a doctor measures the temperature of a patient to be 101 degrees . what is this temperature in kelvins

Answer:

Forces make things speed up (or accelerate). When a force pushes or pulls the object, the object will move in the direction of the force. The bigger the force, and the lighter the object, the greater the acceleration.

Explanation:

The corresponding electric force on an electron near the surface of the earth is approximately 1.76 x 10^−19 N, while the gravitational force from the earth on the same electron is approximately 9.08 x 10^-30 N. This shows that the gravitational force is much weaker than the electric force.

To shield the electron from this force, one can use a Faraday cage, which is an enclosure made of conductive materials that can block external electric fields.

The cage works by redistributing the charges so that they cancel out the external electric field. In the case of a fluctuating electric field, the cage will continue to protect the electron as long as the field changes are not too rapid. For stronger or rapidly changing fields, other types of shielding may be necessary.

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Answer:

k = 44000 N/m

Explanation:

Given the following data;

Maximum gravitational potential energy = 770 J

Elastic potential energy = 14% of 770 J = 14/100 * 770 = 107.8 J

Extension, x = 42 - 35 = 7cm to meters = 7/100 = 0.07 m

To find the spring constant, k;

The elastic potential energy of an object is given by the formula;

\( E.P.E = \frac {1}{2}kx^{2}\)

Substituting into the equation, we have;

\( 107.8 = \frac {1}{2}*k*0.07^{2}\)

\( 107.8 = \frac {1}{2}*k*0.0049 \)

Cross-multiplying, we have;

\( 215.6 = k*0.0049 \)

\( k = \frac {215.6}{0.0049} \)

k = 44000 N/m

The spring constant of the tendon is 44000 N/m.

The following can be depicted from the question:

Elastic potential energy will be:

= 14% × 770J = 107.80 Joule.

The spring constant will be calculated thus:

107.8 = 1/2 × k × 0.07²

107.8 = 0.5 × k × 0.0049

k = 215.6 / 0.0049

k = 44000 N/m.

Therefore, the spring constant of the tendon is 44000 N/m.

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An atom’s location on the periodic table provides information such as;

1. Atomic number.

2. Number of valence electrons.

3. Atomic weight.

An atom can be defined as the smallest unit which comprises the matter that forms all chemical elements. Thus, atoms are typically the fundamental building blocks of matter and as such determines (defines) the structure of a chemical element.

Generally, atoms are typically made up of three (3) distinct particles and these are;  

Periodic table is an organized tabular array of all the chemical elements arranged in order of increasing atomic number (in rows).

Generally, an atom’s location on the periodic table (the group of elements it belongs to) provides information such as;

1. Atomic number.

2. Number of valence electrons.

3. Atomic weight.

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Answer: 0.01

Given a decimal, move 2 decimal places and round to nearest digit. If the last number is not greater than .50 or less than .49 do nothing; if it is go right to left and find two numbers such as ( 1.2345)1= ( 1.23). The answer would be 1.24, because the first time we need to round we round any number ending in 5 up and any ending in less than 5 down; then we need to skip over the next set of numbers that end with 4 and take two numbers ending with 3 (2 3) = (2)6 which equals 26.

*ANSWER MADE BY AN AI.*

The prove of  Angle XYZ- Angle NYM is given below:

Note that from the image given;

Since ∠XYZ is said to be congruent to ∠NYM it can be proven by the use of the reflexive property.

The reflexive property is one that informs that any shape is regarded congruent to itself.

Since ∠NYM has a different way to call ∠XYZ that uses a different vertexes, but the sides are made up of the two angles which are said to be the same.

Therefore , ∠XYZ ≡ ∠NYM are proved by the reflexive property.

Since ΔXYZ is the same with Δ NYM, it can be proven by the AA (angle-angle) similarity theorem.

We have 2 angles Δ XYZ and Δ NYM:

Note that ∠YXZ ≡ ∠YNM

              ∠XYZ ≡ ∠NYM

So,  ΔXYZ is said to be the same to ΔNYM and it is proven by the AA similarity theorem.

Therefore, The prove of  Angle XYZ- Angle NYM is given below:

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Answer:

1. parrael

2. corresponding angles theorem

3. NYM

4. AA

Explanation:

just took it

strong winds that come together from different directions

Answer:

it's true I'm pretty sure

Answer:

the answer is true.I'm sure

The weight of the trunk is 735 N

The force of friction  is 147 N

The force exerted on the trunk is 882 N

The work done to move the trunk is 10,584 J

The power exerted  is  814 W

The weight of the trunk can be calculated as :

Weight = 75 kg * 9.8 m/s^2 = 735 N

The force of friction can be calculated as:

Friction = μ * N = 0.20 * 735 N = 147 N

The force exerted on the trunk can be calculated as :

Force = Weight + Friction = 735 N + 147 N = 882 N

The work done to move the trunk can be calculated as

Work = Force * Distance = 882 N * 12 m = 10,584 J

The power exerted can be calculated as :

Power = Work / Time = 10,584 J / 13 s = 814 W.

