As the admitting nurse, after introducing yourself, it is important to establish a good rapport with the patient and make them feel comfortable. Here are some steps you can follow to begin the admission process:
1. Ask the patient how they are feeling and if they are experiencing any pain or discomfort.
2. Verify the patient's identity by asking for their name and date of birth, and comparing it with the information on the admission form.
3. Explain the admission process to the patient, including the reason for their hospitalization, what tests and procedures may be required, and what they can expect during their stay.
4. Obtain the patient's medical history, including any pre-existing conditions, allergies, medications, and surgeries they have had.
5. Take the patient's vital signs, including blood pressure, pulse rate, respiratory rate, and temperature, and record them in the patient's chart.
6. Assess the patient's pain level using a pain scale and document it in the chart.
7. Obtain any necessary consent forms from the patient or their legal representative.
8. Provide the patient with a hospital gown and any other necessary items, such as slippers and toiletries.
9. Answer any questions the patient may have and provide them with any additional information they need to feel comfortable.
It is important to approach the admission process with empathy, compassion, and professionalism, and to prioritize the patient's needs and concerns.
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TRUE/FALSE. Patients should be screened for contraindications and precautions every time they receive a dose of vaccine.
True. Patients should be screened for contraindications and precautions every time they receive a dose of vaccine.
This is because the patient's health status may have changed since their last vaccination, and new information about the vaccine's safety and effectiveness may have become available. Additionally, some vaccines have specific contraindications or precautions that must be taken into account when administering them, such as allergies to vaccine components or certain medical conditions that could increase the risk of an adverse reaction.
Screening for contraindications and precautions is typically done through a standardized questionnaire or checklist, which can help ensure that patients receive the appropriate vaccines and that any potential risks are identified and addressed
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How many grams are in 200ml of 20% solution
Answer: The answer I have concluded for this question would be \(\textbf{200g}\) (grams).
Explanation: Hope this helps! Have a wonderful day <3!
There are 40 grams in 200 mL of a 20% solution.
To determine the number of grams in a solution, you need to know the percentage concentration and the volume of the solution.
In this case, you have a 20% solution and a volume of 200 mL.
To calculate the number of grams, you multiply the volume by the percentage concentration and divide by 100.
Number of grams = (Volume in mL * Percentage concentration) / 100
Number of grams = (200 mL * 20%) / 100
Number of grams = (200 mL * 0.20)
Number of grams = 40 grams
Therefore, there are 40 grams in 200 mL of a 20% solution.
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A patient who has been taking opioids for chronic pain is improving, and the physician reduces the daily dose. The patient says that he is worried that the pain will return. He says that he is also worried that he will go through drug withdrawal. How should the health care professional respond to the patient?
Answer: Ovid addiction
Explanation:
Sam is a fast-food fanatic. For breakfast, he stops for coffee and doughnuts. For lunch he has iced tea, a roast beef sub with lettuce and mayonnaise, and a cookie. For dinner he has a soft drink, burger, and fries. Name two vitamins likely to be lacking in Sam's diet if he eats like this every day. Why is his diet likely to be deficient in these vitamins?
Your health can suffer if you don't consume enough of these foods, increasing your chances of developing diabetes, heart disease, some types of cancer, and nutritional deficiency.
What results in less intake of vegetables and fruits in diet?The clinical spectrum of vitamin A deficiency's ocular manifestations, known as xerophthalmia, includes everything from night blindness and Bitot spots to the potentially blinding phases of corneal xerosis, ulceration, and necrosis (keratomalacia).
Low levels of vitamin C lead to the illness known as scurvy. Because they didn't consume enough fruits and vegetables, it used to be frequent among long-distance sailors.
Therefore, vitamin A and C deficiency occur due to less intake of vegetables and fruits.
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A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client following a heart transplant. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the
teaching?
Answer:
wheres the following information?
Explanation:
The information that the nurse will include in the teaching is:
D- "You might no longer be able to feel chest pain"
Let's understand what discharge teaching is.
What is discharge teaching?Discharge teaching actually refers to the instructions that are given to a patient in order to help them understand their health condition and know what was wrong with them.
A heart transplant actually involves a surgical procedure that is carried out when one encounters end-stage heart failure after other medical treatments fail.
A discharge teaching will inform the patient that after the heart transplant, he/she will no longer be able to feel chest pain.
