A snack bar sells two types of gronala bars. An apricot bar costs $0.80, and a cranberry bar costs $1.25. write an algebraic expression that represents the income the snack bar makes from selling gronala bars.​

Answer:

Recursive: \(x_n=2(x_{n-1})\)

Explicit: \(x_n=2(2)^{n-1}\)

Step-by-step explanation:

First, note that this is a geometric sequence. This is because each term is 2 times its previous term.

The standard recursive form for a geometric sequence is:

\(x_n=r(x_{n-1})\)

Where n is the nth term, so n-1 is the previous term, and r is the common ratio.

Substitute 2 for r.

Therefore, our recursive formula is:

\(x_n=2(x_{n-1})\)

The standard form of the explicit formula for geometric sequences is:

\(x_n=ar^{n-1}\)

Again, r is the common ratio and a is the initial term.

The common ratio is 2 and the initial term is 2. So, substitute:

\(x_n=2(2)^{n-1}\)

And that's our explicit formula.

And we're done!

The present value of this annuity is $1,516 (rounded to the nearest whole dollar).

The formula for determining an annuity's present value is as follows:

PV = PMT [(1 - (1 + r)(-n)) / r] in which:

PV is the present value PMT is the payment per period, r is the interest rate per period, and n is the number of periods. In this example, Marie will receive $300 per year for the next six years, with an annual interest rate of 5%.

PMT = $300, r = 5%, 0.05, n = 6, and we can use this formula  fto figure out the present value:

PV = $300 [(1 - (1 + 0.05)(-6)) / 0.05] PV = $300 [(1 - (1.05)(-6)) / 0.05] Let's figure out the value now:

The present value of this annuity is therefore $1,516 (rounded to the nearest whole dollar): PV = $300  [(1 - 0.74726) / 0.05] PV = $300  [0.25274 / 0.05] PV = $300  5.0548 PV = $1,516.44

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We can also think of this problem as f(x) + g(x). Therefore, all we need to do is add the two functions together.

x + 4 + 3x^2 - 8 || Write it out!

3x^2 + x + 4 - 8 || Rearrange in order of decreasing exponents. No need to combine and rearrange all at once!

3x^2 + x - 4 || Combine like terms!

Hope this helps!! :)

The price of the lot measuring 120' x 200', selling for $300 a front foot is $192,000.

To find out the price of a lot measuring 120' x 200', selling for $300 a front foot, you need to use the formula given below;

Price = Front Footage × Price per Front Foot

First, you need to calculate the front footage of the lot, which can be obtained by adding up the length of all the sides of the rectangular lot.

Front footage = 120 + 120 + 200 + 200

                       = 640 ft

Then you can find the price of the lot by multiplying the front footage by the price per front foot.

Price = 640 ft × $300/ft

        = $192000

Therefore, the price of the lot measuring 120' x 200', selling for $300 a front foot is $192,000.

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A: 75% of items are classified as C items, 18.75% as B items, and 6.25% as A items.

A-B-C examination is an instrument utilized for stock administration, which orders things into three classifications: A, B, and C, in light of their worth and significance. Classification A things have a high worth however a low volume, and their administration requires close consideration and control. Class B things have moderate worth and volume and require moderate control. Classification C things have a low worth yet a high volume, and their administration can be loose. The reason for the examination is to recognize which things need the most consideration and control, and which things can be dealt with less consideration and cost-actually. The examination assists in streamlining with reviewing levels, decreasing expenses, and expanding benefits.

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Answer:its right

Step-by-step explanation:Just remember inorder for a relationship to function  y dont repeat its eX

As the acute angles of a right triangle are complementary, the measures of angle C and angle DAC add up to 90 degrees.

Given that it has three sections and three corners, a triangle qualifies as a polygon. It corresponds to the fundamental geometric shapes. Triangle ABC is the term used to refer to a triangle only with vertices A, B, and C. Once the points are not collinear, a unique plane and triangular in Geometric forms are discovered. Triangles are polygon because they have three parts and three corners. The points where its three sides of the triangle converge are referred to as the triangle's corners. Three pyramid angles are multiplied ta yield 180 °.

given

Provided that segment AD is an altitude, AD in triangle ABC is perpendicular to hypotenuse BC.

Triangle DAC is a right triangle, as it should be. As the acute angles of a right triangle are complementary, the measures of angle C and angle DAC add up to 90 degrees.