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The direction of propagation is along the +z direction. The polarization state of the wave is linear, with the direction of polarization in the +x direction.

The electric field of a uniform plane wave propagating in free space is given by: E = ( + jy) 30e^(-jnπ/6) (V/m) Specify the modulus, w, and direction of the electric field intensity at the z = 0 plane at t = 0,5, and 10 ns.

At z=0 plane, t=0 ns:
Modulus: |E|= 30 V/m
Direction: θ= 0° (in the +x direction)

At z=0 plane, t= 0.5 ns:
Modulus: |E|= 30 V/m
Direction: θ= 90° (in the +y direction)

At z=0 plane, t= 10 ns:
Modulus: |E|= 30 V/m
Direction: θ= -180° (in the -x direction)

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By substituting the accurate values into the calculations, we can determine the efficiency of the engine.

Efficiency = (Work output / Heat input) * 100

To calculate the efficiency of the engine, we'll need to use the given values and perform the necessary calculations.

Given:

- Universal gas constant (R) = 0.08206 L · atm/mol/K = 8.314 J/mol/K

- Heat capacity (C) = 21 J/K

Step 1: Isothermal expansion

V1 = 22.9 L, V2 = 36.4 L, T = 455 K

W1 = nRT * ln(V2/V1)

   = (1 mol) * (8.314 J/mol/K) * (455 K) * ln(36.4 L / 22.9 L)

Step 2: Cooling at constant volume

T1 = 455 K, T2 = 336 K

Q2 = C * (T2 - T1)

   = (21 J/K) * (336 K - 455 K)

Step 3: Isothermal compression

V1 = 36.4 L, V2 = 22.9 L, T = 455 K

W3 = -nRT * ln(V2/V1)

   = - (1 mol) * (8.314 J/mol/K) * (455 K) * ln(22.9 L / 36.4 L)

Step 4: Heating at constant volume

T1 = 336 K, T2 = 455 K

Q4 = C * (T2 - T1)

   = (21 J/K) * (455 K - 336 K)

Now, let's calculate the total work done and the total heat input:

Work output = W1 + W2 + W3 + W4

Heat input = Q1 + Q2 + Q3 + Q4

Finally, we can find the efficiency using the formula:

Efficiency = (Work output / Heat input) * 100

By substituting the accurate values into the calculations, we can determine the efficiency of the engine. Therefore, you can use numerical methods or a solver to find the appropriate value of efficiency.

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The efficiency of the given engine is 52.97%.

The given parameters of the engine using 1 mol of an ideal gas are

Initial volume, V1 = 22.9 L

Final volume, V2 = 36.4 L

Initial temperature, T1 = 455 K

Final temperature, T2 = 336 K

Heat capacity, C = 21 J/K

Universal gas constant, R = 8.314 J/mol/K

The efficiency of the engine is given by,η = (W/Q1)

Where, W is the work done and Q1 is the heat absorbed by the engine during isothermal expansion.

W = -nRTln(V2/V1)............(1)

Q1 = nC(T1 - T2)...........(2)

W is negative because work is done by the system. Therefore, from the equations (1) and (2),

η = -(nRTln(V2/V1))/(nC(T1 - T2)) = -((Rln(V2/V1))/(C(T1 - T2)))= -((8.314*ln(36.4/22.9))/(21*(455-336)))= 0.5297 or 52.97%

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Answer:

1. troposphere

2. troposphere (still)

3. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is nitrogen, with oxygen second. Argon, an inert gas, is the third most abundant gas in the atmosphere.

4.The stratosphere is where you'll find the very important ozone layer. The ozone layer helps protect us from ultraviolet radiation (UV) from the sun. In fact, the ozone layer absorbs most of the UV radiation the sun sends to us. Life as we know it wouldn't be possible without this layer of protection.

5. It contains the ozone, which protects Earth from the sun's radiation. Why aren't there many meteors in the troposphere? They burn up before they reach the troposphere.

Explanation:

1.The troposphere is the atmospheric layer closest to the planet and contains the largest percentage (around 80%) of the mass of the total atmosphere. Temperature and water vapor content in the troposphere decrease rapidly with altitude.

2.The layer closest to Earth's surface is the troposphere, reaching from about seven and 15 kilometers (five to 10 miles) from the surface. The troposphere is thickest at the equator, and much thinner at the North and South Poles.