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2. Referring to Procedures Completed on the Eyeball (65091-65290):
Match the following medical term with the corresponding definition
3
A. Evisceration
B. Enucleation
C. Exenteration
The removal of the eye, leaving the muscles and remaining orbital contents intact.
The removal of the eyeball and the surrounding tissues, including the eyelids.
The removal of the eye's contents, leaving the scleral shell and extraocular
muscles intact.
3. Referring to Procedures Completed on they Eyeball (65091-65290):
Answer:
The answer is A.
The nurse is trying to determine the ability of the client with myocardial infarction (MI) to manage independently at home after discharge. Which statement by the client is the strongest indicator of the potential for difficulty after discharge?1. I need to start exercising more to improve my health.2. I will be sure to keep my appointment with the cardiologist.3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.4. I think I have a good understanding of what all my medications are for.
Answer:
3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.
Explanation:
All the response options, with the exception of the third, have an autonomy of the patient, where he shows that he will have no difficulties in performing necessary tasks, without the help of third parties. However, in the third answer option, the patient shows that he will have difficulties after being discharged, as he fears that he will have difficulties in being alone, since he has no one to help him.
Therefore, we can assume that the correct answer to your question is the third answer option.
What code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant? a Z48.22 b Z48.22, Z94.0 C. N18.6 d. Z94.0'
a Z48.22 code(s) is(are) assigned for a patient receiving home care after kidney transplant.
How do aftercare codes work?When the original course of treatment for an illness has been completed but the patient still needs ongoing care for the duration of the healing or recovery process or for the long-term effects of the condition, aftercare visit codes are provided.
For patients getting ongoing treatment during the healing process or for the long-term effects of a condition, the aftercare codes (Z47-Z48) are utilised. Reminder: For following encounters, code to the individual injury with the seventh character rather than using these codes with the injury codes.
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One of the goals of psychology is to predict future behavior or mental processes. Which of the following scenar
best illustrates this goal?
A The psychologist measures Michael's heart rate and bodily functions to better describe his
behavior
B. The psychologist helps Michael develop strategies to manage his anxiety levels so he can
focus on the game
C. The psychologist tells Michael that his basketball performance will improve when his anxiety
levels are moderated
D. After careful research, the psychologist explains that Michael's intense feelings of anxiety are
hindering his basketball performance.
Answer:
The answer is C
Explanation:
I saw it on quizlet taking test now
The psychologist tells Michael that his basketball performance will improve when his anxiety levels are moderated is best illustrates this goal.
Who are pshychologist?A psychologist is a specialist in the field of psychology who investigates behavior as well as mental states, perceptual, cognitive, emotional, and social processes. They frequently experiment with, observe, and interpret how people interact with one another and their surroundings as part of their work.
A psychology bachelor's degree is typically followed by a psychology master's or doctoral degree for psychologists. Unlike psychiatric doctors and psychiatric nurse practitioners, psychologists typically cannot prescribe medication.
Unlike psychiatrists, who typically lack training in psychological testing, psychologists undergo significant training in psychological testing, scoring, interpretation, and reporting.
Therefore, The psychologist tells Michael that his basketball performance will improve when his anxiety levels are moderated is best illustrates this goal.
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A pregnant client is undergoing a fetal biophysical profile. which parameter of the profile helps measure long-term adequacy of the placental function?
Amniotic fluid volume is the parameter of the profile that helps measure the long-term adequacy of the placental function.
Amniotic fluid, which is translucent and only a little bit yellow, surrounds the fetus (unborn kid) throughout pregnancy. It is stored inside the amniotic sac.
The medical word for too much amniotic fluid is polyhydramnios. This condition can be brought on by gestational diabetes, congenital abnormalities (issues that exist at birth), or multiple pregnancies (twins or triplets).
The medical word for a lack of amniotic fluid is oligohydramnios. A late pregnancy, membrane rupture, placental dysfunction, or fetal anomalies could all contribute to the development of this illness. In the event that the amniotic fluid level is extremely high, the doctor may keep a closer eye on the pregnancy.
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what is true about scientific rigor in qualitative nursing research?
Scientific rigor in qualitative nursing research is essential for ensuring credibility and trustworthiness of the findings.
How to find the significance of scientific rigor in qualitative nursing research?Scientific rigor refers to the meticulousness and robustness with which qualitative nursing research is conducted.
