Student 1 should research the role of cortisol in the stress response more because she stated that cortisol is not useful for a stress response because it suppresses the immune system.
Cortisol is important in stress management because is moves the energy stores, increases the glucose level in the blood and at the same time it suppresses the function of the non required function like digestion or reproduction. While chronic cortisol exposure might inhibit the immune system, short-term cortisol release is required to prepare the body for stress response. Cortisol is released as a result of the impulse in the several other glands.
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Student 1 needs to study more. While cortisol can suppress the immune system, it is actually a necessary hormone in the stress response. Cortisol mobilizes glucose and fats for fuel and is released from the adrenal cortex. Long-term cortisol can have negative effects on the body, but it is still an important part of the stress response.
Student 1 needs to study more. While it is true that cortisol can suppress the immune system, it is an essential hormone for a stress response as it helps mobilize glucose and fats for fuel, as stated by Student 3. Cortisol is released from the adrenal cortex (Student 4) and its long-term effects can indeed suppress the immune system (Student 2). However, its role in the stress response is crucial for providing the necessary energy to cope with the situation.
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when you _________, air enters the body
Answer:
Inhale would be the most fitting answer
Explanation:
Air enters the body through the mouth or nose and quickly moves to the pharynx, or throat. From there, it passes through the larynx, or voice box, and enters the trachea. The trachea is a strong tube that contains rings of cartilage that prevent it from collapsing.
Can someone give me some positive vibes?
Explanation:
Keep your face to the sunshine and you cannot see a shadow.
. Yesterday is not ours to recover, but tomorrow is ours to win or lose.”
I know that the seasons of the year are spring, summer, fall, and winter. This type of memory is known as________ memory.
Answer:
short-term
Explanation:
The memory is short lived. the seasons of the year are spring, summer, fall, and winter. This type of memory is known as short term memory.
What is the purpose of memory ?The purpose of such memories is to capture certain events along with the memories and handling of the events in order to perform some of the actions based on previous experiences.
Acoustic memory is the memory that deals with the storing of sounds.
Short term memory is the memory or capturing of events for a short period of time depends on what kind of effect they have made to the mind.
Short term memory is therefore the type of memory which helps us to record some of the dates, events, happening and certain faces.
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Which instruction would the nurse give an unlicensed assistivepersonnel (UAP) to perform while caring for a client prescribedcaptopril?Select all that apply.One, some, or all responsesmay be correct.Correct1Obtain blood pressure.Correct2Measure intake and output.Correct3Weigh the client every morning.Correct4Notify the nurse if the client has a dry cough.Correct5Assist the client to change positions slowly.ACE inhibitors such as captopril are prescribed for the management of hypertension,
1, 3, and 4 instructions would be given to the UAP while caring for a client prescribed captopril. (1,3,4)
It is important to obtain blood pressure regularly to monitor the effectiveness of captopril treatment, as well as any potential side effects. Weighing the client every morning is also important because changes in weight can indicate fluid retention, which can be a side effect of captopril use.
Notifying the nurse if the client develops a dry cough is also important, as this can be a sign of a serious side effect of captopril known as angioedema.
It is also important for the UAP to be aware of the potential for dizziness or lightheadedness when changing positions, and to assist the client in doing so slowly to reduce the risk of falls.
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The director of research and development is testing a new drug. She wants to know if there is evidence at the 0.02 level that the drug stays in the system for less than 330 minutes. For a sample of 46 patients, the mean time the drug stayed in the system was 323 minutes. Assume the population variance is known to be 361.
10.1 State the hypotheses (in mathematical expression):
10.2 Find the value of the test statistic. (Round your answer to 2 decimal places.)
10.3 Specify if the test is one-tailed or two-tailed.
10.4 Find the P value of the test statistic. (Round your answer to 4 decimal places.)
10.5 Determine the value of the level of significance.
10.6 Determine the conclusion.
The results of the hypothesis test indicate that there is enough evidence to reject the null hypothesis, which states that the mean time the drug stays in the system is 330 minutes. The alternative hypothesis, which suggests that the meantime is less than 330 minutes, is supported by the findings. The test statistic calculated was approximately -2.498, and the corresponding P-value was approximately 0.0081. With a significance level of 0.02, the P-value is lower than the level of significance, leading to the rejection of the null hypothesis. Therefore, it can be concluded that the drug stays in the system for less than 330 minutes based on the provided sample data.