3. Explained in the answer.

4. Explained in the answer.

5. Explained in the answer.

No atomic  model is a picture of an atom but only helps explain the behavior of one

We know that the atom is the smallest particle of a substance that is able to take part in a chemical reaction. We know that in the atom there are certain smaller particles that we can be able to refer to as the subatomic particles.

In this case, we are talking about the different models that we can be able to use to show the atom. None of these models can be said to show the atom exactly but can approximate how the atom behaves.

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1. They have evolved their leaves into spikes for minimum water loss through transpiration.

2. They have a waxy layer for minimum water loss.

3. They have thick walls for minimum water loss.

4. They can take water from atmosphere.

5. They change the photo energy from Sun into an intermediate stage and store it, so that they can make food even in night.

Answer:

low-mass star.

Explanation:

Pls, choose me as brainliest!

Answer:

Astronomers are saying that we are made of the same stuff that stars are made out of.

Explanation:

Stars are made of protons, neutrons, and electrons. Just like us

Answer:

Thus, even though the velocity of an object at rest must be zero, acceleration can clearly be non-zero for objects at rest. A particle that is thrown vertically upwards stops momentarily at the highest point of motion.

Answer:

Everything is zero. Because it's at rest.

Answer:

Volume = 112cm^2

Density = 0.45 g/cm^2 (2.s.f)

Explanation:

Volume of a cube is found by multiplying its height by its length by its width.

We are given the values: l = 7cm, w = 8cm, h = 2cm, so to find the volume we just need to multiply them all together:

V=lwh

V = (7)(8)(2)

The volume of the cube = 112cm^2

Density is found by dividing mass by volume.

We are given the mass (50 grams) and we have just found the Volume (112cm^2), so we can just divide them to find the density:

p (symbol for density) = m/v

p = (50)(112)

The density of the cube is 0.45 g/cm^2 (2.s.f.)

Hope this helped!

Explanation:

Hope this helps,

Juno entered a polar orbit of Jupiter on July 5th 2016 UTC, to begin a scientific investigation of the planet. After completing its mission, Juno will be intentionally deorbited into Jupiters atmosphere. Junos mission is to measure Jupiters composition, gravitational field, magnetic field, and polar magnetosphere.

Answer:

1

3

4

5

or

a

c

d

e

Explanation:

The period of a simple pendulum can be calculated using the equation:

T = 2π√(L/g)

Where T is the period, L is the length of the pendulum, and g is the acceleration due to gravity. Plugging in the values for a 1.0 m pendulum on Earth, with g = 9.81 m/s^2, we get:

T = 2π√(1.0/9.81) = 2.0064 s

Therefore, the period of a 1.0 m pendulum on Earth is approximately 2.0064 seconds.

On the moon, the acceleration due to gravity is much weaker than on Earth, with g ≈ 1.62 m/s^2. Using the same equation, we can calculate the period of the 1.0 m pendulum on the moon:

T = 2π√(1.0/1.62) = 3.137 s

Therefore, the period of the 1.0 m pendulum on the moon is approximately 3.137 seconds, which is longer than on Earth due to the weaker gravitational force.The period of a pendulum is the time it takes for the pendulum to complete one full swing, from one extreme to the other and back again. The period depends on the length of the pendulum and the acceleration due to gravity. A longer pendulum will have a longer period, while a stronger gravitational force will result in a shorter period. Therefore, the period of a pendulum can be used as a standard unit of time, which can in turn be used to define a standard unit of length. In the case of the 1.0 m pendulum on Earth, its period is approximately 2.0064 seconds, while on the moon, its period is approximately 3.137 seconds, due to the weaker gravitational force.

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The x and y component of the vector are -18.32 m and 3.23 m respectively.

The x and y component of the vector is calculated by applying the following formula.

Bx = B cosθ

By = B sinθ

where;

The vector is located in negative x direction but positive y direction.

The angle of the vector from x axis = 90⁰ - 80⁰ = 10⁰

Bx = B cosθ  =  -18.6 m x cos ( 10 ) = -18.32 m

By = B sinθ = 18.6 m x sin ( 10 ) = 3.23 m

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Answer:

false

A hypothesis states a presumed relationship between two variables in a way that can be tested with empirical data. ... The cause is called the independent variable; and the effect is called the dependent variable.

The time that takes for the train that is traveling with an initial velocity of 20.1 m/s to stop is 402 seconds.    

The time that will take for the train to stop can be calculated with the following kinematic equation:

\( v_{f} = v_{i} + at \)   (1)

Where:

\( v_{f}\): is the final velocity = 0 (when it stops)

\( v_{i}\): is the intial velocity = 20.1 m/s

a: is the acceleration = -0.0500 m/s²

t: is the time =?

