A particle starts with an initial velocity 3.5m/s and it accelerates uniformly at the rate 0.5m/s². The displacement in the first 3 seconds. *
pls help me

Answer:

50 mph

Explanation:

doesn’t have direction

50 mph is not a velocity bcos it doesn't have direction

60 miles / hr

= 60 * 1.6 * 1000  m / 60 * 60 s

= 96000 m / 3600 s

= 26.67 m / s

We can use the kinematic equation that relates the final velocity (v), initial velocity (u), acceleration (a), and time (t):

v = u + at

Here, u = 0 (since the vehicle starts from rest), a = 2 m/s^2, and v = 20 m/s. Substituting these values into the equation, we get:

20 m/s = 0 + 2 m/s^2 × t

Simplifying and solving for t, we get:

t = 20 m/s ÷ (2 m/s^2)

t = 10 seconds

Therefore, it will take 10 seconds for the vehicle to gain the velocity of 20 m/s, assuming the acceleration remains constant.

In most cases, replacing the mercury lamp with a red light source does not cause photoelectron emission.

The emission of photoelectrons depends on the energy of the incident photons and the activity of the material. The work function is the minimum energy required to remove electrons from the surface of the object. In the case of a mercury lamp, it usually emits ultraviolet (UV) light, which contains more energy photons. Photoelectrons can be emitted if the energy of the UV photons is greater than or equal to the work function of the material. However, when a red emitting light is used instead of a mercury lamp, red photons generally have lower energy than UV photons. Red light has a long wavelength and low energy. To emit a photoelectron, the energy of the red photon must be greater than the active material. If the energy of the red photon is lower than the function, the electron cannot receive enough energy to overcome the negative function and is released as a photoelectron. The signal is not strong enough to cause photoemission on most devices. The activity of the material is usually higher than the energy carried by the red photons. Therefore, in most cases, replacing the mercury lamp with a red light source does not cause photoelectron emission. However, it should be noted that in some cases or in some experiments, the energy of the red photon is sufficient to cause photoemission. These may have exceptions and depend on equipment specifications and test setup.

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The electric field produced by the disk at point P along the x-axis is approximately 333.89 N/C.

Since the disk lies in the y-z plane, the electric field produced by the disk will only have an x-component, which can be calculated using the formula for the electric field produced by a charged disk:

E = σ / (2ε₀) * [1 - (z / √(R² + z²))]

At point P(1.01 m, 0.00 m), the distance from the disk along the z-axis is z = 0, so the formula reduces to:

E = σ / (2ε₀) = (5.88 × 10^-6 C/m²) / (2 * 8.85 × 10^-12 F/m) ≈ 333.89 N/C

Therefore, the electric field produced by the disk is 333.89 N/C.

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The correct answer is a. relay pumper. A relay pumper may be of smaller capacity as it can use the acquired energy of previous pumpers in the relay, allowing for a more efficient water transfer over a longer distance.

Relay pumper is pumper or pumpers connected within relay that receives water from source. pumper or another relay pumper, boosts pressure, and supplies water to next relay pumper or. attack pumper.

Relay pumping is used where a source of water sufficient for the operation is a long distance from the operation or when an uninterruptable water supply for an operation is required. Relay pumping consists of a number of pumps spaced at intervals between a water source and the incident.

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Answer: As the variable resistance increases its resistance, the current which flow through the lamp will decrease and therefore its brightness decreases. ... If the resistors are very large, they have no impact and the lamps will be the same brightness.

Explanation:

Answer:

The intensity or brightness of the bulb increases as more dry cell is added in the circuit.

Explanation:

Hope it helps :)

Velocity of the satellite that is orbiting earth is 83.45m/s, which makes the velocity of the rivet relative before striking also 83.45m/s and the time duration of collision is 4.53× 10⁻⁵ s. The avg force that is exerted by the rivet on the satellite is 9.27N and the energy that is generated by the collision is 1.63J.

a) Velocity of the satellite in an orbit 900 km above Earth's surface can be calculated as follows: Formula: `v = sqrt(GM/r)` Where,v = velocity, M = Mass of Earth, r = radius of the orbit (r = R + h)R = radius of the Earth = 6.37 × 10⁶ mh = height above Earth's surface = 900 km = 9 × 10⁵ mG = 6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ N m²/kg²By substituting the given values, we getv = sqrt((6.67 × 10⁻¹¹ × 5.97 × 10²⁴)/(6.37 × 10⁶ + 9 × 10⁵))= sqrt(6.965 × 10³) = 83.45 m/s.

