a client with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin for seizure control which instruction about phenytoin

Answers

Answer 1

The nurse is questioned by a client having epilepsy who is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) and has not experienced any seizures.

What is the purpose of the medicine phenytoin?

Descriptions. Phenytoin is a medication used to treat epilepsy that helps control seizures (convulsions), especially myoclonic (grand mal) as well as psychomotor (temporal lobe) convulsions. Furthermore, it is used to both stop and control seizures that develop after brain surgery.

Why would a patient take phenytoin?

Inside the treatment of epilepsy, phenytoin is used to manage seizures (convulsions), particularly antinociceptive (grand mal) and sensorimotor (temporal lobe) seizures. Additionally, this is applied to both prevent and manage seizures that happen during brain surgery.

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The complete question is: What instructions should be given to a client with epilepsy who is prescribed phenytoin for seizure control?


Related Questions

nursing diagnosis is most significant in planning the care for a client with Raynaud's disease? A) Acute Pain B) Disturbed Sensory Perception C) Self-Care Deficit D) Activity Intolerance

Answers

Nursing diagnosis is most significant in planning the care for a client with Raynaud's disease would be B) Disturbed Sensory Perception. This is because Raynaud's disease affects blood flow to the extremities, causing numbness, tingling, and coolness in the affected areas. Focusing on addressing these sensory changes will help ensure proper care and management of the client's condition.

Nursing diagnosis is a critical component of the nursing process and is used to identify actual or potential health problems that require nursing interventions. In the case of Raynaud's disease, a nursing diagnosis helps to identify the specific needs of the client and the appropriate interventions to address those needs.

Acute Pain would also be a relevant nursing diagnosis, as Raynaud's disease can cause significant discomfort and pain during vasoconstriction episodes. However, pain management interventions would be included as a part of the broader plan of care for a client with Disturbed Sensory Perception.

Self-Care Deficit and Activity Intolerance may also be relevant nursing diagnoses, depending on the severity of the client's Raynaud's disease and its impact on their ability to perform activities of daily living. However, these diagnoses would likely be secondary to Disturbed Sensory Perception in terms of their significance in planning care for the client.

In summary, a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Sensory Perception would be the most significant in planning the care for a client with Raynaud's disease, as it would help to identify the specific needs related to sensory function, injury prevention, and pain management.

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The medial meniscus is located within a suture joint.
(A) True
(B) False

Answers

The medial meniscus is located within a suture joint.

Answer: False

The medial meniscus is located between the medial condyles of the tibia and femur. Thus, the statement is False.

Where is the medial meniscus located?

The medial meniscus is a semicircular cartilage that is present between the medial condyles of femur and tibia, spanning the knee joint.

The medial condyles are the rounded parts of the femur and tibia bones located in the inner side of the knee.

The anterior end of the medial meniscus is attached to the anterior intercondylar fossa of the tibia, whereas its posterior end is attached to the intercondylar fossa of the tibia.

Any injury to the tibial collateral ligament also causes injury to the medial meniscus.

Suture joints are those that are present in the skull, that is in the cranial structure. They are an immovable type of joint and attach firmly to the interlocking edges of the cranial bone.

Thus, the given statement is False.

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according to a study conducted by the european public health alliance more illicit drug use than the u.s.

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Hungary has some of the strictest drug prohibitions in the European Union, with possession of illegal drugs in tiny amounts (without distinction) punishable by two years in jail.

Decriminalization promotes both public safety and public health.

Three key results emerge from data from nations that have decreased or eliminated criminal sanctions for drug possession: There was no rise in drug usage or crime.

In 2022, reported usage of any illegal substance in the previous year remained at or below pre-pandemic levels for all grades, with 11% of eighth pupils, 21.5% of tenth graders, and 32.6% of twelfth graders reporting any illicit drug use in the previous year.