By solving equation (1) for t, we have:

\( t = \frac{v_{f} - v_{i}}{a} = \frac{0 - 20.1 m/s}{-0.0500 m/s^{2}} = 402 s \)

Therefore, it will take 402 seconds for the train to stop.  

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The energy of the car at the point that have been marked C is 290 J option D

Roller coasters must adhere to the crucial notion of energy conservation. Roller coasters are built to effectively transform potential energy into kinetic energy and vice versa while making sure that the system's overall energy level stays consistent.

The car has the most potential energy and the least kinetic energy at the top of a roller coaster, which is typically at the top of a hill. The pull of gravity causes potential energy to progressively transform into kinetic energy as the car descends. The car's potential energy diminishes as its speed rises.

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Option D: wind spinning turbine blades spins a turbine to generate electricity in a concentrated solar power (CSP) system.

A turbine in CSP system uses wind to transform kinetic energy into electrical energy. A rotary machine is a water turbine. It produces mechanical work by converting the kinetic energy of wind. After that, the work is turned into electrical energy. They are mostly employed in the creation of electric power. Dams employ water turbines to harness the potential energy of the water to produce electricity. Similar to this, a water turbine transforms kinetic energy into electrical energy to produce power.

Potential energy can be found in electrical batteries. The battery stores its electrical potential energy as the electrons flow from the cathode to the anode. This chemical potential energy is then transformed into electrical energy. The chemical energy is changed into electrical energy in this situation.

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Because ultraviolet light may be absorbed by the filler substance, but not by the lamp's light. Because UV light extracts energy from the filler substance while lamp light does not.

Ultraviolet Rays in the electromagnetic Spectrum Ultraviolet rays are a kind of electromagnetic radiation that extends from the visible light spectrum to the X-ray area.

Harmful rays have a long-term effect on humans, causing skin and eye problems. It is also a source of Vitamin C.

Because ultraviolet light may be absorbed by the filler substance, but not by the lamp's light. Because UV light extracts energy from the filler substance while lamp light does not,

Hence light from the ultraviolet flashlight harden the filling when light from the lamp does not.

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Suppose a parachutist is falling toward the ground, and the downward force of gravity is exactly equal to the upward force of air resistance. In this scenario, the true statement is that the parachutist has reached terminal velocity.

Terminal velocity is the constant speed attained by a freely falling object when the opposing forces of gravity and air resistance become equal. At this point, there is no net force acting on the parachutist, and the acceleration becomes zero. As a result, the parachutist maintains a constant speed during the descent.

When a parachutist initially jumps out of the aircraft, the downward force of gravity exceeds air resistance, and they accelerate towards the ground. As their speed increases, so does the air resistance acting against them. Eventually, these two forces balance each other out, and the parachutist reaches terminal velocity, allowing them to fall at a constant speed until they deploy their parachute to slow down and land safely. The true statement is that the parachutist has reached terminal velocity.

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Girl u in the same class as me I need help too.

The head loss along a 100 m length of smooth pipe with a diameter of 10 cm, through which water is flowing at a velocity of 5 m/s, is 10.2 m.

What is Velocity?

Velocity is a physical quantity that refers to the rate of change of displacement with respect to time. In other words, it is the rate at which an object changes its position with respect to a reference point in a given direction, per unit time.

To calculate the head loss, we can use the Darcy-Weisbach equation:

hL = f (L/D) (\(v^{2}\)/2g)

where hL is the head loss, f is the friction factor, L is the length of the pipe, D is the diameter of the pipe, v is the velocity of the fluid, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Assuming smooth pipe, we can use the Colebrook-White equation to determine the friction factor, which is given by:

(1/sqrt(f)) = -2.0 log10[(e/D)/3.7 + 2.51/(Re \(\sqrt{f}\))]

where e is the roughness of the pipe, and Re is the Reynolds number.

For smooth pipes, e/D is usually very small and can be neglected. The Reynolds number is given by:

Re = (vD)/ν

where ν is the kinematic viscosity of the fluid.

Substituting the given values, we get:

D = 0.1 m

v = 5 m/s

L = 100 m

g = 9.81 m/\(s^{2}\)

ν = 1.004 x \(10^{-6}\) \(m^{2}\)/s (for water at 20°C)

Re = (5 x 0.1)/1.004 x \(10^{-6}\) = 498,009

Using the Colebrook-White equation and an iterative method, we get f = 0.0189.

Substituting these values in the Darcy-Weisbach equation, we get:

hL = 0.0189 (100/0.1) (\(5^{2}\)/2 x 9.81) = 10.2 m

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Answer:

when the ball falls down

Explanation:

because gravity is a very strong Force

Answer:

a

Explanation:a