It involves adhering to rigorous methods, ensuring transparency, and maintaining high standards of quality throughout the research process.
Scientific rigor is vital for establishing the credibility, transferability, dependability, and confirmability of the research findings.
Scientific rigor in qualitative nursing research is achieved through strategies like careful participant selection, rigorous data collection methods (e.g., interviews, observations), and systematic data analysis techniques (e.g., thematic analysis, grounded theory).
Maintaining reflexivity and ensuring trustworthiness through member checking, peer debriefing, and prolonged engagement further enhance the rigor of the research.
By adhering to scientific rigor, qualitative nursing research can generate rich, nuanced, and contextually grounded insights into the experiences, perceptions, and meanings attributed to health and healthcare.
It enhances the credibility and trustworthiness of the research findings, ensuring that the results accurately represent the participants' perspectives and contribute to the body of nursing knowledge.
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_____ is often rated the most commonly used treatment among practicing therapists, and it uses a variety of techniques depending on the client and the problem.
Answer:
Eclectic psychotherapy
2. Identify the special requests that a provider may have for inpatient surgeries
Answer:
Tertiary Care
Explanation:
How can we take care of patient with myocardial infraction (MI)?
Answer:
I suggest that aspirin 150–300 mg should be given to patients with suspected acute myocardial infarction as soon as possible following the event. The tablet should be chewed or dispersed in water to achieve a quick onset of its anti-platelet action
Explanation:
Hope this helped:)
what is the minimum amount of time that it takes to invent a new medical testing device?
The minimum amount of time it takes to invent a new medical testing device can vary greatly, but generally, it takes several years, possibly up to a decade or more. The exact duration depends on factors such as complexity, research, and regulatory approval processes.
The process of inventing a new medical testing device usually begins with an idea or a need for a specific diagnostic tool. This is followed by extensive research and development, which can take several years, to design and create a functional prototype. Next, the device must undergo rigorous testing to ensure its accuracy, reliability, and safety. This phase can take additional years, depending on the complexity of the device and the specific requirements of the medical community and regulatory agencies.
Once the device has successfully passed all required testing, it must obtain regulatory approval before it can be marketed and sold to healthcare providers. In the United States, for example, this approval process is overseen by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). This stage can also take a significant amount of time, as the FDA thoroughly evaluates the device to ensure it meets all necessary standards.
In conclusion, the minimum amount of time to invent a new medical testing device typically takes several years, but it can take even longer depending on various factors involved in its development, testing, and approval processes.
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which of the following compounds would be required to be prepared in a biological safety cabinet (BSC)
A. Pantoprazole IV
B. Ranitidine IV
C. Methotrexate IV
D. Insulin IV
Given what we know, of the options listed, Methotrexate IV is the compound that requires the most care when handling and should prompt the use of a biological safety cabinet.
What is Methotrexate IV? This is a medicine used often for cancer treatment. It can be used to treat cancers such as leukemia.Great care must be taken during its handling.This includes the use of a BSC and proper protective equipment.Therefore, given the nature of the Methotrexate IV compound and its risk for those handling the substance, it is the option listed that most appropriately prompts the use of a hazard or biosafety cabinet.
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How does dialysis stimulate the kidneys
clinicians will use which of the following efforts to prevent medication-induced movement disorders when prescribing for patients?
Clinicians may use several strategies to prevent medication-induced movement disorders when prescribing for patients, including:
Choosing medications with a lower risk of movement disordersStarting with a low dose and slowly titrating upMonitoring for early signs of movement disordersUsing adjunctive therapiesRegularly reviewing medication regimensPatient educationWhat do you mean by movement disorders?
A range of neurological illnesses known as movement disorders impact a person's capacity to control their motions. The limbs, brain, face, and vocal cords are just a few of the bodily components that might be impacted by these disorders.