The answers to the given questions are as follows:
1) Hypotheses:
Null hypothesis (H₀): The mean time the drug stays in the system is 330 minutes (μ = 330).Alternative hypothesis (H₁): The mean time the drug stays in the system is less than 330 minutes (μ < 330).2) Test statistic: The calculated test statistic is approximately -2.498.
3) Type of test: The test is one-tailed because we are only interested in whether the meantime drug stays in the system is less than 330 minutes.
4) P-value: Assuming the P-value is approximately 0.0081 (rounded to 4 decimal places).
5) Level of significance: The level of significance is 0.02.
6) Conclusion: Since the P-value (0.0081) is less than the level of significance (0.02), the null hypothesis is rejected. There is sufficient evidence to suggest that the meantime the drug stays in the system is less than 330 minutes at the 0.02 level of significance.
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Anthony has secretly been taking anabolic steroids to improve his athletic performance. Which of the following is a side effect that might tip off his friends and teammates that he has been abusing steroids?A) He is no longer aggressive or violent.B) His skin is remarkably free of acne.C) He has noticeably grown breasts.D) His cholesterol levels have never been lower.
Option C is the correct answer.Anabolic steroids are prescription-only medicines that are sometimes taken without medical advice to increase muscle mass and improve athletic performance.
If used in this way, they can cause serious side effects and addiction.
Anabolic steroids are manufactured drugs that copy the effects of the male hormone testosterone. They have limited medical uses and are not the same as corticosteroids, a different type of steroid drug that's more commonly prescribed.
Side effects include:-
1. reduced sperm count
2. infertility
3. shrunken testicles
4. erectile dysfunction
5. hair loss
6. breast development
7. increased risk of prostate cancer
8. severe acne
9. stomach pain
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you have a friend who eats a lot of highly processed foods, fast foods, and convenience foods, but does drink fortified milk. what type of deficiency is your friend at risk for developing
Based on the information provided, your friend is at risk of developing a deficiency in certain vitamins and minerals due to their diet consisting of highly processed foods, fast foods, and convenience foods. Although they do drink fortified milk, it may not be sufficient to compensate for the nutritional deficiencies caused by their overall poor diet.
One of the common deficiencies associated with a diet high in processed foods is a lack of essential nutrients, including vitamins and minerals. Some specific deficiencies that your friend may be at risk for include:
1. Vitamin C deficiency: Processed foods are typically low in fresh fruits and vegetables, which are important sources of vitamin C. This can lead to a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for immune function, collagen synthesis, and antioxidant activity.
2. Vitamin D deficiency: Although your friend consumes fortified milk, they may still be at risk of vitamin D deficiency. Sun exposure is the primary natural source of vitamin D, and a diet high in processed foods may not provide sufficient amounts of this vitamin.
3. B-vitamin deficiencies: Processed foods are often lacking in B-vitamins, such as thiamine (B1), riboflavin (B2), niacin (B3), pyridoxine (B6), and cobalamin (B12). These vitamins are important for energy metabolism, nerve function, and red blood cell production.
4. Mineral deficiencies: Processed foods are typically low in minerals, such as iron, magnesium, and zinc. These minerals are essential for various physiological processes, including oxygen transport, bone health, and immune function.
It's important for your friend to diversify their diet and incorporate more whole, unprocessed foods to minimize the risk of developing nutrient deficiencies. Consulting a healthcare professional or registered dietitian can provide personalized advice and guidance for improving their nutritional intake.
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Possession of opium, morphine, or heroin without a prescription was made a crime by: the 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act. the 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments. the 1970 Controlled Substances Act. a 1915 Supreme Court decision.
Possession of opium, morphine, or heroin without a prescription was made a crime by various laws and decisions. The 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act was one of the first federal laws to regulate drugs and require accurate labeling of ingredients.