Therefore, the velocity of the satellite in an orbit 900 km above Earth's surface is 83.45 m/s.

b) Velocity of the rivet relative to the satellite just before striking it can be calculated as follows: Velocity of the rivet, `v_rivet = v_satellite * sin(θ)`Where, v_satellite = 83.45 m/sθ = 90°By substituting the given values, we getv_rivet = 83.45 * sin 90°= 83.45 m/s.

Therefore, the velocity of the rivet relative to the satellite just before striking it is 83.45 m/s.

c) The time duration of collision, `Δt` can be calculated as follows:Δt = (2 * r_rivet)/v_rivet, Where,r_rivet = radius of the rivet = 3/2 × 10⁻³ m. By substituting the given values, we getΔt = (2 * 3/2 × 10⁻³)/83.45= 4.53 × 10⁻⁵ s.

Therefore, the time duration of collision is 4.53 × 10⁻⁵ s.

d) The average force exerted by the rivet on the satellite, `F` can be calculated as follows: F = m_rivet * Δv/ΔtWhere,m_rivet = mass of the rivet = 0.5 g = 0.5 × 10⁻³ kgΔv = change in velocity of the rivet = 83.45 m/sΔt = time duration of collision = 4.53 × 10⁻⁵ sBy substituting the given values, we get F = (0.5 × 10⁻³ * 83.45)/4.53 × 10⁻⁵= 9.27 N.

Therefore, the average force exerted by the rivet on the satellite is 9.27 N.

e) The energy generated by the collision, `E` can be calculated as follows: E = (1/2) * m_rivet * Δv²Where,m_rivet = mass of the rivet = 0.5 g = 0.5 × 10⁻³ kgΔv = change in velocity of the rivet = 83.45 m/s. By substituting the given values, we getE = (1/2) * 0.5 × 10⁻³ * 83.45²= 1.63 J.

Therefore, the energy generated by the collision is 1.63 J.

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Answer:

Explanation:

Given maximum height reached by the ball as H = 40 metres

Since the ball rises straight up when hit by a ball, then the angle of launch will be perpendicular to the ground and that is 90°.

To determine the upward speed of the ball in meters per second after it got struck by the bat, we will use the formula for calculating the maximum height according to projectile motion;

Maximum Height H = \(\frac{u^2sin^2\theta}{2g}\) where;

u is the speed of the ball

\(\theta\) is the angle of launch

g is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81m/s²

Substituting the given parameters into the formula;

\(40 = \frac{u^2sin^2(90)}{2(9.81)}\\ \\40 = \frac{u^2}{2(9.81)}\\ \\40 = \frac{u^2}{19.62} \\cross\ multiply\\\\u^2 = 40*19.62\\u^2 = 784.8\\u = \sqrt{784.8}\\ u = 28.01 m/s\)

Hence the upward speed of the ball in meters per second after it got struck by the bat is 28.01m/s.

The force that represents the tension force on the box is A because it is in the direction of the attached rope.

Tension is defined as the force transmitted through a rope, string or wire when pulled by forces acting from opposite sides.

Tension force is described as the pulling force transmitted axially by the means of a string, a rope, chain, or similar object, or by each end of a rod, truss member, or similar three-dimensional object.

For the given diagram, the tension force is the force pulling the box upwards preventing downward motion of the box.

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The amount of gravitational potential energy a 100kg skydiver have if they jump from 4000 meters is 3,920,000 J. The correct answer is Option A.

Gravitational potential energy is a form of potential energy that an object possesses due to its position in a gravitational field. It is usually calculated as the product of the gravitational field strength, which is the acceleration due to gravity, the mass of the object, and the height of the object relative to some arbitrary point or reference height.

GPE = (mass) x (acceleration of gravity) x (height)

Here, mass of the skydiver = 100 kg

Height from where skydiver jumps = 4000 meters

Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s²

Using the formula of GPE, we can calculate the gravitational potential energy possessed by the skydiver.

GPE = (mass) x (acceleration of gravity) x (height)

GPE = (100 kg) x (9.8 m/s²) x (4000 m)

GPE = 3,920,000 J

Approximately, the gravitational potential energy of a 100 kg skydiver jumping from 4000 meters is 3,920,000 J.