The same holds true for angles C and CBA's measurements.

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In the line, the point B represents the integer -3, because it is 3 units left from 0.

Its opposite is the number 3, that is 3 units right from 0.

Answer:

The answer to the question provided is \( \frac{6}{7}\).

All of the listed random variables - z, t, chi-square, and F - have only nonnegative values. The z-distribution and t-distribution are created by transforming data so that it has a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1, while the chi-square distribution and F-distribution are formed by taking the sum of squared deviations or ratio of two chi-square distributions, respectively

The z-distribution is a normal distribution with a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1. Since the normal distribution can take any value on the real line, including negative values, a transformation is used to create the z-distribution so that it has only nonnegative values. Specifically, the transformation subtracts the mean from the original data and divides by the standard deviation

.The t-distribution is also a continuous probability distribution with only nonnegative values. It is used to test hypotheses about the mean of a population when the sample size is small or when the population variance is unknown. Like the z-distribution, the t-distribution is created by transforming the data so that it has a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1. However, in the case of the t-distribution, the standard deviation is estimated from the sample data.

The chi-square distribution is a non-negative continuous probability distribution that is used in hypothesis testing for variances and in goodness-of-fit tests. It is formed by taking the sum of squared deviations from the mean of a sample and dividing by the sample variance

The F-distribution is another non-negative continuous probability distribution that is used in hypothesis testing to compare variances. It is formed by taking the ratio of two chi-square distributions, each divided by their respective degrees of freedom.

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d!

john (y) is (2.5) times as big as his brother sam (x)

hope this helps

Answer:

The minimum unit cost is $12,197.

Explanation:

The cost function is given below:

To find the minimum unit cost, first, find the derivative of C(x).

Next, set the derivative equal to 0 and solve for x.

Finally, substitute x=260 into C(x) to find the minimum cost.

The minimum unit cost is $12,197.

Answer:

y=-1/4x+2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

add all the # and see what you get

The number of grains on square 59 will be 5.7646075230342 x 10^17grains.

No. of grains on the first square = 1 = 2^0

No. of grains on the second square = 2 = 1*2 = 2¹

No. of grains on the third square = 4 = 2*2 = 2²

No. of grains on the fourth square = 8 = 2*4 = 2³

From the pattern it could be seen that amount of wheat is doubled for every next square

So, the number of grains in the nth square = 2^n-1

Therefore, No. of grains on 59th square

= 2^59 -1 =

= 5.7646075230342 x 10^17

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Answer:

23

Step-by-step explanation:

the difference between each number in the sequence is 4. Taking 4 away from 27 gives you 23

Hope this helps!

Answer:

17.5

Step-by-step explanation:

90-27=73

4x+3 (reverse the equation)

4/70 - 3

x=17.5

Answer:

I think the initial amount borrowed would be $3,714.29

The expected net payoff E(m) is equal to m + 10.5 and the optimal value of m is 20.

To calculate the expected net payoff, we need to determine the probabilities of stopping at each value from 1 to 20 and calculate the corresponding payoff for each case.

Let's denote the expected net payoff as E(m), where m is the threshold value at which the gambler decides to stop.

(a) To calculate the expected net payoff E(m), we sum the probabilities of stopping at each value multiplied by the payoff for that value.

E(m) = (1/20) * m + (1/20) * (m + 1) + (1/20) * (m + 2) + ... + (1/20) * 20

Simplifying the equation:

E(m) = (1/20) * (m + (m + 1) + (m + 2) + ... + 20)

E(m) = (1/20) * (20 * m + (1 + 2 + ... + 20))

E(m) = (1/20) * (20 * m + (20 * (20 + 1)) / 2)

E(m) = (1/20) * (20 * m + 210)

E(m) = m + 10.5

Therefore, the expected net payoff E(m) is equal to m + 10.5.

(b) To find the optimal value of m, we need to maximize the expected net payoff E(m).

Since E(m) = m + 10.5, we can see that the expected net payoff is linearly increasing with m.

Therefore, the optimal value of m would be the maximum possible value, which is 20.

Hence, the optimal value of m is 20.

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51.21%  is the coefficient of determination.

What does coefficient of determination mean?

