The correct answer to the question is "c. while sitting upright with plenty of water." the nurse should teach the patient to take alendronate while sitting upright with plenty of water, to not lie down or recline for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication, and to continue taking the medication as prescribed for long-term management of postmenopausal osteoporosis.
Alendronate is a bisphosphonate drug commonly prescribed for postmenopausal osteoporosis. It works by inhibiting bone resorption, which helps prevent further bone loss and reduces the risk of fractures. To ensure the drug is effective and safe, the patient must take it properly. The nurse should instruct the patient to take the medication while sitting upright with plenty of water (at least 8 ounces) to avoid esophageal irritation and ulceration. The patient should not lie down or recline for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to prevent reflux and increase absorption. It is important to note that alendronate is usually prescribed for long-term use, often for several years, to maintain bone density and prevent fractures. The nurse should educate the patient about the importance of compliance with the medication regimen and follow-up appointments to monitor the effectiveness and any potential adverse effects.
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The nurse will teach the patient to take alendronate while sitting upright with plenty of water to avoid esophageal irritation and to ensure proper absorption. The correct answer is option c
Alendronate is a bisphosphonate medication used to treat and prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It works by inhibiting bone resorption, leading to an increase in bone density. However, taking it improperly can lead to adverse effects such as gastrointestinal irritation and ulcers.
It is important to follow the instructions provided by the healthcare provider and the medication label. It is also important to note that alendronate is usually prescribed for a longer period of time than 1 to 2 years, and its use should be reassessed periodically. Therefore, the patient should continue taking the medication as directed by the healthcare provider and should report any adverse effects or concerns.
Therefore, option c is correct.
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the father of a third grade girl has brought his daughter to a walk-in clinic because he believes the girl has pink eye, which has been going around the students in her class. the nurse at the clinic concurs with the father's suspicion of conjunctivitis. which follow-up explanation by the nurse is most accurate?
Since bacteria or a virus has grown on the surfaces of her eyes, it's critical to practice good hand hygiene until it clears up.
How do you get rid of conjunctivitis fast?Lifestyle choices and DIY cures You should squeeze your eyes. Apply a clean, lint-free cloth gently to your closed eyelids after soaking it in water and wringing it out to create a compress. Attempt eye drops. Artificial tears, eye drops available over-the-counter, may help with symptoms. Put down your contact lenses.
How do you treat eye conjunctivitis?You can use cold compresses and artificial tears, which are available over-the-counter without the need for a prescription, to help reduce some of the inflammation and dryness brought on by conjunctivitis. Until then, you should refrain from wearing contact lenses.
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Which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting?
The most accurate statement regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting is that PTAs must be supervised by a licensed physical therapist (PT) and PT aides must be supervised by a PT or a PTA.
The most accurate statement regarding the guidelines for supervision of a PTA or PT aide in a physical therapy setting is that PTAs must be supervised by a licensed physical therapist (PT) and PT aides must be supervised by a PT or a PTA. The level of supervision required varies based on state laws and regulations, as well as the complexity of the patient's condition and treatment plan. Generally, PTAs require direct supervision, meaning the PT must be physically present and available to give guidance and direction during the treatment session. PT aides may require indirect supervision, meaning the PT or PTA must be available by phone or other means of communication to answer questions or provide guidance as needed. It is important for the PT to establish clear expectations and guidelines for supervision to ensure patient safety and quality of care.
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A patient has a urinary tract infection so Dr. Padron prescribes Ancef. A 1200 mL bag contains 400 mg of Ancef. If the patient receives 600 mL of fluid, how many mg of Ancef did the patient receive?
Answer:
The patient received 200 mg of Ancef
Explanation:
The bag contained 1200 mL and 400 mg, with this information we know that the amount of mg is a third of the amount of mL so if it is 600 mL that means there is 200 mg of Ancef
Each thick filament of a skeletal muscle fiber consists of
___________.
A. chains of myosin molecules
ules
B. six molecules coiled into helical structure
C. two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other
D. a rod- shaped structure with "heads' projecting from each end
Answer:
A. Chains of Myosin Molecules
Explanation:
The thick filaments are composed of myosin, and the thin filaments are predominantly actin, along with two other muscle proteins, tropomyosin and troponin.
upon assessment you find that the child has retractions, a prolonged expiratory phase anda lot of wheezing
Upon examination, you discover that the youngster has retractions, a protracted expiratory phase, a lot of chest wheezing, a SpO2 of 92% with high-flow O2, and more.