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You are the office manager for a busy primary care practice.over the past week you have notice that the one of your employees has been 15 minutes late every day.should you approach this employee? If so how do you manage the situation? What are the main points you would want to stress to this employee? Are there any consequences? What follow-up if any should be done

Answers

Answer:

Whether it’s bad traffic, oversleeping or caring for a sick pet, employees offer up lots of different excuses when they show up late for work. As the manager, you may overlook it the first time. But what if it becomes a pattern?

Employee lateness is a widespread problem. A 2016 survey by CareerBuilder found that one in four employees admits to showing up late for work once a month, whereas 13 percent of employees say it’s a weekly occurrence. Managers say they hear all sorts of excuses: “A black bear entered my carport and decided to take a nap on the hood of my car.” “I was detained by Homeland Security.” “My hair caught on fire from my blow dryer.”

Employees who rarely arrive late to work should probably be given the benefit of the doubt—as there are valid reasons for being late. (Tires really do go flat!) But it’s generally in a manager’s best interest to confront employees who frequently—or always—show up late.

Late employees can reduce business productivity, especially if they aren’t making up for lost work time at the end of their shifts. Moreover, it hurts the morale and work ethic of other employees who might resent that the late arrivers aren’t getting called out or disciplined for their lateness. It might even encourage other employees to start showing up late to work if they see no consequence for the bad behavior.

But don’t despair. Businesses have many opportunities to boost the odds that employees will show up when they’re supposed to. Here are ways to discourage employees from arriving late, as well as how to deal with those who regularly do:

Explanation:


Explain how you think JIT techniques can be used to meet the
needs of patients in the maternity ward for a variety of supplies,
in just the right quantity at just the right time.

Answers

JIT techniques enable the maternity ward to have the right quantity of supplies at the right time. This ensures that the needs of patients are met efficiently, reducing the risk of shortages and improving patient care.

JIT (Just-in-Time) techniques can be effectively used to meet the needs of patients in the maternity ward by ensuring a timely and accurate supply of necessary items. By implementing JIT, the hospital can maintain an inventory system that is closely aligned with the demand for supplies in the maternity ward.

Firstly, JIT techniques involve closely monitoring the consumption patterns of supplies in the maternity ward. This includes tracking the frequency of use and the quantity of each item used. By analyzing this data, the hospital can identify the optimal reorder points for each supply item. This ensures that supplies are ordered and delivered just in time before they run out, minimizing the risk of shortages.

Additionally, JIT techniques can be used to establish strong relationships with suppliers. By partnering with reliable suppliers, the hospital can ensure a smooth and efficient supply chain. This includes establishing clear communication channels and setting up streamlined processes for ordering and delivery.

Furthermore, JIT techniques also encourage effective inventory management practices. This includes storing supplies in a well-organized manner, minimizing excess inventory, and adopting a first-in, first-out (FIFO) approach. This helps to prevent wastage and ensures that supplies are used before their expiration dates.

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Which would most likely affect a patient who has dementia, and how can it be avoided?
O changes in light levels; avoided by adjusting the levels of light in the room
changes in eating times; avoided by making sure the patient eats at the same time every day
O location of condiments and beverages at mealtimes; avoided by identifying the location of each item
O location of furniture and electrical cords; avoided by keeping them out of areas where a patient walks

Answers

Answer:

Location of condiments and beverages at mealtimes

Explanation:

They need to know their foods and remember what they like to eat and what not. It is kinda hard because you also want them to know their surroundings but food is better because with food can help them remember little by little if the have "brain food"

answer this question for me

answer this question for me

Answers

Answer:

C I can't see d so i'm just going to go with c

Explanation:

The answer is C the basilar membrane vibrates more intensely.

Which stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics? A. unconventional B. conventional C. preconventional D. postconventional

Answers

Answer:

D. postconventional

Explanation:

Edg

Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).

What is Kohlberg's theory?

Kohlberg's theory focuses on the thought process that occurs when one decides whether a behavior is right or wrong. Therefore, the theoretical emphasis is on how one decides to respond to a moral dilemma, not what one decides or actually does.

There are different levels of this theory which are as follows:

Stage 1: Obedience and punishment

Stage 2: Self-interest.