SST = SSE + SSR

Here, SSE = 100 and SSR = 105

SST = 100+105 = 205

Coefficient of determination , R^2 = 105/205  = 51.21%

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Let A be an mxn matrix, and let v and w be A(cv + dw) = Acv + Adw = c(Av) + d(Aw) = c(0) + d(0) = 0 + 0 = 0. In IRn with the property that Av = 0 and Aw = 0. We are to explain why A(v + w) must be the zero vector.

The sum of the vectors v and w is (v + w). The matrix-vector product between A and (v + w) can be found using matrix distribution properties.\(Av + Aw = 0 + 0 = 0, so A(v + w) = 0.\)

This is true because v and w were both mapped to the zero vector by A. Then explain why \(A(cv + dw) = 0\) for each pair of scalars c and d.

Now let’s consider the second part of the question. Let c and d be scalars. Then cv and dw are vectors in IRn.

The sum of these vectors is (cv + dw). The matrix-vector product between A and (cv + dw) can be found using matrix distribution properties. \(A(cv + dw) = Acv + Adw = c(Av) + d(Aw) = c(0) + d(0) = 0 + 0 = 0.\)

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To calculate the discharge through the circular channel, we can use Manning's equation, which relates the flow rate (Q) to the channel properties and flow conditions. Manning's equation is given by:

Q = (1/n) * A * R^(2/3) * S^(1/2)

where:

Q is the discharge (flow rate)

n is Manning's coefficient (0.014 in this case)

A is the cross-sectional area of the channel

R is the hydraulic radius of the channel

S is the slope of the channel bed

First, let's calculate the cross-sectional area (A) of the circular channel. The diameter of the channel is given as 6m, so the radius (r) is half of that, which is 3m. Therefore, the area can be calculated as:

A = π * r^2 = π * (3m)^2 = 9π m^2

Next, let's calculate the hydraulic radius (R) of the channel. For a circular channel, the hydraulic radius is equal to half of the diameter, which is:

R = r = 3m

Now, we can calculate the slope (S) of the channel bed. The given slope is 1 in 600, which means for every 600 units of horizontal distance, there is a 1-unit change in vertical distance. Therefore, the slope can be expressed as:

S = 1/600

Finally, we can substitute these values into Manning's equation to calculate the discharge (Q):

Q = (1/0.014) * (9π m^2) * (3m)^(2/3) * (1/600)^(1/2)

Using a calculator, the discharge can be evaluated to get the final result.

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Events M and N are independent events.

It means that the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of the other event.

The probability of events M and N both occurring is given by

Re-arranging for P(N), we get

Where

P(M and N) = 0.158

P(M) = 0.23

Therefore, the probability P(N) is 0.7

Answer:

0= 30

Step-by-step explanation:

-7(3x+5) +20=5)3-5x)+4x

-21x-35+20=5)3-5x)+4x

Add the numbers

-21x-35+20=5)3-5x)+4x

-21x-15=5)3-5x)+4x

Rearrange terms

-21x-15=5)3-5x)+4x

-21x-15=5(-5x+3)+4x

Distribute

-21x-15=-25x+15+4x

Combine like terms

-21x-15=-21x+15

Add 15 to both sides of the equation

-21x-15+15=-21x+15+15

Simplify

Add the numbers

-21x=-21x+30

add 21 to both sides of the equation

-21x+21x= 21x+30+21x

Simplify

combine like terms

0=30

The probability of making a Type I error is equal to 1 - 0.99 = 0.01, which is the same as the significance level.

To answer this question, we need to understand the concepts of statistical power and Type I error. Statistical power refers to the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. In other words, it is the ability of a statistical test to detect a true effect.

On the other hand, a Type I error occurs when we reject the null hypothesis even though it is true. This is also known as a false positive.

The investigator has indicated that the power of his test is 0.87 at a significance level of 1%. This means that if there is a true effect in the population, the test has an 87% chance of correctly detecting it. However, we are interested in the probability of making a Type I error, which is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true.

To calculate the probability of making a Type I error, we need to use the complement of the significance level, which is 1 - 0.01 = 0.99. This represents the probability of not rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true. Therefore, the probability of making a Type I error is equal to 1 - 0.99 = 0.01, which is the same as the significance level.

In this case, the investigator has used a significance level of 1%, which means that there is a 1% chance of making a Type I error. This is a relatively low probability, which indicates that the investigator is being cautious in rejecting the null hypothesis.

However, it is important to note that the probability of making a Type I error depends on the significance level, the sample size, and the effect size. Therefore, it is important to consider these factors when interpreting the results of a statistical test.

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