It did not make possession of these substances without a prescription a crime but laid the groundwork for future drug control legislation.The 1915 Supreme Court decision in United States v. Doremus upheld the constitutionality of the Harrison Narcotics Tax Act, which required doctors and pharmacists to register and pay a tax to prescribe and dispense opioids. This decision allowed the government to regulate and control the production, distribution, and use of these drugs.The 1970 Controlled Substances Act (CSA) replaced previous drug laws and established a schedule of controlled substances based on their medical use, potential for abuse, and safety. Possession of opioids without a prescription is illegal under the CSA, and penalties vary depending on the drug's schedule and the amount in possession.The 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments increased penalties for drug offenses, including possession of opioids without a prescription. These amendments also established mandatory minimum sentences for drug offenses, leading to the mass incarceration of drug offenders and disproportionately affecting communities of color.In summary, possession of opioids without a prescription was made a crime by the 1970 Controlled Substances Act, which established a schedule of controlled substances and regulated their production, distribution, and use. The 1986 Anti-Drug Abuse amendments increased penalties for drug offenses, including possession of opioids without a prescription, while the 1906 Pure Food and Drugs Act and the 1915 Supreme Court decision laid the groundwork for future drug control legislation.For more such question on heroin
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Which is the largest among the followings?
Answer:
ITS PROBABLY A NUCLEOTIDEExplanation:
BRAINLEST ME?
How often should rescuers switch roles when performing two-rescuer CPR?
A. After every cycle of CPR
B. After every two cycles of CPR
C. After every five cycles of CPR
D. After every 10 cycles of CPR
The rescuers should switch roles when performing two-rescuer CPR
(B) After every two cycles of CPR.
During two-rescuer CPR, it is important for rescuers to switch roles periodically to prevent fatigue and maintain the effectiveness of chest compressions. The American Heart Association (AHA) recommends rotating roles every two minutes or after every two cycles of CPR.
By switching roles after every two cycles, each rescuer has an opportunity to perform chest compressions and provide rescue breaths. This rotation helps maintain the quality and intensity of chest compressions, which are crucial for adequate blood circulation during cardiac arrest.
It is important to note that the specific guidelines for CPR may vary slightly depending on the organization and region. However, the general principle of periodically switching roles to minimize fatigue and maximize efficiency remains consistent.
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How is the unusual flexibility of the human shoulder joint related to the habitat of our primate ancestors?
Answer:
Explanation:
In the theory of evolution, we evolved from primates such as monkeys. These primate ancestors created habitats high above the ground in the trees. To make this possible and make traversal easier they developed flexible shoulders over the years which allowed them to easily swing from tree to tree, in order to traverse their habitats, reach different foods, and escape from predators with ease. Since this trait was useful to their survival it stuck from generation to generation and is why we as humans have unusual flexibility in our shoulder joint.
what are some of the purposes of a post-mortem? check all that apply.
a. To learn from and adapt processes for higher efficiency
b. to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them
c. to foster a culture where it's ok to make mistakes
The purpose of post-moterm is to understand the cause of mistakes and how to prevent them.
A post-moterm, which is also called an autopsy an examination of the body done after the passing of the individual.
When the post-moterm of a body is done, it gives us a brief understanding of what went wrong in the body and what was the cause of the death or how did the death caused.
By learning about how and what happened, we can understand the causes of the mistakes and we can prevent them in future.
A major experiments and crucial information is obtained from the post-moterm report of the body. This useful information is used in future to make medicines and surgical methods.
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a mother brings her 18 month old daughter to your office for a routine physical examination. the child has no immunizations. her mother says that they practice natural medicine, and that they prefer not to immunize their children. you (the RN) would tell the mother in this situation that
Answer:
The physician should be sure that the child's mother understands the risks of remaining unimmunized and attempt to correct any misconceptions about the degree of risk associated with getting immunized
Explanation:
Felice's doctor has determined that her blood is not clotting easily enough. Which type of drug would MOST LIKELY be prescribed to help Felice's blood form clots?
a. a thrombolytic
b. a hemostatic drug
c. an anticoagulant drug
d. an antibiotic drug
Answer:
The answer correct Aaaaaa
Many parent groups object to subliminal messages in advertising.
Adult
Unperceived
Unhealthy
Unintended
It could be inferred that the objection from parent groups is primarily related to "unperceived" and "unintended" subliminal messages.
Parent groups may be concerned that these subliminal messages can influence children without their awareness or intention, potentially promoting unhealthy behaviors or values.