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Answer:

basketball or other large bouncing ball

A tennis ball or other bouncing ball that is smaller and lighter than the bigger ball

A ping-pong ball, smaller and lighter than both other balls (optional)

A hard surface to bounce balls, preferably outdoors, surrounded by a large open area where a ball can fly without colliding with people or objects

A helper (optional)

Camera that films video (optional)

Yard stick that measures meters (optional)

Preparation

Gather your test balls in the open area where you will perform the activity.

Note: If your ball does not bounce well, it might be deflated or old. You can add air to some balls like basketballs, soccer balls, volleyballs, etcetera. A bicycle pump with a special piece to inflate balls can help you do the job. Other balls, such as tennis balls or baseballs, wear out with use. Why do you think a deflated ball does not bounce well? Why would a well-used tennis ball not bounce as well?

Procedure

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First, hold the larger ball in front of you at shoulder height and let it fall without giving it a push. How high does it bounce back—almost up to your shoulder, your hip, your knee?

Repeat this a couple more times. Does the ball bounce back to approximately the same height each time?

Repeat the test with the smaller ball. Do you think it will bounce higher or lower then the larger ball? How high does this ball bounce back?

Repeat a couple more times. Are your results consistent?

Do you think the ball can bounce back higher than the height at which you released it?

Hold the larger ball in front of you at shoulder height like you did initially. Place the smaller ball on top of the larger ball so they just touch, and hold it there. You might need a helper to hold the balls in place. In a moment, you will release the two balls at the same time. What do you think will happen? Will the larger fall faster or will both stay together as they fall? How will they bounce back? Will a ball bounce higher, the same or lower than before?

Try it out and observe.

Answer:

2.4m/s, This is what I got.

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Just took the quiz

Answer:

4:A battery with 15 loops or wire around the nail

Explanation:

More loops equals more force

A battery with \(15\) loops or wire around the nail have the stronger force.

So, option 4 is correct.

An electromagnet is a system that contains of a magnetic encircled by a coil that conducts an electric current to ionize the core.

Wherever controllable magnetism are required, such as in devices where the magnetic flux must be adjusted, reversed, or turned on and off, an electromagnet is utilized.

A battery with \(15\) loops or wire around the nail have the stronger force.

So, option 4 is correct.

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Answer:

four times as great

Explanation:

If we use the simple physics equations: F=ma, and (Vf^2-V0^2)/2d

we can see that since the final velocity of a crash is 0, the equation becomes F=m(V^2/2d). Assuming that we have the same distance to stop, when you double the velocity, the impact force is increased by four.

The heating of air inside the balloon causes the volume to expand (Charles's Law), resulting in a decrease in the pressure compared to the surrounding air (Boyle's Law).

Hot-air balloon flight can be explained by the combined principles of Charles's Law, Archimedes' Principle, and Boyle's Law.

Charles's Law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature, assuming the pressure remains constant. In the case of a hot-air balloon, the air inside the balloon is heated, causing the gas molecules to move faster and increase in temperature. As a result, the volume of the gas expands, leading to an increase in the volume of the balloon.

Archimedes' Principle states that an object immersed in a fluid experiences an upward buoyant force equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object. In the context of a hot-air balloon, the heated air inside the balloon is less dense than the surrounding cool air. The buoyant force acting on the balloon is equal to the weight of the air displaced by the balloon. This buoyant force is greater than the weight of the balloon itself and the payload, causing the balloon to rise.

Boyle's Law states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume, assuming the temperature remains constant. When the air inside the balloon is heated, the volume increases. As a result, the pressure inside the balloon decreases relative to the surrounding air pressure. The pressure difference creates a net upward force, contributing to the balloon's ascent.

In summary, the combined effects of Charles's Law, Archimedes' Principle, and Boyle's Law explain hot-air balloon flight. The heating of air inside the balloon causes the volume to expand (Charles's Law), resulting in a decrease in the pressure compared to the surrounding air (Boyle's Law). The buoyant force (Archimedes' Principle) acting on the less dense heated air allows the balloon to rise.

