Answers
The nurse notes that the capillary refill takes less than two seconds.
What is a capillary refill?
A capillary refill test also known as CRT, it’s a rapid test. It is used for assessment of blood flow through the peripheral tissues.
It is quick and reliable and helps detect changes in blood flow that may lead to shock. It is done on nail beds. Apart from monitoring blood flow to tissues, it also takes note of dehydration.
The capillary test is performed by applying pressure to the nail bed till it turns white. This is an indication of the blood flowing from the tissue to under the nail. This is known as blanching. Once blanching is achieved, the pressure is removed.
Health care personnel measure the time required by the blood to get back to the tissue as the person holds their hands over their hearts.
Therefore, the nurse notes that the capillary refill takes less than two seconds.
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Related Questions
How many calories would the American Academy of Pediatrics initially recommend for a 3. 3 pound infant that was born at 32 weeks gestation
Answers
Answer:
Infants need to eat about 35 to 50 calories per pound, while toddlers require roughly 35 to 40 calories per pound, according to guidelines from the American Academy of Pediatrics. It is recommended for a 3. 3-pound infant that was born at 32 weeks gestation.
How many bone in our body ?
Answers
Answer:
Bones provide the structure for our bodies . The adult human skeleton is made up of 206 bones . These include the bones of the skull , spine (vertebrae) , ribs , arms and legs.Explanation:
l hope it helps ❤❤Answer the statistical measures and create a box and whiskers plot for the following set of data.
6, 6, 7, 7, 7, 8, 8, 10, 11, 11, 12, 17, 19
6,6,7,7,7,8,8,10,11,11,12,17,19
Min:
Q1:
Med:
Q3:
Max:
Create the box plot by dragging the lines:
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
2,5,7,8,8, 10, 11, 12, 14, 14, 15, 16, 18, 18, 19
a client asks the nurse why vitamin c intake is so important during pregnancy. how should the nurse respond?
Answers
The nurse should explain to the client that Vitamin C is crucial during pregnancy as it supports the growth and development of the fetus, ensures a healthy immune system, and reduces the risk of complications during pregnancy.
It is important for pregnant women to consume Vitamin C-rich foods such as citrus fruits, strawberries, broccoli, and tomatoes. The nurse may also recommend taking Vitamin C supplements if necessary, but only after consulting with a healthcare provider.
During pregnancy, it is important for women to have a healthy and balanced diet in order to support both the mother and the growing fetus. One important nutrient that plays a critical role during pregnancy is Vitamin C. Vitamin C is an antioxidant that helps in the formation of collagen, which is an essential component of the skin, bones, and blood vessels. It also helps the body absorb iron, which is important for the formation of red blood cells.
Vitamin C also plays a vital role in the development of the baby's nervous system and brain. Studies have shown that adequate intake of Vitamin C during pregnancy can reduce the risk of premature birth and low birth weight. It also helps to boost the immune system, which is important for the mother and the baby.
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a stroke patient can recognize the sound of his wife's voice but cannot recognize her face when she stands next to him. which brain region has most likely been damaged?
Answers
Answer:
Fusiform Gyrus
Explanation:
The fusiform gyrus is said to play a role in facial recognition. It is located on the inferior portion of the temporal lobe.
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a laminectomy with spinal fusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
b. Assist the client into a knee-chest position to manage postoperative discomfort.
c. Maintain strict bed rest for the first 48 hours postoperative.
d. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position if clear drainage is noted on the dressing.a. Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
Answers
The action which a nurse should take when taking care of a patient who is postoperative following a laminectomy with spinal fusion is:
Monitor sensory perception of the lower extremities.
The correct answer choice is option a.
What is meant by laminectomy?Laminectomy refers to surgical procedure which creates an opening by way of removing tissues concerned with arthritis of the spine. However, this help to allow the passages of substances to be removed from the spine.
From the context of the task given above, it is expedient that a well trained healthcare provider monitors the perception of the lower extremities of patient with such health condition in order to help manage while caring for him or her.
In conclusion, it can be deduced from the explanation given above that a client with such health condition needs to be monitored properly.