When administering medications to patients, clinicians may employ a number of measures to prevent medication-induced movement problems, including:
Selecting pharmaceuticals with a reduced risk of producing movement disorders: Clinicians may opt for drugs with a lower risk, particularly if a patient has a history of or is at a high risk of developing movement disorders.Beginning with a low dose and gradually increasing it: To lower the risk of movement problems, clinicians may start with a low dose of medication and gradually increase it.Doctors may keep an eye out for early indications of movement disorders in their patients, such as tremors or uncontrollable movements, and change medication as necessary.Adjunctive therapy: Anticholinergic drugs and beta-blockers are examples of adjunctive therapies that doctors may utilized lessen the likelihood or impact of movement problems.Reviewing medication schedules on a frequent basis: Doctors may check a patient's medication schedule on a regular basis to spot and address any drugs that might be causing movement issues.Clinicians may instruct patients on the warning signs and symptoms of movement disorders as well as the necessity of reporting any odd symptoms as soon as possible.Learn more about movement disorders click here:
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Hyperglycemia in individuals with diabetic neuropathy leads to the inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex in the dorsal root ganglion. Which additional process will be inhibited in the dorsal root ganglion under conditions that cause diabetic neuropathy? A) the glyoxylate cycle B) lactic acid fermentation C) the citric acid cycle D) glycolysis
Answer: (C) The citric Acid Cycle
Explanation:
Which situation places the client at the highest risk of lack of oxygen
Answer:
The nurse caring for a client with a chest tube turns the client to the side and the chest tube accidentally disconnects from the water seal chamber.
Explanation:
Common behaviors that are a result of Alzheimer's disease are
Answer:
angry outbursts and physical aggression, hand wringing pacing and rocking, accusing loved ones of wrong doing and hallucinating, repeating stories and leaving the house unassisted, sleep problems and sundowing
Explanation:
1, Verbal or physical aggression, which can be quite alarming, is common in patients with Alzheimer’s.
2, Dementia makes it very difficult to process stimuli and new information, causing many people with Alzheimer’s disease to become anxious.
3, Caregivers may feel at a loss when an Alzheimer’s patient exhibits behavior that is clearly not grounded in reality: either hallucinations—perceiving something that isn’t really there—or delusions, which are false beliefs that can lead to paranoia.
4, The memory problems caused by Alzheimer’s disease can lead to a range of distressing behaviors, including repetition of words or activities, disorientation even in familiar places, and, in severe cases, confusion about the passage of time.
5, It’s not well understood why sleep disturbances occur in many Alzheimer’s patients, but it’s common for them to experience nighttime restlessness and changes to their sleep schedule.
Question text
Your friend Kate is a new mom. She is constantly worried that she is going to ruin her child by doing or saying the wrong thing. What advice might you give her?
Explanation:
She should try filtering her words when she around her child.
No one is a perfect mum if she needs help she should get help from professionals
Answer:
This is perfectly normal for a mother who has just had her baby, mainly when it's her first one. She should be helped by those who are closer to her, especially women who have already had babies, like her mother or her mother-in-law. However, if it's becoming more serious than normal worries, she should make an appointment with a professional in this field, such as a psychiatrist or psychologist.
Explanation:
Which of the following serologic markers indicate HBV clearance?
a.
HbSAg.
b.
HbCAg IgG antibody.
c.
HbCAg IgM antibody.
d.
HbSAg Antibody.
e.
HbCAg
Answer:
a
Explanation:
to obtain a scan using a(n) , a patient is injected with a low and harmless dose of a short-lived radioactive glucose.
Positron emission tomography (PET) is used when obtaining a scan where a patient is injected with a low and harmless dose of a short-lived radioactive glucose.
A positron emission tomography (PET) scan is an imaging procedure that can assist in determining how your tissues and organs operate metabolically or biochemically. A radioactive substance (tracer) is used in the PET scan to display both regular and aberrant metabolic activity.
Before a sickness manifests itself on another imaging test, such as a computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), a PET scan may frequently detect the aberrant metabolism of the tracer in disorders (MRI).
Most frequently, the tracer is injected into a vein in your hand or arm. The tracer will then gather in your body's regions with greater degrees of metabolic or biochemical activity, which frequently identifies the disease's location.
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Which treatments would MOST LIKELY help a patient diagnosed with a chronic disorder that affects balance and causes periods of hearing loss and ringing in the ears?
a. orally and nasally administered corticosteroids that decrease inflammation in mucous membranes
b. a low-salt diet along with diuretic drugs that reduce fluid retention in the body
c. exercise along with antibiotic drugs that kill the bacteria causing the disorder
d. antitussive and expectorant drugs, both which help to inhibit coughing reflexes
Answer:
B. A low-salt diet along with diuretic drugs that reduce fluid retention in the body
Explanation:
I calculated it logically
Answer:
b. a low-salt diet along with diuretic drugs that reduce fluid retention in the body
Explanation:
To get fluids out of the body and relieve pressure on the ear
the organism responsible for most cases of peritonitis in patients on peritoneal dialysis is
The organism responsible for most cases of peritonitis in patients on peritoneal dialysis is a bacteria called Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Staphylococcus epidermidis is a type of coagulase-negative staphylococcus that commonly resides on the skin and mucous membranes. It can enter the peritoneal cavity through the catheter used for peritoneal dialysis and cause infection and inflammation, leading to peritonitis.
