A preprocessor directive starts with what character or characters?.

Answers

Answer 1

A preprocessor biological directive starts with a pound sign (#). The preprocessor directive in C and C++ languages is initiated with a pound sign (#), which distinguishes it from other program statements.

In programming, a preprocessor directive is a directive that is used by a preprocessor to transform the source code before it is compiled. It begins with the # symbol and is a form of metadata for the preprocessor. These directives are employed by a preprocessor to execute certain tasks before the code is compiled. The preprocessor directive in C and C++ languages is initiated with a pound sign (#), which distinguishes it from other program statements.

Preprocessor directives are commands that instruct the preprocessor to perform specific operations on the code before it is compiled. These directives are used to define macros, include files, and execute other preprocessor-specific operations in the code. They are used to give instructions to the compiler on how to execute the code.

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Related Questions

Which of the following lists the levels of organizational hierarchy from most complex to least complex?

Answers

Answer:

Hope it helps :): -Biosphere, community, organism

1) The chart indicates the digestion and nutrient absorption for two different species of animals.
Which of these describes the interaction between the food intake and nutrient absorption for these two different species?
A) Carnivores have a more efficient intestinal absorption since meat is higher in caloric value.
B) Carnivores have more digestive organs over which food digestion and nutrient absorption can occur.
Herbivores require a shorter digestion time with a higher amount of nutrient absorption into the bloodstream.
D) Herbivores have a greater intestinal length that allows for increased absorption of nutrients from a plant-based diet.

Answers

Herbivores having a greater intestinal length that allows for increased absorption of nutrients from a plant-based diet best describes the chart.

What are Herbivores?

These are organisms which feed on plants and are referred to as primary consumers.

They possess four stomachs and a greater intestinal length that allows for increased absorption of nutrients from plant diet which contains polysaccharides such as cellulose.

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The variable that is measured to obtain the results of an investigation is called a? ANSWER FAST PLEASE

Answers

The answer is a variable is what is measured or manipulated in an experiment. A dependent variable is what you measure in the experiment and what is affected during the experiment.

Your mom and dad each gave you 23. They make you, you and me, me. – What is it?

Answers

23 x 4
The answer would be 92

Answer:

92

Explanation:

23 * 4 = 92

hope this helped

What are the links between the environment and Covid-19? Choose all correct answers.
A. with the destruction of ecosystems the natural barriers between host animals is reduced
B. We destroy ecosytems creating channels for viruses to pass to humans
C. a decrease in human population is decreasing resource use including wild animals
D. destruction of biodiversity
E. an increase in forest ecosystems
F. deforestation

Answers

The correct answers that describe the links between the environment and Covid-19 are options A. With the destruction of ecosystems, the natural barriers between host animals are reduced, B. We destroy ecosystems, creating channels for viruses to pass to humans, D. Destruction of biodiversity, F. Deforestation.

With the destruction of ecosystems, the natural barriers between host animals are reduced: The destruction of ecosystems, such as deforestation or habitat loss, can lead to increased contact between humans and wildlife. This close proximity increases the chances of zoonotic diseases, like Covid-19, transferring from animals to humans.

We destroy ecosystems, creating channels for viruses to pass to humans: Human activities that involve destroying natural habitats, encroaching upon wildlife, or engaging in the illegal wildlife trade create opportunities for viruses to jump species barriers and infect humans. Encroachment into natural areas can disrupt the balance of ecosystems, bringing humans in contact with new pathogens.

Destruction of biodiversity: Biodiversity plays a crucial role in maintaining healthy ecosystems and acting as a buffer against disease outbreaks. When biodiversity is reduced, ecosystems become more vulnerable, and the spread of diseases can be intensified.

Deforestation: Deforestation, the clearing of forests at a large scale, can disrupt ecosystems, displace wildlife, and increase the likelihood of contact between humans and potential disease-carrying animals. It can also lead to changes in local climate patterns, which may indirectly influence the spread of diseases.

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1.Apply Select a region of the world and explain

how its latitude, elevation, geographical features,

and relationship to winds and ocean currents

determine its climate.

Answers

Southeast Asia is located near the equator, which means it receives high levels of solar radiation year-round. This leads to high temperatures and humidity in the region, with an average temperature of 27°C. However, the region's climate is also influenced by its elevation. The highlands of Southeast Asia, such as the mountains in Vietnam and Laos, are cooler and experience more temperate climates due to their altitude.