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-¿Qué son los músculos Isquiotibiales ? -Origen -Inserción -Antagonista -Sinergista -Dibujar los músculos y poner sus nombres. -¿Cuáles son las funciones de los músculos isquiotibiales?
Answers
Respuesta y explicación:
Los músculos isquiotibiales son un grupo de músculos ubicados en el compartimento posterior del muslo, que reciben su nombre debido a su inserción proximal en el isquion del hueso coxal y su inserción distal en la tibia. Los músculos isquiotibiales son: el semitendinoso, el semimembranoso, y el bíceps femoral (aunque solo su cabeza larga se inserta en el hueso coxal).
Tienen un rol muy importante en la extensión del muslo sobre la cadera y también en la flexión de la pierna sobre el muslo cuando el sujeto se encuentra de pie.
Los músculos isquiotibiales tienen como antagonista al cuádriceps femoral, que se encuentra en el compartimiento anterior del muslo y se encarga de la flexión del muslo sobre la cadera y de la extensión de la pierna sobre el muslo. El antagonista se opone al músculo agonista (el que realiza el movimiento).
El sinergista es aquel que facilita el movimiento del agonista, en este caso, los músculos sinergistas son el gastrocnemio, el sartorio, el poplíteo y el grácil.
El músculo semitendinoso se origina en la tuberosidad isquiática y se inserta en la superficie medial del extremo superior de la tibia.
El músculo semimembranoso se origina en la tuberosidad isquiática y se inserta en el cóndilo medial de la tibia.
La cabeza larga del músculo bíceps femoral también se origina en la tuberosidad isquiática, mientras que la cabeza corta se origina en la línea áspera del fémur; y se inserta en el extremo superior del peroné.
Throughout the pregnancy, as the uterus enlarges and stretches, the uterine ____________ prepares itself for uterine contractions. In the later stages of pregnancy, the increasing levels of ____________ counteract the calming influence of ____________ on the uterine myometrium, and ____________ the uterine myometrium sensitivity.
Answers
During pregnancy, MYOMETRUM prepares for contractions. In the later stages, increasing levels of ESTROGEN counteract PROGESTERONE on the myometrium and INCREASE its sensitivity. Estrogen is a sex hormone.
Estrogen and progesterone are the main sex hormones that women have.
A woman produces a high level of estrogen during pregnancy in order to improve vascularization of the uterus and placenta.
This hormone (estrogen) promotes the production of receptors for oxytocin hormone in the myometrium.
Estrogen plays a fundamental role in expanding the myometrium during pregnancy and the contractile response before and during labor pregnancy.
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When teaching diaphragmatic breathing to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which information should the nurse provide
Answers
The stomach, abdominal muscles, and diaphragm are all fully engaged during "belly breathing," also known as diaphragmatic breathing. This entails actively drawing the diaphragm downward with each inhalation. Diaphragmatic breathing facilitates more effective lung filling in this way.
What is the goal of diaphragmatic breathing?The goal of diaphragmatic breathing is to assist you in properly using your diaphragm while breathing. Your body will get various advantages from using this breathing technique, including decreased blood pressure, a slower heartbeat, and increased relaxation.
What information should nurse provide about diaphragmatic breathing?Nurse should provide following information:
Lie on your back with your knees bent and your head propped up. Place a pillow under your knees, to support your legs.Put one hand right below your ribs and the other on your upper chest. This will enable you to sense the movement of your diaphragm during breathing.Slowly inhale through your nose to cause your stomach to expel, which will raise your hand. Keep the hand on your chest as still as you can.As you exhale through pursed lips, tighten your stomach muscles so that your stomach moves in and your hand falls. Keep the hand on your upper chest as still as you can.learn more about diaphragmatic breathing- https://brainly.com/question/8946243
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which of the following terms describes bending the foot backward or upward at the ankle?
Answers
The term that describes bending the foot backward or upward at the ankle is "dorsiflexion."
Dorsiflexion is a movement of the ankle joint that involves lifting the foot toward the shin. This movement is essential for activities such as walking, running, and jumping, as it helps to lift the toes and foot off the ground during the swing phase of gait. Dorsiflexion is primarily controlled by the muscles located on the front of the leg, including the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus. These muscles work together to contract and pull the foot upwards, with the tibialis anterior being the primary muscle responsible for initiating dorsiflexion.