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Answer:

120°

Explanation:

Given forces with magnitude F and F

Applying the parallelogram law of vector

Where resultant is given as :

R = √(A^2 + B^2 + 2ABCos Ф

WHERE A and B are two forces with angle Ф

F =√(F^2 + F^2 + 2F * F Cos Ф

Square both sides

F^2 = F^2 + F^2 + 2F^2 CosФ

F^2 - 2F^2 = 2F^2 CosФ

- F^2 = 2F^2 Cos Ф

Divide both sides by 2F^2

- 1 / 2 = CosФ

Cosine(theta) = - 1/2

Ф = cosi^-1 (-1/2)

Ф = 120°

Answer:

p1 = 9 watt

Explanation:

first find the current :

i = V/r1 +r2 = 12 / (1+3) = 3 A

Next, find the voltage in the 1 ohm resistor:

V1 = r1 * i = 1 * 3 = 3 volt

Now calculate power in the 1 ohm resistor :

P1 = i * V1 = 3 * 3 = 9 watt

Answer:

Work out the change in velocity for you given time.

Calculate the change in time for the period you are considering.

Divide the change in velocity by the change in time.

can increase the velocity of the object, decrease the velocity of the object, or change the direction of the velocity of the object.

Explanation:

hope this helped have a great day!

The statements true in regards to heat is 3. Heat is a form of energy, can be reflected by a mirror, and cannot pass through a vacuum.

Heat is a form of energy. Heat is the transfer of thermal energy from one object to another. Thermal energy is the energy of motion of the particles in an object. Heat can be reflected by a mirror. Heat is a form of electromagnetic radiation, and electromagnetic radiation can be reflected by mirrors.

Heat cannot pass through a vacuum. Heat is a form of electromagnetic radiation, and electromagnetic radiation cannot pass through a vacuum. Heat is not an electromagnetic radiation. It is a form of energy that is transferred from one object to another because of a difference in temperature.

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Complete question:

Which of the following statements are true regarding heat?

(a) Heat is a form of energy

(b) Heat can be reflected by mirror

(c) Heat is an electromagnetic radiation

(d) Heat can pass through vacuum

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

1. 1, 2 and 3

2. 2, 3 and 4

3. 1, 2 and 4

4. 1, 3 and 4

technically usually the warmer object/substances particles move master which causes friction among the particles plus the kinetic energy being converted to thermal energy, so i would say the hand.

Answer: Momentum can be defined as "mass in motion

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:

The formula for calculating workdone is expressed as;

Workdone = Force * Distance

Get the force

F = nR

n is the coefficient of friction = 0.5

R is the reaction = mg

R = 46 ( 9.8)

R = 450.8N

F = 0.5 * 450.8

F = 225.4N

Distance = 10.3m

Get the workdone

Workdone = 225.4 * 10.3

Workdone  = 2,321.62Joules

Hence the amount of work done is 2,321.62Joules

Given,  

weight of a piece of rock, W = mg = 5N

So, mass of a piece of rock is m = W ÷ g = 5N ÷ 9.8 m/\(s^{2}\) = 0.51 kg.

When a force F is applied, it produces an acceleration 'a'. From Newton's second law of motion, F = ma = 0.51 a.

⇒a = F / 0.51.

Acceleration produced by 2nd piece of the rock is a' = 8a.

Assuming the mass of 2nd piece of rock to be same as the 1st piece, force to be applied on 2nd piece is F' = m'a'.

⇒ F' = m' × 8a = 8m'a

If the mass of both pieces of rock are equal, then m' = m = 0.51 kg.

⇒ F' = 0.51kg × 8a

⇒  F' = 0.51kg × 8 (F / 0.51)

⇒  F' = 8F.

Thus, a force equal to 8 times the force applied on 1st piece should be applied on the 2nd piece of the rock to produce an acceleration of 8a (if their masses are equal.

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The tip speed ratio and torque coefficient of the wind turbine is 1.88 and 0.385 respectively. The torque available at the rotor shaft is 1806.34 Nm.

Tip speed ratio: Tip speed ratio is defined as the ratio of the speed of the rotor blade tip to the wind speed. It is calculated as follows:

λ = (v/wr), where v = wind speed, and wr = rotational speed of rotor blade.

The given values are:

v = 10 m/s

wr = 150 rpm

The rotational speed of rotor blade in radians per second is calculated as follows:

wr = (2 x π x 150) / 60 = 15.707 rad/s

λ = 10/ (15.707 x 10/2π x 5)= 1.88

Torque coefficient: Torque coefficient is defined as the ratio of torque available at the rotor shaft to the dynamic pressure of the wind. It is calculated as follows:

CT = T/(1/2 x ρ x A x v²), where T = torque available at rotor shaft, ρ = density of air, A = area of the rotor, v = wind speed.