Stage 3: Interpersonal accord and conformity

Stage 4: Authority and maintaining social order

Stage 5: Social contract

Stage 6: Universal ethical principles.

Pre-conventional levelConventional levelPost conventional level

The right behavior of the individual, in his opinion at the post conventional level, is therefore never a means to an end, but always an end in itself, not everyone reaches this level.

Thus, Postconventional stage of Kohlberg's theory of moral reasoning is based on one's personal code of ethics. So, the correct option is (D).

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Which abbreviation represents a certified laboratory professional?
CCU
CLIA
MLS
RN

Answers

Answer:

CCU means Coronary Care Unit

CLIA means Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments

MLS means Medical Laboratory Scientist

RN Registered Nurse

Out of all those options MLS is the answer.

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Since one mL of water weighs 1 g, how many grams of water are needed to prepare #60 2-g suppositories using the following recipe?
Glycerin suppositories
Glycerin 70 parts
Gelatin 20 parts
Purified water 10 parts
PER
Calendar
+ Venu
O 848
Inbox
O 128
History
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O 120 g
SITE
Studio
0248
Lauren les

Answers

It is given that, 2 g of suppositories is needed to prepare. The part of water in the whole of the given composition is 10. The 10% of 2 g is 0.2 g. Therefore, 0.2 g of water that is 0.2 ml of water is needed for the given recipe.

What is percentage composition?

The percentage composition of a compound or sample is the percentage fraction of each of its constituent components. For example, if we consider the compound  magnesium carbonate pentahydrate, we can say the percentage composition for each component magnesium carbonate and water.

The density of water is 1 g/ml. Hence, 1 gm of water is equivalent to the volume of  1 ml for water. Given that, for making 2 g of the suppositories, 10 parts of water is required. Take this as the percentage composition of water in 2 g.

Hence, 10% of water is needed.  

10 % of  2  = 10/100× 2 = 0.2 g

Therefore, 0.2 g or 0.2 ml of water is required.

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The nurse is planning care for a client at risk for postpartum depression. Which statement regarding postpartum depression does the nurse need to be aware of when attempting to formulate a plan of care?

Answers

Answer:

Assist mothers with physical and emotional support

Explanation:

Postpartum are medical professional nurses who help the mothers of new born during the days following the birth of child. They provide emotional and physical support to the mothers of new born to help them speedy recovery. The six weeks after the birth of a baby is considered as postpartum period. There is a condition when mother feels down and cries a lot after the birth of a baby. This seems to be the condition of postpartum depression.

Which one of the following is an effective means of treatment for genital warts?
A) surgery
B) cryotherapy
C) podofilox and imiquimod gels
D) acyclovir
E) nine-valent vaccination

Answers

B) Cryotherapy is an effective means of treatment for genital warts.

Cryotherapy, which involves freezing the genital warts, is considered an effective treatment option for managing genital warts. This method utilizes extreme cold to destroy the warts and remove them from the skin surface. By targeting the warts directly, cryotherapy aims to eliminate the visible symptoms and improve the overall condition of the affected area.

During the procedure, a healthcare professional applies liquid nitrogen or another freezing agent to the warts. This freezing agent causes the warts to blister and eventually fall off, allowing healthy skin to regenerate in its place. Cryotherapy is a relatively quick and straightforward procedure that can be performed in a healthcare provider's office.

Cryotherapy is effective in treating genital warts because it specifically targets the warts themselves, reducing their size and ultimately eliminating them. It can be used for single or multiple warts, and it offers a good success rate with minimal side effects. However, it's important to note that multiple cryotherapy sessions may be required to completely eradicate the warts, as they may reappear or require further treatment.

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Student A: Jazmin is really interested in cooking and health. She has heared that it is healthier to eat raw food because cooking food damages some of the nutrients in the food. She is thinking of baking carrots at different temperatures in an oven. RQ: How does heating carrots at different temperatures affect vitamin C concentration

Answers

Answer:

cooking at lower temperatures and shorter time will preserve more vit c

Explanation:

vitamin C can be preserved at 70 degrees Celsius anything higher will affect the vitamin c

Heating at different temperatures may affect vit c, for example if she bakes them to high.