Subliminal messages in advertising refer to messages or stimuli that are presented to individuals at a level below conscious awareness. In the context of parent groups objecting to these messages, their concern likely revolves around the fact that these messages are "unperceived" by the audience. This means that individuals, particularly children, may not consciously notice or comprehend the messages being communicated to them. Parent groups may worry that these subliminal messages could hurt children's behavior, attitudes, or decision-making without their knowledge.
Additionally, the objection may stem from the belief that these subliminal messages are "unintended" by the advertisers. Parent groups may argue that advertisers should be more cautious and responsible with their messaging, ensuring that the content targeted at children is appropriate, transparent, and does not contain hidden or manipulative elements.
In the context of the given options, the objection to subliminal messages in advertising primarily relates to the fact that they are "unperceived" and "unintended." The concern is not necessarily focused on whether the messages are "adult" or "unhealthy" in nature, but rather on the potential influence on individuals, particularly children, without their conscious awareness or intention.
Therefore the correct options are "unperceived" and "unintended."
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A nurse is assessing a client who is taking amitriptyline for depression. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
The adverse effect of amitriptyline, an antidepressant medication, is Sedation or drowsiness.
One of the common adverse effects of amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is sedation or drowsiness. Amitriptyline has a sedative effect and can cause drowsiness in individuals taking the medication. This can manifest as excessive sleepiness, feeling tired or lethargic, or experiencing difficulty staying awake during the day. Sedation is more pronounced when starting the medication or when the dosage is increased.
It is important for the nurse to identify sedation or drowsiness as an adverse effect because it can impact the client's daily functioning, alertness, and overall quality of life. The nurse should assess the client for any signs of excessive sedation or drowsiness, monitor their response to the medication, and educate them about the potential effects.
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if you were a clinical laboratory scientist (medical technologist) working in a cml, what are some of the actions you would take to protect yourself from becoming infected?
As a clinical laboratory scientist, protecting oneself from infections involves wearing PPE, observing standard precautions, practicing proper hand hygiene, safe handling and labeling of samples, performing risk assessments, and participating in medical surveillance programs.
As a clinical laboratory scientist (medical technologist) working in a Clinical Medical Laboratory (CML), the following are some of the actions that one would take to protect themselves from becoming infected: 1. Wearing Personal Protective Equipment (PPE): PPE such as gloves, gowns, eye protection, and masks should be worn while working in the laboratory to prevent contact with infectious material and prevent any infections.
2. Observing Standard Precautions: It is essential to observe standard precautions to prevent the spread of infections in the laboratory. Standard precautions include proper handling, decontamination, and disposal of laboratory equipment, infectious material, and hazardous waste. 3. Proper hand hygiene: Medical technologists should practice proper hand hygiene by washing hands regularly with soap and water for at least 20 seconds or using alcohol-based hand sanitizers. 4. Safe handling of laboratory samples: Medical technologists should handle laboratory samples with care to prevent spills, splashes, and contamination.
5. Proper labeling of samples: Medical technologists should label samples correctly with identification details to prevent errors and mix-ups. 6. Risk assessment: Medical technologists should perform a risk assessment of their work environment, determine the level of risk, and take appropriate measures to mitigate any potential hazards. 7. Medical surveillance: Medical technologists should participate in medical surveillance programs that aim to monitor and identify any potential health risks associated with laboratory work.
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What results would you expect in a patient who is a CYP2D6 ultrarapid metabolizer and taking codeine?
Answer:
A lisp Like ski mask the slump god or quotes from the bible of misogyny like future.
Explanation:
Clients weight is taken before and after participating in the latest fitness craze for a month. What is the simplest test to see if there is an effect of the fitness craze
Answer:
strength or how toned the body looks compared to the month prior to starting the new fitness routine
Explanation:
To put it simply, muscle is heavier than fat. So checking weight may not be the best option.
The t-test is the simplest test to see whether there is an effect of fitness eccentricity that compares two independent sets of observations on a single trait.
What is t-test?An independent sample t-test is a test which compares two independent groups of observations or measurements on the same characteristic while the paired samples t-test compares the means of two measurements which is taken from the same person, object, or related units.
In this case, measurements were taken at two different times, i.e. before and after the fitness craze.
So in one sample t test which is used to test the significance of the difference between the sample mean and the hypothesized value of the population mean. This is an example of t-test.
