Answers
To have full confidence in the research results, conduct three studies done the same way, each with 1,000 people.
What is a research?Research is careful investigation of a problem and study of relevant materials in order to establish new concepts and reach conclusion.Research can be of 3 types: descriptive, exploratory and casual.A research process consists of following steps: Identification of problem, formulating hypothesis, literature review, research design, experimentation, results and conclusion.The main aim of research is to improve lifestyle, prevent diseases by enhancing knowledge through different concepts and ideas.When a new drug is introduced in the market, several research trials are conducted to see the effectiveness of the drug in curing a disease and to check for any side effects.Learn more about research here:
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Related Questions
A client complains of vertigo. The nurse anticipates that the client may have a problem with which portion of the ear?
a. External ear
b. Middle ear
c. Inner ear
d. Tympanic membrane
Answers
The nurse anticipates that the client may have a problem with the inner ear (c). The correct option is C.
Vertigo is often associated with issues related to the inner ear, specifically the balance and vestibular system.
The inner ear contains structures such as the semicircular canals and the vestibular nerve, which play a crucial role in maintaining balance and detecting changes in head position and movement.
Problems in the inner ear, such as infections, inflammation, or disorders affecting these structures, can result in symptoms of vertigo, which is characterized by a spinning or dizzy sensation.
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A nurse concludes that a client has a hypoglycemic reaction to insulin. Which clinical findings support this conclusion? (Select all that apply.)
1.Irritability
2.Glycosuria
3.Dry, hot skin
4.Heart palpitations
5.Fruity odor of breath
Answers
The clinical findings that support the conclusion of a hypoglycemic reaction to insulin include: The correct clinical findings supporting the conclusion of a hypoglycemic reaction to insulin are irritability and heart palpitations.
Irritability: Hypoglycemia can lead to changes in mood and behavior, including irritability. Heart palpitations: Hypoglycemia can cause an increase in heart rate and palpitations as a result of the body's compensatory response to low blood sugar. However, the following findings are not typically associated with hypoglycemia: Glycosuria: Glycosuria refers to the presence of glucose in the urine, which is more commonly seen in hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) rather than hypoglycemia.
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The nurse has just received report on 4 clients. Which client should the nurse see first? O 1 Client 2 days post hip replacement who is reporting intense itching at the incision site 2. Client receiving normal saline IV at 250 ml/hr who is reporting puffy legs and a new cough 3. Client who is becoming increasingly angry due to a 2-hour delay in being discharged 04. Client with a potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L (5.0 mmol/L) receiving NS with 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L) potassium chlorid - > End Suspend FI
Answers
The nurse should see first the Client receiving normal saline IV at 250 ml/hr who is reporting puffy legs and a new cough. The correct option is 2 client.
Who is a nurse?A nurse is someone who has completed a basic, generalized nursing education program and is licensed to practice nursing in their country by the appropriate regulatory authority.
Nurse take care of the medicines of the patient, he/she take care of the patient's mental health, and his checkups and needs.
Thus, the correct option is 2 client.
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How often does the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry recommend that radiographic imaging be performed for children at high risk for tooth decay
Answers
According to the American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD), radiographic imaging should be performed for children at high risk for tooth decay every 6 to 12 months. This recommendation is based on individualized assessments of each child's dental health needs, taking into account factors such as their age, dental history, risk factors for tooth decay, and overall oral health. The AAPD also emphasizes the importance of using the lowest possible radiation exposure for radiographic imaging, as well as following appropriate safety guidelines and protocols to minimize risks to children.
The American Academy of Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD) recommends that radiographic imaging be performed for children at high risk for tooth decay on an individualized basis, based on their specific risk factors and clinical presentation.
This means that there is no set frequency or timeline for radiographic imaging in these children. Rather, dental professionals should assess each child's risk factors, such as previous decay experience, oral hygiene habits, diet, and other factors, and use their clinical judgment to determine if and when radiographs are necessary.
The AAPD's guidelines stress the importance of personalized care and risk assessment, and recommend that dental professionals consider a variety of factors when making decisions about radiographic imaging in children at high risk for tooth decay.
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Critical thinking and problem solving
Answers
Answer:
Is this a question or a statement? Please clarify.
Explanation:
A 45-year-old female (weight 70 kg, height 168 cm) requires erythromycin IV for severe community-acquired pneumonia. Her recent serum creatinine is 130 micromol/L, stable. The dose is 12.5 mg/kg every 6 hours. Erythromcycin powder for injection is dissolved 1 g in 20 mL water for injection, then diluted to a concentration of 1 to 5 mg/mL for intermittent infusion in sodium chloride 0.9% over 20–60 minutes.