A patient asks the nurse what can be given to alleviate severe, chronic pain of several months' duration. The patient has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] and states that it is no longer effective. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider

Answers

The nurse will give Opioids of other types or Ibuprofen, also non-drug treatment can be given such as exercise, acupuncture etc.

Opioids ,often known as narcotics, are a class of medication that are substances, either manufactured or natural, which interact with nerve cells and may lessen pain . Opioid are frequently prescribed by medical professionals to treat pain.

Opioids however, can be addictive since they not only lessen pain but also generate euphoria. This can cause tolerance to develop, which means that higher doses are required to have the same effect.

Ibuprofen is used to treat a variety of pains, including headaches , arthritis, menstrual cramps, dental pain etc. A non - steroidal anti-inflammatory medicine is ibuprofen (NSAID)

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Chronic pain may be brought on by an underlying illness or condition, an injury, a medical procedure, an inflammatory condition, or an unidentified reason. Acute pain and chronic pain frequently coexist.

Which analgesic is used for extreme pain?

Narcotics, commonly known as opioids, need to be prescribed by a doctor and are used to treat moderate to severe pain. They could develop into habits. When used with alcohol or other drugs, they can potentially be harmful. Codeine, heroin, and oxycodone are a few examples of narcotics.

What drug is used to treat acute and persistent moderate to severe pain?

Amitriptyline and nortriptyline are two examples of the tricyclic antidepressants used to relieve chronic pain Pamela. Venlafaxine Cymbalta, venlafaxine Effexor XR, and other serotonin as well as norepinephrine transport inhibitors (SNRIs) may be used to treat chronic pain.

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A nurse is educating a woman with type 1 diabetes. Which statement made by the nurse is true regarding alcohol consumption?

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A nurse is educating a woman with type 1 diabetes. One statement the nurse made about alcohol consumption was ''you shouldn't drink alcohol because you could have hypoglycemia without knowing it.''

What is diabetes?

Diabetes is a condition in which the sugar content in the blood exceeds normal and tends to be high. Diabetes Mellitus (DM) occurs as a result of an unhealthy lifestyle which causes accumulation of sugar levels in the blood and is above the normal threshold which is chronic and long term.

Type 1 diabetes is characterized by damage to the pancreas in producing insulin, while type 2 diabetes is characterized by the failure of the insulin itself.

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a physician prescribed skelaxin 400mg tid x10 days for back pain. the available strength is skelaxin 800mg scored tablets how many tablets are needed for the entire prescripton

Answers

The quantity of tablet that is needed for the entire prescription are = 15 tablets

Calculation of dosage of drug

The desired dosage (D)= 400mg

The on hand dose (H) = 800mg/tab

The amount needed to be administered (A) = 400/800

= 0.5mg/tab

The quantity of tablet that would be given for 3 times daily for 10 days= 0.5 × 3×10

= 15 tablets

Therefore, the quantity of tablet that is needed for the entire prescription are = 15 tablets

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the nurse is reporting to an oncoming nurse about the care of a client using the sbar format. the nurse informs the oncoming nurse that the client should continue to have neurological checks every 2 hours and the nurse should report any alterations to the health care provider. in which section should this information be relayed?

Answers

The information regarding the client's neurological checks and reporting of any alterations to the healthcare provider should be relayed in the "Recommendation" section of the SBAR format.

In the SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) format, each section serves a specific purpose to facilitate effective communication between healthcare professionals. The "Recommendation" section is where the nurse communicates their suggestions or plans for the client's care.

In this case, the nurse is advising the oncoming nurse to continue performing neurological checks on the client every 2 hours and to promptly report any changes to the healthcare provider.

By including this information in the "Recommendation" section, the nurse ensures that the oncoming nurse receives clear instructions on the ongoing care requirements for the client. This allows for continuity of care and ensures that the client's condition is closely monitored.