Geographical features also play a significant role in determining Southeast Asia's climate. The region is characterized by its dense tropical rainforests, which receive high levels of rainfall. The rainforests act as a "green lung," absorbing carbon dioxide and producing oxygen, but also contribute to the region's high humidity levels. Additionally, Southeast Asia is home to many coastal areas, which are vulnerable to typhoons and monsoons due to their proximity to the ocean.

The region's relationship to winds and ocean currents is also important in shaping its climate. The Asian monsoon is a large-scale weather pattern that affects much of Southeast Asia, bringing heavy rains from May to October. This pattern is influenced by the region's proximity to the Indian Ocean, which produces warm and moist air that rises over the landmass. In contrast, the northeast monsoon, which occurs from November to March, brings cooler and drier air from China.

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the net gain of h to the body in a day can be estimated by summing ______.

Answers

The net gain of hydrogen (H) to the body in a day can be estimated by summing various sources such as dietary intake, metabolic production, and any other external factors that contribute to the overall hydrogen balance.

Hydrogen is an essential element for various biological processes in the body. The net gain of hydrogen refers to the overall amount of hydrogen acquired by the body within a specific timeframe, typically a day. This estimation involves considering different sources that contribute to the hydrogen balance. One significant source of hydrogen is dietary intake. Hydrogen is obtained through the consumption of foods and beverages that contain hydrogen atoms, such as water and certain organic compounds. Additionally, metabolic processes within the body can generate hydrogen as a byproduct, such as during the breakdown of carbohydrates or fats.

To estimate the net gain of hydrogen, these sources are summed together, taking into account the amount of hydrogen obtained from the diet and the amount produced through metabolic processes. Other external factors, such as medical interventions or hydrogen-rich environments, may also contribute to the net gain of hydrogen in the body. Therefore, by considering the sum of dietary intake, metabolic production, and other relevant factors, an estimation of the net gain of hydrogen to the body in a day can be determined.

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Identify which type of reaction the feature occurs in.
light-dependent reactions
light-independent reactions
please help

Answers

Light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid membrane of chloroplasts.

Light independent reactions occur in the stroma of the chloroplasts.

Hope this helps!

which process comes first throughout protein synthesis?

Answers

transcription is the process that comes first throughout protein synthesis. it occur in the nucleus. during the process DNA is copied to mRNA.

The method through which cells produce proteins is called protein synthesis. Transcription and translation are the two steps that take place. The conversion of DNA's genetic code into mRNA in the nucleus is known as transcription. Initiation, elongation, and termination are the three processes that make up this process. A ribosome in the cytoplasm receives the instructions from the processed mRNA after it has been processed. The ribosome, made up of proteins and rRNA, is where translation takes place. The tRNA transports the appropriate sequence of amino acids to the ribosome after reading the instructions in the mRNA during translation. In order to create a polypeptide chain, rRNA then assists in the formation of linkages between the amino acids. The completed protein may be created by further processing a polypeptide chain after it has been created.

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A DNA segment has base order AGC TTA TCG. Which copy exhibits a frame shift mutation through deletion? ( 1 point)

Answers

Answer:

This question lacks options, the options are:

a. AGC TCG

b. AGC TTA TAG

c. TTA TCG

d. AGC TTT CG

The answer is D.

Explanation:

A frameshift mutation is a type of mutation in which the order at which the sequence is read becomes altered. In other words, a mutation is said to be "FRAME SHIFT" if it alters the order of reading the sequence. Frameshift mutation is caused by either insertion or deletion mutation i.e indel

According to this question, a DNA segment has base order: AGC TTA TCG. Deletion mutation will cause one or more nucleotide to be removed, hence, affecting the order of reading the sequence (reading frame). For example, in AGC TTT CG, nucleotide base A has been removed via deletion mutation, causing the reading sequence to shift.

The copy that will exhibit a frameshift mutation through deletion is D. AGC TTT CG.

It should be noted that a frameshift mutation refers to a form of mutation where the order at which the sequence is read becomes altered. Frameshift mutation is caused by either insertion or deletion mutation.

From the information given, a DNA segment has a base order AGC TTA TCG. It should be realized that the deletion mutation will result in one or more nucleotides being removed, thereby, affecting the order of reading the sequence. Therefore, through deletion, this will result in AGC TTT CG.

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Please help worth 25 points and time sensitive!!!!!!! TYIA

Please help worth 25 points and time sensitive!!!!!!! TYIA

Answers

Answer:

I'm not sure but I think it is parasitic

Answer:

Parasitic!