Which of the following statements are true?
More than one answer is correct. You need to select all correct answers to pass this question.
A.Ideal body weight is 58.1 kg
B.Using ideal body weight, estimated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft and Gault formula is approximately 44 mL/min
C.Correct dose could be stated as 3000 mg in 24 hours, divided into 4 doses
D.If a single correct dose is dissolved in 20 ml water for injection then diluted to a concentration of 1 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 750 mL
E.If a single correct dose is dissolved in 20 mL water for injection then diluted to a concentration of 5 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 175 mL
Answers
The true options are Ideal body weight is 58.1 kg, using ideal body weight, estimated creatinine clearance using the Cockcroft and Gault formula is approximately 44 mL/min. The correct options are A, B, C, and E.
What is infusion?Infusion is basically the method of putting fluids, including drugs, into the bloodstream.
Ideal body weight (IBW) for this patient can be calculated using the following formula:
IBW (kg) = 45.5 + 2.3 (height in inches - 60) = 45.5 + 2.3 (66.1 - 60) = 58.1 kg
Estimated creatinine clearance (CrCl) using the Cockcroft and Gault formula can be calculated as follows:
CrCl (mL/min) = [(140 - age) x weight (kg)] / (72 x serum creatinine (mg/dL))
CrCl = [(140 - 45) x 70] / (72 x 130/88.4) = 44 mL/min
The correct dose of erythromycin is 12.5 mg/kg every 6 hours. For a 70 kg patient, the total daily dose would be:
12.5 mg/kg x 70 kg = 875 mg every 6 hours
Total daily dose = 875 mg x 4 = 3500 mg
To adjust for renal impairment, the dose should be decreased. In this case, no adjustment is necessary since the serum creatinine is stable.
If a single correct dose of 12.5 mg/kg is 875 mg for this patient. If this dose is dissolved in 20 ml water for injection and then diluted to a concentration of 1 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 875 mL, not 750 mL.
If a single correct dose of 12.5 mg/kg is 875 mg for this patient. If this dose is dissolved in 20 mL water for injection and then diluted to a concentration of 5 mg/mL, the volume of the infusion will be 175 mL, which is correct.
Thus, the correct options are A, B, C, and E.
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Notes on the 3 types of Mortis:
Answers
Answer:
The three stages of decomposition are livor mortis, algor mortis, and rigor mortis.
The first, livor mortis, means ''discoloration of death''. What this means is that once someone dies, the blood starts draining from the extremities down to the area that's on the ground. For example, a body lying on its back is going to be pale on the chest and face, while dark on the back and buttocks.
The second, algor mortis, means ''coldness of death''. This is where the body starts to cool down in temperature and this stage lasts for a few hours. However, it does not start till 30 minutes to an hour after death.
The third, rigor mortis, means ''stiffness of death''. This is where the body muscles will contract and make a body stiff, which starts a few hours after the death and can continue up to 24 hours.
if a nursing assistant sees a resident who is not on his assignment sheet but who needs help, what should the NA do?
Answers
Answer:
An NA will receive assignments to perform tasks, care, and other duties for specific residents. If the NA sees a resident who needs helps even if the resident is not on their assigned sheet, the NA should provide the care.
Explanation:
Sorry if it does not explain that well.. I got this from Google... But at least I tryed.
The nursing assistant must give the needed care to them even if the resident is not being assigned in her area or assignment sheet.
Who is a nursing assistant?The person who assists with nursing duties in patient care including help with grooming, bathing, feeding, and activities of daily life is referred to as a nursing assistant.
As in the given scenario, the nursing assistant should give the needed care to them even if that resident is not being assigned in her area or assignment sheet.
Thus, this can be the way of treating the needy even in case where resident is not being assigned in her area or assignment sheet.
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referencing icd-10-cm guideline i.a.13, when using a code from category d63 it is also necessary to code first:
Answers
According to ICD-10-CM guideline i.a.13, when using a code from category D63, it is also necessary to code first the underlying cause of the anemia if known and applicable.
This means that when coding for anemia, it is important to identify the underlying condition that is causing the anemia and code it first, before coding for the anemia itself. This helps to provide a more accurate and complete picture of the patient's condition and can aid in appropriate treatment and management.