In addition to its role in locomotion, dorsiflexion is also important for maintaining balance and stability during standing and walking. It helps to prevent the foot from dropping down too far, which can lead to trips and falls.
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3) As left heart failure progresses:
A. left ventricular preload increases.
B. systemic vascular resistance decreases.
C. left end-diastolic volume decreases.
D. pulmonary vascular resistance decreases.
E. right ventricular preload increase
Answers
A
Left-sided heart failure is defined not as a disease, but a process. Left-sided heart failure occurs when the left ventricle, the heart's main pumping power source
which is not legally required on a nutrition facts label? group of answer choices kcalories per serving grams of protein kcalories from fiber kcalories from fat
Answers
Kcalories from fiber is not legally required on a nutrition facts label. Hence, Option C is the correct answer.
What are some of the important nutrition facts?It includes a list of important nutrients that have an impact on your health. Look for foods that have more of the nutrients you want and less of the nutrients you want to avoid. You can use the label to support your specific dietary requirements. Limit your consumption of sodium, added sugars, and saturated fat. The six basic nutrients are vitamins, minerals, protein, fats, water, and carbohydrates. People must consume these nutrients from dietary sources in order for their bodies to function properly. Essential nutrients are required for a person's growth, health, and ability to reproduce. Asparagus is high in B-complex vitamins, potassium, zinc, and vitamins A, C, and E. A banana contains half the potassium of an avocado.
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a nurse is caring for a client presented with a pulse and cardiac rhythm ventricular tachycardia. what does the nurse anticipate for treatment? group of answer choices
Answers
A nurse is caring for a client presented with a pulse and cardiac rhythm ventricular tachycardia. The nurse anticipates that the treatment for the client with the aforementioned conditions will be to immediately begin synchronized cardioversion.
Synchronized cardioversion is a process in which an electrical shock is given to the patient with the goal of restoring normal heart rhythms. It is a critical medical procedure that is commonly used in emergency and non-emergency situations to treat certain heart rhythm problems. Synchronized cardioversion can be performed with a defibrillator machine, which delivers a low-energy shock to the patient's heart at the precise moment that it is beating in rhythm with the shock.
Currently, the most common application of synchronized cardioversion is in the treatment of supraventricular tachycardia. However, it can also be used in the treatment of certain cases of ventricular tachycardia, as well as other types of cardiac arrhythmias.
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the nurse is assessing a client with a neurologic health problem and discovers a change in level of consciousness from alert to lethargic. what is the nurse's best action? 1. perform a complete neurologic assessment. 2. assess the cranial nerve functions. 3. contact the rapid response team. 4. reassess the client in 30 minutes.
Answers
The earliest and most trustworthy sign that central neurologic function has deteriorated is a shift in degree of consciousness and orientation. Contact the Rapid Response Team or a healthcare physician right away if there is a decline.
A targeted examination should be carried out by the nurse as well to look for any other changes. The next step is to assess orientation in a client after determining alertness. Ask the customer questions to ascertain orientation when they are paying attention to you. On repeated assessments, the order of the questions is changed to avoid the client from memorising the responses. The ability to respond to inquiries regarding person, place, and time by eliciting details such the client's capacity to recount the onset of symptoms, the identity of the person or thing that caused the client's symptoms.
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cardiovascular system disorder questions with multiple choices
Answers
Answer:
You have to put the questions and their answers for people to be able to answer your questions.
Explanation:
A 36-year-old client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. What are two contraindications for the use of digoxin?
Answers
Answer:
Acute myocardial infarction. Hypersensitivity to the drug. Ventricular fibrillation.
Explanation:
How did john watson have different view from sigmund freud
Answers
Explanation:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism.