Explanation:

its parasitic because its on another living organism (the ant) and it damages it and lives off of it

hope this helped :)

which data would not affect maximum likelihood estimates of phylogenies when comparing different tree hypotheses? a. the tree topology b. the lengths of the branches c. the branching order of the tree d. nucleotide substitution rate e. all of these are important for finding the most likely tree

Answers

(E) all of these are important for finding the most likely tree is the correct option as all the given data would not affect maximum likelihood estimates of phylogenies when comparing different tree hypotheses.

Reading a family tree is similar to understanding a phylogeny. The original lineage is represented by the tree's root, while its offspring are shown by the branches' tips. You advance through time as you move from the root to the tips.

When comparing various tree hypotheses, the tree topology, branch lengths, branching order, and nucleotide substitution rate are the data that would not have an impact on the maximum likelihood estimations of phylogenies.

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. You are an ecologist collecting data about the declining growth rate of thecritically endangered Philippine eagle. The eagles’ only known population isestimated to have about 350 – 650 individuals. Which of the following can youassume is zero?A. natalityB. mortalityC. immigration

Answers

According to the given data, the population of the critically endangered Philippine eagle is about 350-650 individuals. This means that there is no immigration of the eagle species taking place.

Immigration takes place when a species sets up a home in a habitat because that habitat is suitable for it. In this situation, no immigration is taking place whi the population of species is very low.

Therefore, the correct answer is option c. immigration.

what is the highlighted number ?

what is the highlighted number ?

Answers

Answer:

I think it is the atomic mass, or the atomic weight.

Explanation:

The number above the symbol is the atomic mass (or atomic weight). This is the total number of protons and neutrons in an atom.  The number below the symbol is the atomic number and this reflects the number of protons in the nucleus of each element's atom.

(I'm so sorry if I'm wrong)

Hope this Helps!

fertilization is the defining feature of
the stages of mitosis,
Sexual Reproduction,
metaphase i and ii,
telophase i and ii

Answers

Answer:sexual reproduction

Explanation:

Answer:

b. sexual reproduction

and the next one is

a and d

Explanation:

30 points!! imagine you are investigating how camouflage helps an animal to survive. Write out the following components of the experiment.


a) Purpose:


b) Hypothesis:


c) Prediction


d) Describe the basic procedure you would use:


e) How will you collect your data?f) What results would you expect to see from this experiment?

Answers

The number of uncamouflaged animals will be far less than that of the camouflaged animals at the end of the experiment.

What is an experiment?

An experiment is a detailed study that tends to identify cause and effect relationship.

The hypothesis in this experiment is that camouflage helps animals to survive in their habitat. The predication is that animals that are camouflaged are able to escape predation owing to the camouflage.

The best test procedure is to observe animals that are camouflaged and those that are not camouflaged in the wild for a  period of about three months. Observe whether the number of uncamouflaged animals decreased more than that of the camouflaged animals after three months.

At the end of the experiment, it is expected that the number of uncamouflaged animals will decrease far more than the number of camouflaged animals.

The data will be collected using an unmaned drone over the area of study.

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How do researchers prepare an intron-free copy of a eukaryotic gene for use in creating transgenic bacteria?

Answers

The researchers prepare an intron-free copy of the eukaryotic gene for the use in creating the transgenic bacteria by using the reverse transcriptase to make the cDNA from the mature mRNA

The structure of the eukaryotic genes. Most of the eukaryotic genes are contain the segments of the coding sequences (exons) that interrupted by the noncoding sequences (introns). Both the exons and the introns are transcribed to yield a long and primary RNA transcript.

Eukaryotic DNA is the linear, compacted into the chromosomes by the histones, and has the telomeres at each end to protect from the deterioration. The Prokaryotes contain the circular DNA in addition to the smaller, transferable DNA plasmids. Eukaryotic cells contain the mitochondrial DNA in the addition to the nuclear DNA

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which cellular component of our body are involved in developing infection​

Answers

Answer:

the white blood cells or leucocytes

White blood cells. They are made in your bone marrow and are part of the lymphatic system.

pls help me with this :(((

pls help me with this :(((

Answers

1) all are definitely not for flying, they’re all similar because they use their fins/wings as one way for
them to travel.
2) the forms of the structures are different because some have more and some have less bones and are shaped completely differently
i don’t know the last two sorry x

What are the parts that make up a DNA nucleotide?
O Phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, hydrogen bond
O Phosphate, ribose sugar, hydrogen bond
O Phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, nitrogen base
O Phosphate, ribose sugar, nitrogen base

Answers

Answer:

a deoxyribose (5-carbon sugar), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (Figure 9.3). So the third option.