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Question 1
2 pts
You are allowed into the classroom only if you have antibodies for the virus. Choose all statements that are logically equivalent to the above statement. [More than one of the choices may qualify.]
✔You do not have antibodies for the virus, and you are not allowed into the classroom.
Having antibodies for the virus is a necessary but not necessarily sufficient condition for being allowed into the classroom.
✔If you are allowed into the classroom, then you have antibodies for the virus.
The following statement is not true: You are allowed into the classroom, and you do not have antibodies for the virus.
Next ▸
Answers
The statement is logically equivalent to the following statements:
1. You do not have antibodies for the virus, and you are not allowed into the classroom.
2. If you are allowed into the classroom, then you have antibodies for the virus.
3. The following statement is not true: You are allowed into the classroom, and you do not have antibodies for the virus.
The main answer consists of three statements that are logically equivalent to the given statement. Let's break down each statement to understand their logical equivalence.
Statement 1: "You do not have antibodies for the virus, and you are not allowed into the classroom."
This statement reflects the same condition as the original statement. It states that if a person does not have antibodies for the virus, they will not be allowed into the classroom. It directly correlates with the given condition, making it a logically equivalent statement.
Statement 2: "If you are allowed into the classroom, then you have antibodies for the virus."
This statement reverses the condition of the original statement. It asserts that if a person is allowed into the classroom, it implies that they must have antibodies for the virus. This reversal still maintains the logical equivalence because it establishes a direct relationship between being allowed into the classroom and having antibodies.
Statement 3: "The following statement is not true: You are allowed into the classroom, and you do not have antibodies for the virus."
This statement employs negation to establish logical equivalence. It states that the combination of being allowed into the classroom and not having antibodies for the virus is false. In other words, if a person is allowed into the classroom, it means they must have antibodies for the virus. This negation aligns with the original statement and represents the same condition.
In summary, all three statements are logically equivalent to the given statement because they express the same condition in different forms, either directly or through negation.
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If you want to become a medical doctor, you can attend medical school in place of
attaining a four-year college degree.
A) False
B) True
Answers
Answer:
True and that's on Grey's Anatomy :)
Explanation:
The Answer is :
True
: )
the nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child. the child tells the nurse about her friend, nancy, who lives in her room at home. the mother tells the nurse that nancy is not a real person. the nurse would use which term when documenting this assessment finding?
Answers
Answer:
Imaginary friend
which of the following would be inappropriate for a guest experiencing a heat emergency
Answers
During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is most consistent with a:
Answers
Shotguns are the most likely source of this wound pattern.
What is a patient assessment composed of?Through observation, the measurement of vital signs, and self-reported symptoms, a comprehensive health assessment provides nurses with knowledge about a patient's physical condition. It includes a thorough physical examination, a general survey, and a medical history.
What are the four steps in assessing a patient?emergency call; assessing scene safety; adopting BSI measures; documenting the mechanism of injury or patient's sickness; figuring out the number of patients; and evaluating what, if any, extra services, such as Advanced Life Support, are required.
What function does patient assessment serve?Nurses may objectively identify each patient's specific requirements and concerns through assessments, as well as any potential treatment barriers that might effect compliance and results.
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acupuncture is better or conventional medicine?why?
Answers
Answer:
"The superiority of both forms of acupuncture suggests a common underlying mechanism that may act on pain generation, transmission of pain signals or processing of pain signals by the central nervous system and that is stronger than the action mechanism of conventional therapy," the authors conclude
Explanation:
hope it helps
Which of the following has been proven effective as a treatment for the disease indicated?
O A. Tonsillectomy for strep throat
O B. Bone marrow transplant for breast cancer
O C. Bleeding for rheumatic fever
O D. Penicillin for syphilis
Answers
Both B and C are incorrect and A is preventative and therefore does not cure an active infection.
a 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. she is conscious and alert, but anxious. her blood pressure is 144/84 mm hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. she took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. you should: a. recall that geriatric patients often take multiple medications and that interactions can occur with potentially negative effects. b. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. c. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. d. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions.
Answers
You should keep in mind that older people frequently have slower absorption and excretion rates, which may call for adjusting a drug's dosage. Therefore, choice A is the right response.
Because they may be dealing with many illnesses or other health issues concurrently, adults 65 and older typically take more medications than adults in any other age group. For people who are confined to their homes or reside in remote places, managing various prescriptions can be costly, time-consuming, and challenging.