Freud incorporated the concept of the unconscious to explain transference. Watson understood and was intrigued by Freud's definition of sexual transference, but he was searching for an explanation of transference that did not involve the unconscious (Watson & Morgan, 1917)
Answer:
John Watson was fascinated by the discoveries of psychoanalysis, but he rejected Freud's central concept of the unconscious as incompatible with behaviorism. After failing to explain psychoanalysis in terms of William James's concept of habit, Watson borrowed concepts from classical conditioning to explain Freud's discoveries. Watson's famous experiment with Little Albert is interpreted not only in the context of Pavlovian conditioning but also as a psychoanalytically inspired attempt to capture simplified analogues of adult phobic behavior, including the "transference" of emotion in an infant. Watson used his behavioristic concept of conditioned emotional responses to compete with Freud's concepts of displacement and the unconscious transference of emotion. Behind a mask of anti-Freudian bias, Watson surprisingly emerges as a psychologist who popularized Freud and pioneered the scientific appraisal of his ideas in the laboratory.
Explanation:
set as brainliest
Which medications have the potential to increase a patient's susceptibility to infection?
Select one or more:
a.
Immunosuppresants
b.
Antihypertensives
c.
corticosteroids
d.
Insulin
Answers
If you break it down immuno is the immune system and suppressant is bringing it down or decreasing. When you decrease your immune system you have a higher chance of getting sick
Descripción de divisor bbdhhdbdhdhdhgdhdgdgdhgd
Answers
Answer: ummm.... Ok
Explanation:
5. What is one way that you can use one of the learning theories to influence another human or animal in your life? What theory of learning would you use? Why?
Answers
Learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
What is learning theories?Learning theories are defined as the theory based on the behaviorism, cognitivism, and constructivism psychological perspectives.
The biological processes of learning start in neurons, which are electrically stimulated brain cells.
Synaptic plasticity, which involves modifying the number and strength of neuronal connections, is the mechanism by which learning occurs.
Thus, learning theories give teachers models for creating lessons that promote better learning by describing the circumstances and procedures through which learning takes place.
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what aspects of culture are relevant when conducting a health assessment on a foreign-born client admitted for surgery? select all that apply.
Answers
Explanation:
Aspects of culture relevance to a health assessment include communication and language, nutrition, and health care beliefs and practices.
.Adequate iron intake is a general concern for children. From the list of foods, select those that are good sources of iron.
A. Legumes
B. Poultry
C. Broccoli
D. Ground beef
E. Orange and yellow colored vegetables
F. Raisins
Answers
Good sources of iron for children include legumes, Poultry, Ground beef, and Raisins.
Good sources of iron for children include:
A. Legumes: Legumes such as lentils, beans, and chickpeas are rich in iron and can be incorporated into meals or snacks.
B. Poultry: Chicken and turkey are good sources of iron, especially dark meat portions.
D. Ground beef: Lean ground beef contains iron and can be used in various recipes.
F. Raisins: Raisins are dried grapes and contain iron, making them a convenient and portable iron-rich snack option.
While the other options listed (C. Broccoli and E. Orange and yellow colored vegetables) are nutritious and important for overall health, they are not significant sources of iron compared to the options mentioned above.
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A patient was treated by his primary care physician on 01/25/YY for a wrist fracture that occurred on the job. On 02/02/YY, the patient was evaluated for symptoms of severe high blood pressure and a recheck of the wrist fracture. Where should the provider document treatment from the visit on 02/02/YY?
Answers
Answer:
Only the fracture recheck is to be recorded in the workers' compensation record
Explanation:
Workers' compensation records are a type of record that indicates detailed information on an employee's previous compensation claims for injuries on the job. These records incorporate data associated with the type/date of the injury, the organs/tissues/sites of the body that suffered an injury, insurance companies, and impairments and disabilities associated with the injury. It is important to highlight that workers' compensation law varies widely from state to state, thereby disclosure and confidentiality of these records are governed by state statutes.
a major adverse side effect of barbiturate treatment for insomnia is the reduction in __________.
Answers
A major adverse side effect of barbiturate treatment for insomnia is the reduction in respiratory function.
Barbiturates are central nervous system depressants that can suppress the activity of the respiratory system. They act by depressing the central nervous system, including the brainstem centers responsible for controlling breathing. This can lead to a decrease in respiratory rate, depth, and effort, potentially causing respiratory depression or even respiratory arrest.
Respiratory depression is a serious concern as it can lead to oxygen deprivation and potentially life-threatening complications, especially in individuals with pre-existing respiratory conditions or when barbiturates are used in high doses. Close monitoring of respiratory function is necessary during barbiturate treatment to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.