Additionally, by emphasizing the need to report alterations to the healthcare provider, the nurse emphasizes the importance of prompt communication and the involvement of the responsible healthcare professionals.

Overall, relaying the information about the client's neurological checks and reporting of alterations in the "Recommendation" section of the SBAR format enables the oncoming nurse to understand the specific actions required to maintain the client's well-being and facilitates effective communication among the healthcare team.

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Describe how individual learning styles affect the degree to which a learner can understand or perform educational activities.

Answers

Answer:

Finding out a student's learning style reveals details about their particular preferences. Understanding learning styles can make it simpler to construct, alter, and create curricula and educational programs that are more effective. Learning styles influence learning outcomes through learning motivation, therefore pupils with a visual learning style and strong learning drive would perform better academically than those with auditory and kinesthetic learning preferences. The level to which a student can comprehend or complete educational tasks depends on their particular learning styles. Some students learn better via seeing, hearing, or feeling because they are more visual, auditory, or kinesthetic.

Doctor determined that Caie had an inflammation of the blood veel. What term did Caey' doctor ue to decribe hi condition

Answers

Vasculitis is the inflammation of the blood vessels.

why shouldn't you use an AED on someone having a heart attack​

Answers

Answer:

Remember, a heart attack can turn into cardiac arrest if the heart becomes damaged. If the person is not responsive when you yell at him, assume it is CARDIAC ARREST and start CPR.

Explanation:

The  AED      

could change the heartbeat pattern

Match each muscle with its corresponding motor innervation. Each nerve can be used more than once. Be as specific as possible.11. Temporalis m. A. Oculomotor n.12. Sternohyoid m. B. Trochlear n.13. Stapedius m. C. Trigeminal n.14. Superior Oblique m. D. Mandibular n.15. Levator Labii Superioris m. E. Abducens n.16. Tensor Tympani m. F. Facial n.17. Lateral Rectus m. G. Vagus n.18. Superior Rectus m. H. Cervical Ansa19. Lateral Pterygoid m. 20. Levator Veli Palatini m.

Answers

11. Temporalis m. - (C). Trigeminal n.

12. Sternohyoid m. - (H). Cervical Ansa

13. Stapedius m. - (A). Oculomotor n.

14. Superior Oblique m. - (E). Abducens n.

15. Levator Labii Superioris m. - (F). Facial n.

16. Tensor Tympani m. - (C). Trigeminal n.

17. Lateral Rectus m. - (G). Vagus n.

18. Superior Rectus m. - (A). Oculomotor n.

19. Lateral Pterygoid m. - (C). Trigeminal n.

20. Levator Veli Palatini m. - (G). Vagus n.

The motor innervations for the muscles listed are as follows:

11. Temporalis m. - Innervated by the trigeminal nerve (specifically the mandibular branch).

12. Sternohyoid m. - Innervated by the cervical ansa, which is a loop formed by the branches of the cervical spinal nerves.

13. Stapedius m. - Innervated by the facial nerve (specifically the branch called the chorda tympani, which is a part of the facial nerve).

14. Superior Oblique m. - Innervated by the trochlear nerve.

15. Levator Labii Superioris m. - Innervated by the facial nerve.

16. Tensor Tympani m. - Innervated by the trigeminal nerve (specifically the mandibular branch).

17. Lateral Rectus m. - Innervated by the abducens nerve.

18. Superior Rectus m. - Innervated by the oculomotor nerve.

19. Lateral Pterygoid m. - Innervated by the trigeminal nerve (specifically the mandibular branch).

20. Levator Veli Palatini m. - Innervated by the vagus nerve.

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Baby Harris Scenario 1 You are concerned about this baby four hours after birth because he is now exhibiting excessive crying, irritability, and has a high-pitched cry. Your treatment plan should include:

Answers

Your treatment plan should include:

Opioids as first line of treatment.Phenobarbital as second line of effective treatment.

What is Treatment?

This is referred to the medical care given to an ill or injured individual known as the patient.