The parts that make up a DNA nucleotide are  Phosphate, deoxyribose sugar, nitrogen base. Thus, option C is correct.

What are nucleotides?

Nucleotide has been known as a molecule that has been made up of the nitrogenous base, a pentose as well as a phosphoric acid group, that being the basic unit of which the nucleic acid has been composed.

In this sense, it has been acts as the monomers in the nucleic acids in DNA and it has been formed with the adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine.The nucleotides within the DNA has been composed of the phosphate group, as well as the deoxyribose sugar and nitrogenous base.

We can express that according to the research, a nucleotide has a compound which has been formed by the nitrogenous base, a deoxyribose sugar and phosphoric acid in DNA.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid. The base edge of the tetrahedral die is 26 millimeters and the height is 20 millimeters.

What is the surface area of the tetrahedral die to the nearest ten square millimeters?

Answers

A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid with the base edge of the tetrahedral die is 26 millimeters and the height is 20 millimeters has the surface area of the tetrahedral die is approximately 1350 square millimeters to the nearest ten square millimeters.

A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid. The base edge of the tetrahedral die is 26 millimeters and the height is 20 millimeters. What is the surface area of the tetrahedral die to the nearest ten square millimeters?Surface area of tetrahedral dieTo find the surface area of the tetrahedral die, we need to first calculate the area of the triangular faces and then add them up.

The surface area of a tetrahedral die can be calculated as follows:Surface area of a tetrahedral die = Sum of the areas of all its triangular faces.Area of an equilateral triangle. A tetrahedral die is an equilateral triangular pyramid. An equilateral triangle is a triangle where all its sides and angles are equal. The area of an equilateral triangle is given by the formula:Area of an equilateral triangle = (√3/4) * a² where a is the length of each side of the equilateral triangle. Substituting a = 26mm,Area of the equilateral triangle = (√3/4) * 26²= 338 mm².

The tetrahedral die has four equilateral triangular faces. So, its surface area can be calculated by adding the area of each triangular face. Therefore,Surface area of the tetrahedral die = 4 × area of the equilateral triangle= 4 × 338= 1352 mm²= 1.4 × 10³ mm²Therefore, the surface area of the tetrahedral die is approximately 1350 square millimeters to the nearest ten square millimeters.

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in total how many body systems work together to maintain homeostasis??

Answers

Answer:

2 (nervous and endocrine systems)

Explanation:

Answer: in total there are 11 systems that work together to maintain homostasis

Explanation:

Select the incorrect statement(s) concerning reproduction of the mold Rhizopus: a. A Fungal hyphae are multinucleate and haploid. b. Meiosis comes immediately before fertilization. c. The germinating zygosporangium contains diploid nuclei. d. Rhizopus exclusively reproduces asexually. e. Zygospores are only produced after meiosis.

Answers

This question requires a long answer as there are multiple incorrect statements concerning the reproduction of the mold Rhizopus.
Options d, b, and e are incorrect statements


Option d is incorrect as Rhizopus can reproduce both sexually and asexually. Asexual reproduction is achieved through the formation of sporangia, which produce spores. Sexual reproduction, on the other hand, involves the fusion of gametangia to form a zygosporangium.

Option b is also incorrect as meiosis occurs after the fusion of gametangia to form the zygosporangium. The zygosporangium then undergoes meiosis to form haploid nuclei, which later fuse to form a diploid zygote.

Option e is incorrect as zygospores are produced after the fusion of haploid nuclei in the zygosporangium, not after meiosis.

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Choose one sort of diversity (for example, age, gender, etc.)
and explain why it is essential as a factor in your opinion.

Answers

The type of diversity that I have chosen is ‘Gender Diversity’ and  below are the reasons why it is essential as a factor in my opinion.

Gender diversity refers to the representation of both men and women in the workplace and society as a whole. It includes people of all genders, including non-binary individuals. Gender diversity has a significant impact on the workplace and society in general. As women are still underrepresented in many industries and roles, increasing gender diversity can lead to more opportunities for women and help break down gender stereotypes.

By having a gender-diverse workplace, companies can ensure compliance with these laws and avoid penalties or legal issues in the future.In conclusion, gender diversity is essential because it promotes a more inclusive environment, encourages innovation and creativity, and leads to better decision-making. By having a gender-diverse workplace, companies can improve employee satisfaction, increase profitability, reduce discrimination and biases, and ensure compliance with laws related to gender diversity.