Which assessment result is compatible with this child's respiratory failure?
The oxygen saturation level. Identification of Respiratory Failure's Symptoms increased respiratory effort, cyanosis, tachypnea, and tachycardia fever and cough in 9 months Pulse ox 94% VS.A greater effort to breathe. Wheezing (typically expiratory, but can be inspiratory) (usually expiratory, but can be inspiratory). Coughing phase five of prolonged expiration 5 yo Hx: 4 days of a severe cough and fever Assessment: increasing groaning, tiredness, and lethargy; hard to wake up; unresponsive to voice directions.phase five of prolonged expiration 5 yo Hx: 4 days of a severe cough and fever Assessment: increasing groaning, tiredness, and lethargy; hard to wake up; unresponsive to voice directions. Resp are brief.To learn more about child's respiratory refer to:
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In behaviorism, the stimulus-response method highlighted the contributions of
Answer:
of a stimulus of some sort
Explanation:
In psychology, the stimulus-response theory is used to indicate that the behavior is a consequence of the interplay between a stimulus and its corresponding response. The behaviorism states that a stimulus will produce a corresponding reaction (response) either by pairing it with a reflective trigger or by rewarding it with a response (i.e., when the stimulus is present). This current of thinking focuses on the modification in observable behaviors as a result of the learning process.
Based on the Healthy People 2020 initiative, what is one change that should be made in school cafeterias
Answer:
Removal of soda pop machine from the lunch room
Explanation:
This is because research has shown that this soda has minimal nutritional value and has too much sugar content that unnecessary increases body mass index which is detrimental to the body as it could lead to diabetes and other cardiovascular diseases
Process by which drugs enter the body?
Explanation:
absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
what are some problems that may arise when specialized care is at a persons home instead hospital ?
what are the solutions ?
Specialized care provided at a person's home instead of a hospital can present several challenges, including limited resources and equipment, potential safety risks, and difficulties in coordinating complex medical procedures.
When specialized care is delivered at a person's home instead of a hospital, several issues may arise. One challenge is the limited availability of resources and equipment. Hospitals are equipped with advanced medical technology and infrastructure, which may not be easily accessible in a home setting.
This can pose difficulties in providing certain specialized treatments or conducting complex medical procedures. Additionally, ensuring the safety of patients at home can be a concern. Homes are not designed to handle emergencies or critical situations like hospitals, which may increase the risk of adverse events.
To address these problems, several solutions can be implemented. First, caregivers and healthcare professionals who provide specialized care at home should receive comprehensive training. This training should include knowledge about the specific medical conditions and procedures they will encounter, as well as safety protocols to follow.
Implementing safety measures, such as conducting home assessments to identify potential hazards and making necessary modifications, can help mitigate safety risks. Furthermore, utilizing telemedicine and remote monitoring technologies can enable healthcare professionals to remotely assess patients, provide guidance, and monitor their condition, enhancing the quality of care delivered at home.
Establishing effective communication channels between healthcare professionals, patients, and their families is crucial. This ensures timely access to medical advice, facilitates coordination of care, and allows for prompt response in case of emergencies.
In conclusion, while specialized care at a person's home instead of a hospital can present challenges, such as limited resources, safety risks, and coordination difficulties, there are viable solutions to address these issues. Proper training for caregivers, implementation of safety protocols, utilization of telemedicine and remote monitoring technologies, and establishing effective communication channels can help overcome these problems and ensure that patients receive the specialized care they need in a home setting.
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According to Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the following is required:
Esteem needs are more basic than survival needs
Individuals must meet lower-level needs before they can achieve higher-level needs
A self-actualized person has met basic needs but not fully reached his or her potential
Social needs are the most basic and essential needs
Hello
Which organ performs the given function? The roof of the mouth separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity. The is flexible and closes off the nasal cavity when you swallow.
When a patient has a peculiar sensation that immediately precedes a seizure, what term should the nurse use to describe this sensation?.
Answer:
d. Aura
Explanation:
I hope this helps
Have an AMAZING day :)
Of the following three types of fat, which type is the most unhealthy?