The existence of a concomitant condition, which is typical in the elderly, can also impact renal function. Older patients may need lower or less frequent dosages due to reduced medication clearance caused by decreased renal function.
We can therefore draw the conclusion that You should be aware of the fact that older individuals typically have slower rates of absorption and excretion, which may necessitate changing a drug's dosage.
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Berry good Eating blueberries and strawberries might improve heart health, according to a long-term study of 93,600 women who volunteered to take part. These berries are high in anthocyanins due to their pigment. Women who reported consuming the most anthocyanins had a significantly smaller risk of heart attack compared to the women who reported consuming the least. What conclusion can we draw from this study
Answers
Answer:
A significant study links berry consumption with improved heart health. You can't get the same benefit from a pill or supplement. You won't need a spoonful of sugar to help this medicine go down: eating more blueberries and strawberries may be a tasty way to protect your heart.
Explanation:
We can conclude that eating blueberries and strawberries will improve the condition of the heart as a result of the presence of anthocyanins present in them.
Anthocyanins are found in fruits such as strawberries and blueberries as a result of their pigment. However, a research study was done which shows that the consumption of anthocyanins help to improve the heart condition.
These findings however means that in order to have a healthier heart, it is advisable to eat food which is rich in anthocyanins and examples include strawberries and blueberries.
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Distinguish key differences in morphology, function, and behavior between pre-Homo hominins and hominins in the genus Homo.
Compare and contrast key differences in morphology, function, and behavior among species in the genus Homo.
Answers
The differences in morphology, function, and behavior between pre-Homo hominins and hominins in the genus Homo highlight the evolutionary advancements that occurred within the lineage, including increased brain size, refined bipedalism, tool-making abilities, and sophisticated social behaviors.
Pre-Homo hominins, such as Australopithecus afarensis (e.g., "Lucy"), had distinctive morphological features. They possessed a smaller brain size, with a cranial capacity ranging from 400 to 550 cc, compared to later Homo species. Their skeletal structure exhibited ape-like characteristics, including a prognathic face, large canine teeth, and a prominent brow ridge. Functionally, they were primarily bipedal but likely spent significant time in trees. Their behavior was likely characterized by arboreal adaptations and an omnivorous diet.
Hominins in the genus Homo, like Homo erectus and Homo neanderthalensis, displayed significant morphological advancements. They had larger cranial capacities, ranging from 800 to 1500 cc, reflecting increased brain size and complexity. Their skeletal structure showed a reduced face and jaw, smaller teeth, and a more prominent forehead. Functionally, Homo species had refined bipedalism, allowing for efficient long-distance walking and running. They also exhibited complex tool-making and advanced cognitive abilities.
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A repetitive dive is any dive:_____.
a. Made within 24 hours of a previous dive.
b. Made within 48 hours of a previous dive.
c. In which your computer indicates there is residual nitrogen left in your system from a prior dive.
d. Both the first and third answers are correct.
Answers
Repetitive dive is any dive that you make before you have completely off gassed from any previous dive or dives.
What is repetitive dive?This is any dive that you make before you have completely off gassed from any previous dive or dives. Residual Nitrogen Time (RNT) This is the amount of time you must consider as already having been spent at a given depth for a planned repetitive dive.
How do you calculate repetitive dive?To calculate this figure, you add your residual nitrogen time to your actual dive time.
Repetitive dive is any dive that you make before you have completely off gassed from any previous dive or dives.
Hence , C is correct option
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"Knowing how to do something is important but behaving professionally while practicing is essential." What does this means to you as it relates to their future career choices?
Answers
Why is anaphylaxis dangerous?
A
The immune system stops working, leaving a person open to infection.
B
The histamine released during anaphylaxis depletes the person's energy levels.
n
The inflammation and smooth muscle contraction can make breathing difficult.
D
The lymphatic system collapses during anaphylaxis.
Answers
On your answer sheet, Write True If the statement is correct and False If it is not correct.
16.The circulatory system is composed of in nerve cells and spinal cord
17.Leucocytes plays vital role in the body's immune system
18.Carbon dioxide is the gas given off during exhalation
19.Cell body maintains the health of a neuron.
20.Brain is the main organ of the respiratory system
Answers
Answer:
16.The circulatory system is composed of in nerve cells and spinal cord: TRUE
17.Leucocytes plays vital role in the body's immune system: true
19.Cell body maintains the health of a neuron.: false
20.Brain is the main organ of the respiratory system
true
Explanation:
Diagram of how insulin can help treat diabetes
Answers
I have attached the diagram below. I hope this helps you!
plzz help asap.......