Thus, The t-test is the simplest test to see whether there is an effect of fitness eccentricity that compares two independent sets of observations on a single trait.
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The U.S. healthcare system currently emphasizes: Group of answer choices A. Hospital based care B. Proper medical care for emergencies and acute illness C. Health promotion and disease prevention D. Wellness and physical fitness
The current emphasis in the U.S. healthcare system is primarily on hospital-based care. The correct option is A) Hospital-based care.
The U.S. healthcare system is characterized by a strong focus on hospital-based care, which is reflected in the allocation of resources, infrastructure, and policies. Hospital-based care refers to the provision of medical services within hospital settings, where patients receive treatment for various medical conditions, emergencies, and acute illnesses.
The emphasis on hospital-based care is influenced by several factors. Firstly, the U.S. healthcare system has historically been centered around a curative model, which prioritizes treating illnesses and providing medical interventions when individuals are already sick or injured. This approach places a significant emphasis on hospitals as the primary sites for advanced medical treatments, surgeries, and specialized care.
Secondly, the U.S. healthcare system has a fee-for-service payment model, where healthcare providers are reimbursed based on the number of services and procedures they perform. This payment structure has incentivized the use of hospital-based care, as it often involves more intensive and costly interventions compared to primary care or preventive services.
Although there is growing recognition of the importance of preventive care, health promotion, and disease prevention in improving overall population health and reducing healthcare costs, the current emphasis in the U.S. healthcare system remains predominantly on hospital-based care. Efforts to shift towards a more balanced and comprehensive approach that integrates preventive care and wellness promotion are ongoing but have not yet transformed the overall focus of the system. Therefore, the correct option is A) Hospital-based care.
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1. Conduct research to find four different food sources that could be part of a high-protein diet. For each food source, indicate the major amino acids and other nutritional benefits that are present, then indicate the recommended minimum daily intake of protein for adults. Cite the sources of your research. BBoldIItalicsUUnderlineBulleted listNumbered listSuperscriptSubscript
Answer:
1. Tuna (Protein content: 32g per 100g)
2. Breast chicken (Protein content: 31g per 100g)
3. Cheddar (Protein content: 25g per 100g)
4. Walnuts (Protein content: 16g per 100g)
Explanation:
1. Tuna. Tuna is rich in essential amino acids (i.e., lysine, methionine, cysteine, threonine and tryptophan), and omega-3 fatty acids, which helps to prevent cardiovascular diseases. Moreover, this food is an important source of vitamin A, B Group vitamins (i.e., thiamin, riboflavin, niacin) and minerals (i.e., calcium, phosphorus, iron, etc.) (Fatimah et al. 2019).
2. Chicken breast. Chicken breast is low in fat and an excellent source of protein, vitamins (vitamin B6, niacin), and many essential minerals (selenium, phosphorus,iron, calcium). Chicken is a rich source of methionine, the precursor of homocysteine (Bansal and Joshi 2017).
3. Cheddar. Cheddar cheese is produced from milk, which has a good content of calcium that helps to prevent osteoporosis and vitamin K. This food has significant quantities of essential amino acids (e.g., lysine, threonine, and tryptophan) (Gueimonde et al. 2019).
4. Walnuts. Walnuts are rich in fats (lipids), especially omega-3 fatty acids, which are required for normal brain function (Haider, Saida, et al. 2011). Moreover, walnuts have a high content of arginine amino acid.
A person is experiencing severe heartburn. To compensate for their pain, they take 9 sodium bicarbonate-based antacids, which is more than triple the recommended dosage. What condition will they likely experience once the main ingredient of the antacid fully hydrolyzes
The person will likely experience alkalosis, a condition characterized by an increase in blood pH due to excessive antacid intake.
When someone takes a large amount of sodium bicarbonate-based antacids, it can lead to a condition called alkalosis.
Alkalosis occurs when there is an imbalance in the body's acid-base levels, specifically, when the blood pH increases due to the excessive intake of antacids.
In this case, taking 9 antacids, which is more than triple the recommended dosage, will cause the sodium bicarbonate to neutralize a large amount of stomach acid.
This will result in an overly alkaline environment in the body, causing symptoms such as muscle twitching, nausea, and irritability.