The doctor has ordered the client to receive 1050 mg of Amoxicillin PO BID. The safe dose range
for Amoxicillin is 100-250 mg/kg/dose. The client's last recorded weight was 5 kg. Calculate the
safe dose range and determine if the medication is safe to administer. Round to the nearest
tenth.
Explanation:
To calculate the safe dose range for Amoxicillin for this client, we need to use the client's weight to determine the maximum and minimum safe dose range.
Maximum safe dose range = 250 mg/kg/dose x 5 kg = 1250 mg/dose
Minimum safe dose range = 100 mg/kg/dose x 5 kg = 500 mg/dose
Therefore, the safe dose range for Amoxicillin for this client is between 500 mg/dose and 1250 mg/dose.
The ordered dose of Amoxicillin is 1050 mg PO BID (twice daily).
To determine if this medication is safe to administer, we need to calculate the total daily dose and compare it to the safe dose range.
Total daily dose = 1050 mg x 2 doses/day = 2100 mg/day
The total daily dose of 2100 mg/day is within the safe dose range of 500 mg/dose to 1250 mg/dose for this client.
Therefore, it is safe to administer the ordered dose of Amoxicillin to this client.
sensory memory lasts a fraction of a second before the information is lost. please select the best answer from the choices provided
True
False
It is TRUE that sensory memory lasts a fraction of a second before the information is lost.
Sensory memory refers to the initial stage of memory processing where information from the senses is briefly registered and retained for a very short period of time. It acts as a buffer, holding sensory information for a fraction of a second before either being transferred to short-term memory or being forgotten. The duration of sensory memory is relatively brief, typically lasting only a few hundred milliseconds. This rapid decay of sensory memory allows for the constant updating of new sensory information and prevents information overload. Therefore, it is accurate to say that sensory memory lasts only a fraction of a second before the information is lost.
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1. Assume you have a 10-lb weight in your right hand. Explain why it is easier to flex the right
elbow when your forearm is supinated than when it is pronated.
Explain which muscles help the movement
Explain in detail each muscle responsible for the movement , as well as which muscles are antagonist ,synergist ,fixator ,and exactly how the insertion and origin points of these muscles don’t make it easier to flex elbow while pronated.
Answer:
I did it already.
Explanation:
Supinated would be your palm is up; so flexing your elbow up in order to lift the weight is the natural way that you flex your elbow.
Pronated is when your palm is face down; so even without the weight in your hand you wouldn't be able to flex your elbow (at least not upwards, lifting the weight).
aspartate transcarbamoylase (atcase) is (1) regulated by (2) , which is a positive regulator and (3) , which is a negative regulator of enzyme activity.
Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase) is regulated by a positive regulator called cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and a negative regulator called CTP. Thus, ATCase is regulated by both positive and negative regulators.
Explanation:
Cyclic AMP (cAMP) acts as a positive regulator of ATCase in Escherichia coli, while CTP acts as a negative regulator of ATCase in bacteria. ATCase is a key enzyme in the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathway, catalyzing the condensation of carbamoyl phosphate and L-aspartate to produce N-carbamoyl-L-aspartate. It is necessary to regulate ATCase activity to control the rate of pyrimidine biosynthesis because of its role as a key enzyme.
The aspartate transcarbamoylase catalyzes the first committed reaction in the de novo pyrimidine biosynthesis pathway, which synthesizes the nucleotides required for DNA and RNA production. The regulation of ATCase involves the balance of the enzyme's activity by both positive and negative effector molecules in order to maintain an optimal rate of pyrimidine biosynthesis.
So, Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase) is regulated by two factors:
(1) Content-loaded aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase)
(2) ATP, which is a positive regulator
(3) CTP, which is a negative regulator of enzyme activity.
In this context, ATP promotes ATCase activity, while CTP inhibits it, allowing for fine-tuned control of the enzyme's function.
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A dentist uses a curved mirror to view the back side of teeth in the upper jaw. Suppose she wants an upright image with a magnification of 1.5 when the mirror is 1.2 cm from a tooth. Should she use a convex or a concave mirror? What focal length should it have?
the concave mirror should have a focal length of approximately 0.139 cm (or 1.39 mm) to produce an upright image with a magnification of 1.5 when placed 1.2 cm from the tooth.
To obtain an upright image with a magnification of 1.5, the dentist should use a concave mirror.
In concave mirrors, when the object is placed beyond the focal point, an upright and magnified image is formed. This is the desired outcome for the dentist in this case.
