professionals can convey essential information without explicitly disclosing sensitive details. This helps to protect patient privacy and confidentiality, preventing unauthorized individuals from accessing or overhearing confidential medical information. Effective communication practices in radio communication with medical control contribute to providing optimal care while respecting patient privacy and confidentiality.
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things that can cause a miscarriage in the first 8 weeks
Answers
A miscarriage is the loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week of gestation. In the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, there are several factors that can contribute to a miscarriage, including:
Chromosomal abnormalities: About 50-70% of miscarriages in the first 8 weeks are caused by chromosomal abnormalities.
Hormonal imbalances: Problems with the hormones that regulate pregnancy, such as progesterone, can lead to a miscarriage.
Maternal health conditions: Conditions such as diabetes, thyroid problems, and autoimmune disorders can increase the risk of miscarriage.
Infections: Infections such as bacterial vaginosis, listeria, and toxoplasmosis can increase the risk of miscarriage.
Lifestyle factors: Smoking, drug use, and excessive alcohol consumption can increase the risk of miscarriage.
Physical trauma: Physical trauma, such as a fall or blow to the abdomen, can also increase the risk of miscarriage.
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10. Which statement is true about hydration?
A. Dehydration impacts the function of the brain and can make concentrating more difficult.
B. Dehydration can lead to an increase in energy levels and an improvement in mood.
C. Dehydration results when your body has too much fluid to function normally.
O D. Your body doesn't get fluid from foods you eat.
Answers
Answer: A is the answer,
Explanation:
I believe you meant to say "Which statement is true about Dehydration?"
Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by
a
unwarranted suspiciousness and mistrust of other people
b
unusual preoccupation with rules and schedules
c
instability revolving around problems of mood and thought processes
d
lack of interest in social relationships
Answers
1.what is the doctor of eyes called
2.what is the doctor of teeth called
3.what is the doctor of ears called
4.what is the doctor of heart called
5.what us the doctor of brain called
6.what does the doctor of kidney called
7.what does the doctor of pregnancy called
8.what does the doctor of bones called
9.what does the doctor of skin called
10.what does the doctor of animals called
Answers
Dentist
Otolaryngologist
Cardiologist
Neurologist
Urologist
obstetrician
Orthopedic surgeon
Dermatologist
Vet
Refer above picture for answers
A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. Identify how much drug will remain in the body after one half-life
Answers
A drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. after a half-life the body will have 400 mg.
What is the half-life of a drug?Half-life (t 1/2): is the time required for the amount of a substance to be reduced by half. More specifically, when dealing with drugs we say that the half-life is the time taken for the plasma concentration of a drug in the body to be reduced by half.
With this information, we can conclude that a drug dose that delivers 800 mg has a half-life of 5 hours. after a half-life the body will have 400 mg.
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