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A client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid as part of a chemotherapy protocol. The nurse assesses the client for adverse responses to the medication. The nurse determines that prompt intervention is needed for which client response?
1. Orange feces
2. Yellow sclera
3. Temperature of 96.8 F
4. Weight gain of 5 pounds
A client with a diagnosis of tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid as part of a chemotherapy protocol. The nurse assesses the client for adverse responses to the medication. The client's response that requires prompt intervention is option 2: yellow sclera.
The nurse needs to take appropriate actions if the client presents with yellow sclera because it is an indication of hepatitis, which is a potential complication of isoniazid therapy.Isoniazid is a tuberculosis (TB) medication that is often given in combination with other drugs. It works by stopping the growth and multiplication of TB bacteria.The most common adverse effect of isoniazid therapy is hepatotoxicity, which occurs when liver cells are damaged. This can lead to jaundice, a condition characterized by yellowing of the skin and eyes, as well as other symptoms. If jaundice develops, the medication should be stopped immediately, and the patient should be referred to a specialist for further treatment and management.Other signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity include fever, malaise, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, dark urine, and abdominal pain. In case of any of these symptoms, the medication needs to be stopped, and medical attention should be sought immediately. Additionally, regular monitoring of liver function tests (LFTs) is recommended during therapy.
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6. Mark's insurance pays 100% of physician visits after a deductible of $250. Mark has already paid $100
of the deductible. The next time Mark visits his physician, the physician charges $125. How much is
Mark responsible for paying?
A. "$100"
B. "$125"
C. "$250"
D. "$0"
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Deductible is 250.00
VISIT 100.00
Leaves 150.00 before deductible is met so he must pay the whole amount of 125.00
Answer:
125
Explanation:
Insurance only pays full amount after he pays deductible of 250, since he hasn't paid the full amount the insurance won't cover it.
How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: -is self-placed and brief. -involves hands-on practice. -is delivered by computer. -occurs every 24 months.
Answer:
Please mark brainliest
Involves hands-on practice
Explanation:
, Which of the following electrolytes could form a precipitate if mixed closely together? A. Potassium chloride and potassium phosphate
B. Potassium chloride and calcium gluconate
C. Calcium gluconate and potassium chloride
D. Potassium phosphate and calcium gluconate
E. Calcium chloride and magnesium sulphate
Potassium phosphate and calcium gluconate will given precipitation. The correct option is D.
What is precipitation reaction?Precipitation is the process of changing a dissolved substance from a super-saturated solution to an insoluble solid in an aqueous solution. Precipitate refers to the produced solid.
Sometimes, combining a solution having a certain cation (a positively charged ion) with another solution containing a specific anion will result in the formation of an insoluble combination (a negatively charged ion). Precipitate refers to the solid that separates.
When the calcium and phosphate concentrations were high enough, calcium phosphate precipitation happened in every system. Precipitation will be given calcium gluconate and potassium phosphate.
Thus, the correct option is D.
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What is competency-based education and how can it help Shawna learn and achieve skills? Why is it important for Shawna to understand how she learns best?
Answer:
Competency-based education is a system where the student is assessed according to his or her skills within a subject and is not assessed with the mastery of concepts, as in traditional education. This type of education can help Shawna to learn and acquire skills because it allows her to show the areas that she has the most competence and can focus on them, with a specific pace for her, where she can identify which areas she has more ability to learn and in how much time.
It is important for Shawna to understand how she learns best, because this way she optimizes her study time, avoiding elements that she has no affinity with and that hinder her knowledge.
Explanation:
Competency-based education is a very different and innovative educational system. Unlike the conventional educational system, competency-based education allows a specific and comfortable study pace for each student to be adopted, where he / she will have the opportunity to identify the areas of study that have the most skill and competence. In this way, students will be awarded according to the domain of these competencies, and areas in which the student has not shown any competence will be discarded.
During cpr chest compression fraction should be at least.
Answer:
Chest compression fraction >80% Compression rate of 100-120/min. Compression depth of at least 50 mm (2 inches)
What does Zoloft do to your body
Answer:
Zoloft (sertraline) is an antidepressant belonging to a group of drugs called selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Sertraline affects chemicals in the brain that may be unbalanced in people with depression, panic, anxiety, or obsessive-compulsive symptoms. Zoloft is used to treat depression.