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How much cation is people
Answers
Answer: 4
Explanation:
iron atoms can form 2+ cations or 3+ cations.
a patient is very upset about her newborn being diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis. what is an appropriate response by the nurse?
Answers
The appropriate response by the nurse to a patient who is very upset about her newborn being diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis is to show empathy and understanding, provide clear and accurate information, and offer support.
Erythroblastosis fetalis is a disease of the fetus and newborn that occurs when a mother and her fetus have different blood types. During pregnancy, a small amount of the baby's blood can get into the mother's bloodstream. This can happen during delivery or with a miscarriage, abortion, or ectopic pregnancy.
When this happens, the mother's immune system can make antibodies against the baby's blood. These antibodies can damage the baby's red blood cells and cause anemia. The baby's body responds by making new red blood cells faster than it can break down the damaged ones. These immature blood cells are called erythroblasts. The accumulation of erythroblasts in the baby's blood and organs can cause serious complications, including brain damage and death.
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You are at thanksgiving dinner and your Aunt Muriel (yes, we all have an Aunt Muriel) tells you that she is having a great deal of pain in her shoulder that is in the
anterolateral portion of the shoulder and radiates to the elbow. You palpate her shoulder and find pinpoint pain just inferior to the acromium process. This all
happened after she recently got back into tennis 3x/week. What is the most likely structure injured based on this history and presentation?
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Answer:
சோலைமலை doctor to keep do so so so do to do so do do do so so distinguish shop difficulty
Which of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice An undercooked hamburger patty is the most likely source of giardia. In the United States, people rarely suffer from food-borne illnesses. A food's odor or appearance is not a reliable indicator of whether it's safe to eat. The United States Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for inspecting local restaurants and grocery stores to ensure they meet food safety standards.
Answers
Answer:
Giardiasis is an intestinal illness caused by infection with the parasite Giardia lamblia, which lives in contaminated water. Although the illness most often occurs in developing countries, giardiasis is also a common cause of waterborne illness in the United States. A person can remain infected with Giardia until the infection is diagnosed and treated. In developing areas of the world, it is common for more than 20% of a country's population to have ongoing Giardia infection. In the United States, only 1 or 2 out of every 10,000 people have Giardia in a typical year, but the infection is found in about 1 out of 3 people who have prolonged diarrhea symptoms if they have recently traveled to a developing country.
Explanation:
The amount of money that must be paid by the patient for medical services before the policy begins to pay is the:
PPO
tax
collateral
deductible
Answers
Answer: deductible
Explanation:
Answer: Calendar Year Deductible. The amount that the insured person must pay before insurance payment for covered service begins.
Explanation:
In regard to clients and patients, practioners have a(n) relationship which requires them to act primarily in the best interests of those they serve.
Answers
Answer:
In regard to clients and patients, practioners have a(n) healthy relationship which requires them to act primarily in the best interests of those they serve.
Explanation:
Health practioners learn communication strategies that allow them to better connect with users of health systems, provide patients with clear information to give them the opportunity to make important and informed decisions throughout the disease process, facilitating to feel them more involved in it and in many cases minimizing the suffering that comes with having a pathology.
When a person goes to the health consultations, they need a solution to certain needs that have arisen related to their well-being. Faced with this situation and in the first place, it requires clear and truthful information from practioners, in this way, the patient can responsibly assume his/her situation and the care to which him/her must submit. In a healthy relationship between practioners and patients, it is important to evaluate the information the patient gives and the appropriate measures in each case, making them more individualized recommendations. The factors that determine the satisfaction of this healthy relationship by patients are: accessibility, responsiveness and understanding, patients manifest a series of needs that, in order to be satisfied, must be previously understood and valued. In this healthy relationship, patients especially value that practioners listen to them and establish affective and assertive communication with them in a language understandable by both parties. These factors are intangible variables, since they are the individual or group behaviors, aptitudes and attitudes that decisively contribute both to the conformation of the patient's perceptions and their satisfaction, and to the value that the health center acquires for them: behavior and motivation of the staff, beliefs, norms and ways of thinking of the organization.