To determine the focal length of the concave mirror, we can use the mirror equation:
1/f = 1/v - 1/u
Where:
f = focal length of the mirror
v = image distance from the mirror (positive if the image is formed on the same side as the object)
u = object distance from the mirror (positive if the object is in front of the mirror)
Given that the dentist wants a magnification of 1.5, we know that the magnification (M) is related to the image distance and object distance:
M = -v/u
Since the magnification is positive in this case (indicating an upright image), we can write:
1.5 = -v/u
We are given that the mirror is 1.2 cm from the tooth, so the object distance is 1.2 cm:
u = -1.2 cm
Substituting these values into the magnification equation:
1.5 = -v / (-1.2)
Solving for v, we find:
v = -1.8 cm
Now, substituting the values of v and u into the mirror equation:
1/f = 1/(-1.8) - 1/(-1.2)
Simplifying, we get:
1/f = -1/1.8 + 1/1.2
1/f = (-1.2 + 1.5) / (1.8 * 1.2)
1/f = 0.3 / 2.16
1/f ≈ 0.139
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Situation analysis: assess the current situation that
JCPenney is facing
JC Penney was once a favorite retailer for many people in America and other countries. But recently, the company has faced many financial troubles, which can be attributed to several factors. The COVID-19 pandemic also had a significant impact on the company.
The company's long-standing debt was one of the major reasons for the decline. After several years of struggling to stay afloat, the company declared bankruptcy in May 2020. The COVID-19 pandemic also had a significant impact on the company. As people began to avoid public places and switched to online shopping, it affected the sales of JCPenney's stores and reduced the number of customers. With many companies moving to online shopping, JCPenney's inability to adjust their business model has resulted in a loss of customers as well. The company's traditional brick-and-mortar stores have seen a decline in foot traffic, as consumers switch to online shopping in a rapidly changing retail environment.
The company has announced the closure of more than 200 stores across the country, citing underperforming sales and a change in the retail industry's landscape. The recent pandemic has only increased the need for businesses to make adjustments to their business models to meet the new needs of the market. Therefore, it's critical for JCPenney to focus on the following points: Identifying the changes in the market and adjusting to them Boosting their online presence to meet the demands of the consumers Rebuilding consumer trust in their brand Cutting down on expenses where necessary and concentrating on generating revenue through new revenue streams.
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To sit for the credential of ______________________, one must complete a four-year bachelor's degree program that has been approved by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics' Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics.
To sit for the credential of registered dietician, one must complete a four-year bachelor's degree program that has been approved by the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics' Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics.
What about registered dietician?A medical professional with dietary and nutritional expertise. In order to help people improve their health and well-being, registered dietitians provide guidance on nutrition and appropriate eating practices.Dietitians and nutritionists counsel customers on healthy eating habits and nutritional issues. Dietitians and nutritionists are experts in using food and nutrition to improve health and treat disease. To encourage healthy living, they plan and implement nutritional or food service activities.You should not embark on a profession as a registered dietitian lightly. It is a highly regulated field that calls for certain education, training, experience, and licensure, in contrast to nutritionists. However, given the pay and your enthusiasm for helping others, it might be more than worthwhile.Learn more about registered dietician here:
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based on the results of the riba test, what is the probable cause of ted’s disease?
The probable cause of Ted's disease cannot be determined without additional information.
The RIBA (Recombinant Immunoblot Assay) test is a supplemental test used to confirm the presence of antibodies to the hepatitis C virus (HCV) in the blood. It is often performed after an initial positive result on a screening test for HCV antibodies.
The RIBA test provides more specific information about the antibodies present in the blood and can help differentiate between true HCV infection and false-positive results from the screening test. However, it does not directly identify the cause of a specific disease or determine the underlying cause of the HCV infection.
To determine the probable cause of Ted's disease, additional information is needed, such as his medical history, risk factors for HCV infection (e.g., previous blood transfusions, intravenous drug use, exposure to infected needles), and results of other diagnostic tests. Further evaluation, including liver function tests, viral load testing, and imaging studies, may be necessary to assess the severity of liver damage and determine the specific cause of his disease.
Therefore, based on the information provided in the question, it is not possible to determine the probable cause of Ted's disease solely from the results of the RIBA test.