Maternal history of prenatal drug exposure and std tests should be done before opioids etc can be considered as treatment plans.

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why is it important for jessica to have her blood levels of the antiepileptic medications checked on a regular basis

Answers

Answer:Blood tests are often checked before starting an antiepileptic drug (AED). Blood tests may be done again after you have been taking the seizure medicine for a while, especially if there’s been a change in dose or if you have a change in how you feel.How often blood tests are done depends on each seizure medicine, the need for monitoring, and other health problems you have or medicines you take. The frequency of testing also varies from doctor to doctor and even country to country.

The frequency of blood tests to check for side effects depends on the medicine you take. Many of the older seizure medicines need more monitoring than the newer ones.

Blood tests may be done before starting a drug then periodically once you are on the medicine. Some medicines may need blood tests every few weeks or months when starting the medicine. After a person is used to the medicine, these blood tests may be needed only once in a while or if problems develop. Other medicines, especially some of the newer ones, need blood test monitoring much less often if at all.

Blood tests to measure the amount of medicine in your system can also vary. Again, blood levels of the older medicines are done more often to help guide changes in doses. Well-established ranges for blood levels are available for the older drugs, but not as much for newer seizures medicines. For some of the newer seizure medicines, tests for blood levels may not be available or helpful in adjusting doses of a medicine.

Explanation:Blood tests may be done to check how much medicine is in your body, usually called drug or AED levels. (AED stands for antiepileptic drugs)

Blood tests may also be used to see how your body is tolerating the medicine. The types of blood test will vary depending on what possible side effects may be seen with your seizure medicine. These blood tests may include levels of electrolytes (substances in the body such as sodium and potassium), kidneys and liver function, and blood cell counts (such as white blood cells, red blood cells, platelet counts).The best way to tell if a medicine is working is to talk to you and your family. How often seizures occur and if you have any side effects that bother you is often more important than a blood test. This information comes from you and your family, not a test.

The blood level helps the doctor judge if the medicine dose is high enough, too high, or if it may be time for a change. It’s a piece of information that is looked at together with how you feel. The doctor or nurse will also want to do a ‘neuro exam’ that can help pick up side effects of medicines. So remember:

The blood level is only a guide. Some people will do well at low levels of medicine. Other people may need higher amounts.

Results of a blood level need to be looked together with other information.

A nursing student is preparing a teaching plan about peptic ulcer disease. The student knows to include teaching about the percentage of clients with peptic ulcers who experience bleeding. The percentage is15%Less than 5%25%Greater than 50%

Answers

A nursing student is preparing a teaching plan about peptic ulcer disease. The student knows to include teaching about the percentage of clients with peptic ulcers who experience bleeding. The percentage is 15%.

Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) refers to painful sores or ulcers that develop in the lining of the stomach or upper portion of the small intestine. Peptic ulcer disease may cause the following symptoms: Stomach discomfortLoss of appetiteBloatingNauseaVomitingHeartburnBloody stoolsDifficulty in breathing increased heart rate feeling of faintness and light-headednessDiagnosis and treatment of peptic ulcer disease following tests may be used to diagnose peptic ulcer disease: Blood test-tool testEndoscopyUpper gastrointestinal series treatment may involve medications such as proton pump inhibitors, H2 receptor blockers, or antibiotics. Surgery may be required in some cases of peptic ulcer disease. The percentage of clients with peptic ulcers who experience bleeding is 15%. Peptic ulcer disease is primarily caused by the bacteria Helicobacter pylori. In some cases, certain medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or corticosteroids, may cause peptic ulcer disease. The percentage of clients with peptic ulcers who experience bleeding is 15%. Bleeding peptic ulcers may require hospitalization and urgent treatment, including endoscopic therapy, blood transfusions, and medications to stop bleeding.

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Analyze Rufaro experimental results and use the results to fill in the name of the antibiotic you will want to prescribe to the patient

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

eight out of the 9 trainees prescribed the antibiotics, whereas 7 out of the 12 GPs did so. On the basis of a Bayesian analysis, these results yield reasonable statistical evidence in favor of the notion that experienced GPs are more likely to withstand the pressure to prescribe antibiotics than trainee doctors.