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in eukaryotic cells, rna interference plays direct roles in which processes? (check all that apply.)

Answers

In eukaryotic cells, RNA interference plays direct roles in the following processes:

a. Decreasing expression of certain genesb. Defense against viruses

a. RNA interference (RNAi) is a process where small RNA molecules, such as microRNAs (miRNAs) or small interfering RNAs (siRNAs), bind to target messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules and inhibit their expression. This mechanism is used to decrease the expression of specific genes by either degrading the mRNA or blocking its translation into proteins. RNAi has important regulatory functions in various cellular processes, including development, differentiation, and response to environmental stimuli.

b. RNAi also serves as a defense mechanism against viral infections. When a virus infects a eukaryotic cell, it may produce double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) as part of its replication cycle. The dsRNA triggers the production of small interfering RNAs that can recognize and bind to viral RNA, marking it for degradation. This process prevents the translation of viral proteins and limits viral replication, thus providing a defense mechanism against viral infections.

c. Cell communication, d. Activating DNA replication, and e. Making ATP are not direct roles of RNA interference in eukaryotic cells. While RNAi may indirectly influence these processes through its regulatory effects on gene expression, its direct involvement is primarily associated with gene regulation and antiviral defense.

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The complete question is:

In eukaryotic cells, RNA interference plays direct roles in which processes? (Check all that apply.)

a. Decreasing expression of certain genesb. Defense against virusesc. Cell communicationd. Activating DNA replication.e. Making ATP

Ocular albinism is an X-linked recessive trait that causes a lack of pigmentation in the eyes.
A father with ocular albinism and a mother without the trait have a daughter.

What is the percentage chance that the daughter will have ocular albinism?

Answers

Answer:

It occurs in about 1 out of 17,000 people. The chances are low that the daughter will have ocular albinism. I can't calculate the exact amount.

Explanation:

Question:

Ocular albinism is an X-linked recessive trait that causes a lack of pigmentation in the eyes.

A father with ocular albinism and mother without the trait have a daughter.

What is the percent chance that the daughter will have ocular albinism?

Answer:

CORRECT (SELECTED)

0%.

Explanation:

In order for a daughter to be affected, she must be Xg Xg There is a 0 in 4 chance that they will produce a child with this genotype.

If you use the letter E for this gene. what is the genotype of the offspring if the parents were EE x ee

Answers

ANSWER: Ee

This is because if we had a punnett square one box would be EE another would be the recessive ee and the last two for hybrids Ee meaning two traits will mix or most likely be dominant

which statement about partial deletions and duplications of autosomes is true? a. the underlying cause is random chromosome breakage and rearrangement. b. the aberration represents failure of chromosomal segregation during gametogenesis. c. if one child in a family has the abnormality, the risk for recurrence is 50% with each pregnancy. d. the incidence increases with advancing maternal or paternal age.

Answers

Partial deletions and duplications of autosomes refer to the loss or gain of a segment of a chromosome that contains several genes. So the true statement about partial deletion and duplications of autosomes is a, "the underlying cause is random chromosome breakage and rearrangement."

This can occur due to random chromosome breakage and rearrangement during gametogenesis, which can lead to the formation of a gamete with an abnormal number of chromosomes.

The recurrence risk for a partial deletion or duplication of autosomes depends on several factors, including the size and location of the aberration, the inheritance pattern, and the presence of other genetic or environmental factors. If one child in a family has the abnormality, the recurrence risk for future pregnancies varies depending on the specific genetic cause of the condition.

The incidence of partial deletions and duplications of autosomes does not necessarily increase with advancing maternal or paternal age, as is the case with some other chromosomal abnormalities. However, certain genetic syndromes caused by partial deletions or duplications of specific genes may have an increased incidence with advancing maternal age.

In summary, partial deletions and duplications of autosomes can occur due to errors in meiosis that result in chromosomal abnormalities, and the recurrence risk for future pregnancies depends on several factors. The incidence of these abnormalities is not necessarily associated with advancing maternal or paternal age, but certain genetic syndromes caused by these abnormalities may be more common in older mothers.

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Distinguish between conditioned and simple reflexes

Answers

Answer:

Simple reflex action is not really learned and is automatic and involuntary whereas conditioned reflex action is voluntary and has to be learned.

Explanation:

Which process creates variation in genetic material?.

Answers

Answer:

the process of recombination

Explanation:

Meiosis is important because it ensures that all organisms produced via s3xual reproduction contain the correct number of chromosomes. Meiosis also produces genetic variation by way of the process of recombination

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