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nancy walker, a medical assistant, ask a patient if he has been experiencing any pain,he says that he has not , but when he moves from the chair in to the examination room to the exam table nancy notices that he limps his facial mucsle are tense, and there is a light sweat on his forehead. What other nonverbal signals might indicate that the patient has not been completey honest
Answer:
Avoiding eye contact
A severe and potentially fatal physical reaction to an alcohol overdose. Symptoms can include stupor, coma, vomiting, hypothermia, and severe dehydration is called?
A severe and potentially fatal physical reaction to an alcohol overdose in which coma, vomiting, and severe dehydration like symptoms may occur is called as alcohol poisoning.
Alcohol is a ethanol based drug which is used by people to gain the feeling of euphoria. It helps in treating the mental pain which people generally suffer from due to stress or depression. Alcohol poisoning occurs when a person consumes excess of alcohol in a shorter span of time due to which the functioning of the body is disturbed and the person ultimately ends up vomiting the fluid.
In this condition, the speech and movements of the person may be damaged temporarily. In severe cases, the person has to be hospitalized, or given some intravenous fluids to neutralize the excess alcohol.
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pharmacy and pharmacist are very important in medical science.
Please try to give long answer.
I will mark you as brainlialist and give you 5 star. :) <3
Answer:
The practice of pharmacy requires excellent knowledge of drugs, their mechanism of action, side effects, interactions, mobility, and toxicity. Pharmacy practice has played a very important role in building the trust of patients in the health care system, reducing treatment cost, achieving better health outcomes, reducing the risk of treatments and side effects of medication, safe access to the treatment and improved quality of life in many countries. Pharmacists are the experts on drug therapy and are the primary health professionals who optimize the use of medication for the benefit of the patients. Clinical pharmacists play a crucial role in different health care setups by evaluating and revising the medicines, medication history, dispensing errors, administration errors, analyzing drug interactions, pointing out the adverse drug reactions, exhorting individualization of dosage regimen, and contributing to patient's counseling. By participation in clinical discussions and ward rounds, the clinical pharmacists can help in identifying, preventing, and reducing drug interactions and other drug-related problems
Explanation:
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difference between action potential of sa node and contractile myocytes
Different groups of cells depolarize at different rates. The rate of depolarization of SA node cells is faster than the rate of depolarization of AV node cells. ... If both the SA node and AV node fail, the Purkinje fibers have a modest level of automaticity (20 beats/minute) that may still reach threshold
what medical aids do different medical aid administrator offer?
Medical aid administrators, also known as health insurance providers or medical schemes, offer a range of medical aids to individuals and organizations.
The specific offerings may vary between different administrators, but generally, medical aid administrators provide the following:
1. Health Insurance Coverage: Medical aid administrators offer health insurance plans that cover various medical expenses. These may include hospitalization, surgical procedures, consultations with healthcare professionals, diagnostic tests, medication, and other healthcare services. The extent of coverage and the specific benefits provided can differ depending on the plan chosen.
2. Network of Healthcare Providers: Medical aid administrators often establish networks of healthcare providers, including hospitals, clinics, doctors, specialists, and pharmacies. These networks are contracted with the administrator and offer services to members at negotiated rates. By utilizing network providers, members can benefit from discounted rates and a streamlined claims process.
3. Claims Processing: Medical aid administrators handle the processing of claims from their members. When a member receives medical treatment covered by their plan, they submit the necessary documentation to the administrator, who then assesses the claim and reimburses the member or directly pays the healthcare provider.
4. Wellness Programs: Many medical aid administrators offer wellness programs and initiatives aimed at promoting and supporting healthy lifestyles. These programs may include preventive screenings, health assessments, counseling services, health education, and incentives for healthy behaviors.
5. Additional Services: Some medical aid administrators provide additional services such as telemedicine consultations, emergency medical assistance, chronic disease management programs, maternity benefits, dental and optical coverage, and alternative therapies.
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A five-month-old infant is ordered acetaminophen q6h for a high temperature. The usual adult dose is 325 mg q4-6h. The available acetaminophen is 160 mg/5 mL. What volume of medication should the infant receive every six hours? a) 3.2 mL b) 0.28 mL child's dose ) 0.34 mL child's dose d) 1.6 mL
Answer: .34 ML
Explanation: Your welcome :)
The volume of acetaminophen medication the infant should receive every six hours is 3.2 mL.