Answers
Answer:
Lateral
Explanation:
hope you pass the test
MRI systems are generally _____ times stronger than a refrigerator magnet.
Answers
MRI systems are generally thousands of times stronger than a refrigerator magnet.
The strength of an MRI magnet is measured in Tesla, which is a unit of magnetic field strength. A typical refrigerator magnet has a strength of about 0.01 Tesla, whereas an MRI magnet can have a strength of 1.5 to 3 Tesla or even higher. This means that an MRI magnet is typically several hundred to several thousand times stronger than a refrigerator magnet.
The strength of an MRI magnet is important because it affects the quality of the images that are produced. The stronger the magnet, the more detailed the images can be. This is because the strength of the magnet determines how much the protons in the body are affected by the magnetic field.
When a person is placed inside an MRI scanner, the protons in their body align with the magnetic field of the magnet. When a radio wave is then applied to the body, the protons absorb the energy and emit a signal, which is used to create the image.
MRI systems are used in a variety of medical applications, including the diagnosis of cancer, brain and spinal cord injuries, and joint problems. They are also used in research to study the structure and function of the body. The strength of the magnet is an important factor in determining the usefulness of an MRI system for a particular application.
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Which is an indication that a person might be choking?; Why do AED pads need to be placed one inch away from jewelry or pacemakers ?; What medical issues require medical specialists?; Which is the correct order of events that occur during conception ?
Answers
When someone clutches their chest or neck and is unable to talk, breathe, or cough, this is an indication that a person might be choking.
Choking happens whenever something becomes partially or totally stuck in the airway, preventing life-giving oxygen from entering the lungs and brain, two critical systems in the body. When air is unable to reach the lungs through the trachea or the windpipe, a person is unable to breathe normally and becomes distressed.
The answers to the other questions are as follows:
The reason why the AED pads have to be positioned one inch away from jewelry or pacemakers is that the metals will heat up and may cause skin burns if the AED is positioned closer.A specific systemic disease or health issue requires the use of medical specialists. For illustration, cardiac abnormalities must be addressed by a cardiologist, whereas seizure disorders would require the medical care of a neurologist, not a cardiologist.The correct order of events occurring during conception is ovulation - fertilization - zygote formation - implantation.Learn more about choking here: brainly.com/question/4595529
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Which abbreviation is related to inflammation of multiple joints that results in crippling deformities
Answers
Answer:
RA (Rheumatoid arthritis)
Explanation:
state five reason why hand tools should be properly maintained
Answers
regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must:
Answers
Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must be stored safely and securely to ensure the safety of the patients, crew members, and other individuals who may be in or near the ambulance.
In particular, the following guidelines must be followed:
Cylinders must be properly secured: Oxygen cylinders must be securely fastened or strapped in place to prevent them from moving around or falling over during transport.
Cylinders must be protected from damage: Cylinders must be protected from damage that could cause a leak or rupture, such as from collisions or other types of impact.
Cylinders must be kept away from sources of heat or flames: Oxygen cylinders must be kept away from any sources of heat or flames, such as heaters, stoves, or cigarettes. Oxygen can support combustion, and a leak could cause a fire or explosion.
Cylinders must be kept in a well-ventilated area: Oxygen cylinders must be stored in a well-ventilated area to prevent the buildup of oxygen in the air. Oxygen levels above 21% can increase the risk of fire and explosion.
Cylinders must be checked regularly: Cylinders must be checked regularly for signs of damage or leaks, and they must be replaced or repaired as needed. Additionally, the pressure gauges on the cylinders must be checked before each use to ensure that there is an adequate supply of oxygen for the patient.
Overall, it is important to handle and store oxygen cylinders with care to prevent accidents and ensure that they are available for use when needed in emergencies.
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Oxygen cylinders in an ambulance must be securely stored, easily accessible, and away from extreme heat.
Explanation:Regardless of where oxygen cylinders, portable or mounted, are stored in an ambulance, they must always be secured and safely stored to prevent potential injury or mishaps. Firstly, they need to be easily accessible and always within reach for emergency situations. Secondly, they must be placed in a way that, in case of a vehicle accident or abrupt stop, the cylinders do not become projectiles that can cause harm to those in the ambulance. Thirdly, maintaining a consistent temperature and avoiding extreme heat is vital, as high temperatures can lead to an explosion. Lastly, it is important to regularly inspect and maintain them to ensure they function properly when needed.
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