When working with a client with post traumatic stress disorder (ptsd), who has frequent flashbacks, the nurse should include which intervention?

Answers

When working with a client with post traumatic stress disorder who has flashbacks the nurse should include exposure therapy. It help patients to face and control their fear.

This exposure therapy is used along with cognitive therapy. It helps the patients to face both situations and memories that frightened you so that you can learn to cope with the situations.

The main treatment for PTSD  are medications and psychotherapy. In medication antidepressants are included which help in sadness, worry, anger and feelings. Cognitive restructuring is also helpful in PTSD.

Cognitive restructuring helps people to make sense of the bad memories. It helps the patients to face the reality.

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immediately after his one year of surgical residence at toronto’s hospital for sick children, fred banting opened his own practice to see patients.

Answers

The foremost approach that has been used to discover the 3-dimensional structure of molecules, which includes proteins, at atomic decision is x-ray crystallography.

Which chemical techniques are used for shape determination?

There are a variety of methods for shape determination, such as X-ray crystallography, cryo-electron microscopy, NMR spectroscopy, etc. The clarification of molecular geometry, as properly as the digital shape of the target molecule, is vital when a chemical structure is determined.

How does insulin work?

When you eat, your physique breaks food down into sugar and sends it into the blood. Insulin then helps pass the sugar from the blood into your cells. When sugar enters your cells, it is either used as gasoline for strength right away or stored for later use. In a character with diabetes, there is a hassle with insulin.

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the nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 72-year-old client who has been discharged home on a diuretic. what should the nurse include when providing discharge instructions regarding the use of a diuretic at home?

Answers

The nurse should include when providing discharge instructions regarding the use of a diuretic at home the instruction as To weigh themselves on the same scale, at the same time of day, in the same clothing.

Diuretics To accurately gauge how well furosemide is working, it's important to keep track of the patient's clinical state, daily weight, fluid consumption, urine output, electrolytes, such as potassium and magnesium, kidney function via serum creatinine, and blood urea nitrogen levels.Concerns for nursesMaintain a close eye on your weight, consumption, output, and serum electrolyte levels. Analyze your blood sugar levels (some agents may cause hyperglycemia). Check the levels of creatinine and blood urea nitrogen often. For nocturia prevention, provide diuretics in the morning.For the purpose of determining diuretic tolerance, electrolyte has to be routinely monitored. Physicians should closely monitor fluid status and renal function in patients with severe renal failure who have signs of fluid overload to stop the development of oliguria, BUN, creatinine elevations, and azotemia.

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Complete question :: The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 72-year-old patient who has been discharged home on a diuretic. What would the patient's instructions regarding the use of a diuretic at home include?

A) Measuring intake and output of urine

B) To weigh themselves on the same scale, at the same time of day, in the same clothing.

C) Restrict fluids to 500 mL/d to limit the need to urinate

D) Decrease exercise to conserve energy

Select factors that may affect a patient's preferences or the way a patient perceives his or her care. (Check all of the boxes that apply)

Answers

Answer: expertise of staff or financial resources.

Explanation:

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate are: O Not isomers Interconvertible Intermediates of the citric acid cycle Inexplicable

Answers

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate are interconvertible isomers.

Glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone are both three-carbon monosaccharides, and they are structural isomers of each other. They're both ketones and aldehydes of each other. They're both interconvertible because of this.The carbonyl is situated at the end of the molecule in glyceraldehyde, whereas in dihydroxyacetone, it is situated in the middle of the molecule.

Thus, they are both ketones and aldehydes of each other.When glyceraldehyde is phosphorylated, it becomes glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, which is an intermediate in glycolysis. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is generated through dihydroxyacetone phosphate in the second phase of glycolysis as an isomer of the dihydroxyacetone phosphate intermediate.

Therefore, Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate are interconvertible isomers.

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