To calculate the appropriate volume of medication for the infant, we need to determine the correct dosage based on the adult dose and adjust it for the infant's weight.
The adult dose is 325 mg, to be taken every 4-6 hours. However, for infants, the dosage is usually adjusted based on their weight or age. In this case, the infant is five months old.
The available acetaminophen concentration is 160 mg/5 mL. We need to calculate the appropriate volume of medication to provide the desired dosage.
The child's dose is usually a fraction of the adult dose, based on weight or age. Without specific weight information provided, we can assume the child's dose is a fraction, such as 1/2 or 1/4, of the adult dose.
Based on the available options, the volume of medication that aligns with a child's dose is 3.2 mL. This would correspond to a child's dose that is approximately 1/2 of the adult dose (325 mg).
Therefore, the main answer is 3.2 mL.
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A woman in labor is bleeding, has a very high fever, and is in danger of losing the fetus. Laboratory results include a platelet count of 15 x 109/L (normal platelet count = 150 - 450 x 109/L), prolonged PT and aPTT, decreased fibrinogen, and increased D-dimer. Her automated blood count flagged for blood smear review, and the cells indicated by the arrows were seen on her peripheral smear along with a decrease in the number of platelets present. What condition is suggested by these results?
The patient's condition—which includes her being in labor, bleeding, having a very high fever, and maybe losing the fetus—indicates that she has disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
Laboratory test results for this patient show that her D-dimer is increased, her PT and aPTT are extended, and her fibrinogen as well as platelet count are significantly reduced. This is a typical disseminated intravascular coagulation profile. The abnormal D-dimer plus coagulation tests indicate disseminated intravascular coagulation, while thrombocytopenia and the appearance of schistocytes on the smear of peripheral blood are also linked with TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura) and HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome).
Priorities for nurses during DIC interventions include reducing bleeding, keeping an eye out for aberrant clotting, and tackling the underlying problem.
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According to Tianna's lecture on the medical institution, which of the following is true based on her research? Race is not found to be an influencing factor for medical decision making of healthcare practitioners Research has shown that minorities receive outdated treatment modalities more often and experience delays in care at higher rates O Pregnancy Related Mortality Rates (PRMR) are highest for White women as compared to women of color O Disparities in health based on race/ethnicity are rare Michelle really wants a new pair of sunglasses, but her mom will not give her money for them. Michelle goes to the store to try on the sunglasses, and accidentally leaves them on the top of her head. The store alarm rings as she exits, Michelle is caught by security, and the police are called to charge her with theft. While Michelle has never stolen anything before, now all the store owners in town are suspicious of her behavior and follow her around any time she steps into their stores. This example best represents because O Strain theory, Michelle is a ritualist who doesn't care about the sunglasses O Conflict theory, the store alarm is responsible for Michelle's behavior Labeling theory, the reactions by the store owners are why Michelle is considered deviant Differential association; Michelle learned from her mother to steal the sunglasses
The correct answer is Labeling theory, the reactions by the store owners are why Michelle is considered deviant.
In the given scenario, Michelle's behavior of leaving the sunglasses on her head and triggering the store alarm led to her being labeled as a thief. As a result, the store owners in town now view her with suspicion and follow her around whenever she enters their stores. This situation exemplifies the labeling theory, which suggests that people's behavior and identity are influenced by how others label and perceive them. Michelle's deviant label as a thief influences the way she is treated by the store owners, despite her previous behavior and intentions.
The other options (Strain theory, Conflict theory, and Differential association) do not accurately capture the dynamics of the scenario described.
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A group of nurses are reviewing several client's medical history. Which of the following clients may develop extrapyramidal symptoms from medication therapy?
A.A client in the third trimester of pregnancy taking iron
B.An elderly client who has pancreatitis and taking enzymes
C.A client who has schizophrenia and is taking antipsychotic medications
D.An adult client who has type 2 dm and is taking insulin
The client who has schizophrenia and is taking antipsychotic medications may develop extrapyramidal symptoms from medication therapy.
What are Extrapyramidal Symptoms?
Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) are a group of side effects that occur when taking specific types of medications.
These symptoms include tremors, rigid muscles, slurred speech, shuffling walk, and other involuntary movements.
EPS are more commonly associated with the use of antipsychotic medications that are used to treat schizophrenia and other psychiatric disorders.
Explanation:
The correct option is C.
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