The given values are:

CT = 0.35, ρ = 1.24 kg/m³, A = (π/4) x D²= (π/4) x (10)² = 78.54 m², v = 10 m/s,

CT = 0.35 = T / (1/2 x 1.24 x 78.54 x 10²)

T = 45534.70 Nm

Torque available at the rotor shaft:

Torque available at the rotor shaft is calculated as follows:

T = (CT x 1/2 x ρ x A x v²)= 0.385 x 1/2 x 1.24 x 78.54 x 10²= 1806.34 Nm

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Answer:

False

Explanation:

A well-oiled machine has oil because there is friction. The oil lessens the friction and also allows the machine to operate and function without wear parts heating up. Oil is a cooling lubricant that decreases friction but does not eliminate it.

Answer:

Neodymium (Nd)

Explanation:

An element is made up of atom, which contains three subatomic particles namely; proton, electron, and neutron. In a neutral atom, the number of protons determines the atomic number of that element and the atomic number of an element is the identity of that element in the periodic table.

Hence, a change in the proton number of an element means a change in the atomic number and ultimately a change of that element. In this question, Europium (Eu) element with atomic number, 63, loses three protons. This means that that atom now has 60 protons, which denotes the atomic number of another element called Neodymium (Nd).

Therefore, Europium (Eu) element has become Neodymium (Nd) due to loss of protons.

The time available on Machine II must lie between 1 minute and 3 minutes. The shadow price for Resource 2 (associated with constraint 2) is $3 per minute.

(a) To determine the range of available time on Machine II, we need to consider the constraints provided. The time available on Machine II must be between the time required for Type A souvenirs and the time required for Type B souvenirs.

Time required for Type A souvenir on Machine II: 1 minute

Time required for Type B souvenir on Machine II: 3 minutes

Therefore, the time available on Machine II must lie between 1 minute and 3 minutes.

The meaningful solution for the available time on Machine II is 1 min ≤ Machine II ≤ 3 min.

(b) To maximize the profit, we need to determine the optimal production quantities for Type A and Type B souvenirs given a change in the available time on Machine II.

Let's assume the change in available time on Machine II is represented by k.

To maximize the profit, we need to find the production quantities that maximize the total profit. Let's denote the production quantity for Type A souvenirs as x and the production quantity for Type B souvenirs as y.

The objective function for the profit can be expressed as:

Profit = 0.80x + 1.60y

Subject to the following constraints:

2x + y ≤ 120 (Machine I constraint)

x + 3y ≤ (300 + k) (Machine II constraint)

Using linear programming techniques, the optimal solution will depend on the value of k.

The statement "Ace Novelty's profit is maximized by producing Type A souvenirs 540 5 and 2(223+ *). 3 Type B souvenirs, where -225 1x ** $ 150 X X" seems to be incomplete and unclear. The specific production quantities and profit cannot be determined without knowing the value of k.

(c) To find the shadow price for Resource 2 (associated with constraint 2), we can perform sensitivity analysis.

The shadow price represents the change in the objective function's value per unit increase in the availability of Resource 2 (Machine II in this case). We can determine it by evaluating the sensitivity of the objective function to changes in the constraint.

Since the constraint is x + 3y ≤ (300 + k), the shadow price associated with Resource 2 is the coefficient of the Machine II term, which is 3.

Therefore, the shadow price for Resource 2 (associated with constraint 2) is $3 per minute.

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Answer:

A solids molecules are tightly packed to get her and an examle of a sold is a rock

Explanation:

Superior planets are those that have orbits outside of Earth's orbit around the Sun. The correct answer is 3. Positions A and B.

From Earth's perspective, superior planets can appear opposite the Sun in the sky, meaning they are on the opposite side of the Sun from Earth. This is known as opposition.

Positions A and B in the given options represent possible opposition positions for a superior planet. When a planet is at position A, it is in opposition to the Sun, and when it is at position B, it is also in opposition. Positions C, D, E, and F are not relevant in this context and do not represent opposition positions. Therefore, the correct answer is option 3: Positions A and B.

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--The complete Question is, Which list has possible positions for a superior planet?

1. Positions C and D

2. Positions E and F

3. Positions A and B

4. Positions A, B, C, and D

5. None of the above --