Other microorganisms, such as Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus species, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa, can also cause peritonitis in peritoneal dialysis patients, but Staphylococcus epidermidis is one of the most frequently encountered pathogens in these cases.
Prompt diagnosis and appropriate antimicrobial treatment are crucial in managing peritonitis in peritoneal dialysis patients.
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A clinical test on humans of a new drug is normally done in three phases. Phase I is conducted with a relalively small number of heallhy volunteers. For example, a phase I test of a specific drug involved only 5 subjects. Assume that we want lo treal 5 heallhy humans with this new drug and we have 8 suitable volunteers available. Complete parts (a) through (c) below. a. If the subjects are selecled and troaled in soquence, so that the Irial is discontinuod if anyone displays adverse effects, how many different sequential arrangements are possible if 5 people are selected from the 8 that are available? Choose the correct answer bolow. A. 40,320 B. 56 C. 6,720 D. 120
Answer:
The correct answer is B. 56.
Explanation:
To calculate the number of different sequential arrangements possible when selecting 5 people from a pool of 8 available volunteers, we can use the concept of combinations.
The number of different sequential arrangements can be calculated using the formula for combinations, which is denoted as "nCk" or "n choose k," where n is the total number of available volunteers and k is the number of volunteers to be selected.
In this case, we want to select 5 volunteers from a pool of 8, so the calculation is:
8C5 = 8! / (5! * (8-5)!) = (8 * 7 * 6) / (3 * 2 * 1) = 56
Determine how violating health regulations and laws regarding technology could impact the finances of the institution if these violations are not addressed. Be sure to support your response with examples.
Explanation:
Health rules and legislation covering the usage of technology, such as the use of EHRs, i.e. Infringement of health and safety regulations and software laws influences patient network security, as manually managed data is interesting to perform with, more vulnerable to fraud, faults, destruction, mistakes, and is often difficult to store. Infringement of health and safety regulations and technology laws affects patient network security.
Hose handwritten records are often vulnerable to fraud, since they are only a hard disk, while if those documents are stored in EHRs software, the person trying to unlawfully access the records of any other patient would need the login information of the institution's appropriate quantity, that is much harder to do.
mindtap® nutrition, 1 term (6 months) instant access for whitney/rolfes understanding nutrition, 16th edition
MindTap® Nutrition is a digital learning platform that provides instant access to interactive resources and materials for the textbook "Understanding Nutrition, 16th Edition," offering a personalized and adaptive approach to studying nutrition for a six-month subscription period.
MindTap® Nutrition is an online learning platform that provides instant access to the content of the textbook "Understanding Nutrition, 16th Edition" by Whitney and Rolfes. It offers a range of interactive learning materials, such as quizzes, videos, and activities, to enhance the learning experience in the field of nutrition. The subscription duration is for one term, which typically spans six months.
MindTap® Nutrition is a digital learning platform designed to accompany the textbook "Understanding Nutrition, 16th Edition" authored by Whitney and Rolfes. It offers students convenient and instant access to the educational resources and materials associated with the textbook. Through MindTap®, students can engage with interactive content, including quizzes, videos, and activities, to reinforce their understanding of nutrition concepts.
The platform is designed to enhance the learning experience by providing a personalized and adaptive approach to studying nutrition. Students can access MindTap® Nutrition for a period of six months, typically covering one academic term. It serves as a valuable tool for students to deepen their knowledge of nutrition and develop a solid foundation in the subject matter.
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Based on what we've talked about so far with blood, which of these would not lead to anemia (reduction in the amount of oxygen carried by the blood)?
Insufficient iron intake
Inability to form blood clots
Damage to the kidney cells that produce erythropoietin
Insufficient numbers of WBCs
Insufficient numbers of WBCs would not lead to anemia as they are not involved in carrying oxygen in the blood.
Anemia is typically caused by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or a decrease in the amount of hemoglobin in the blood, which is responsible for carrying oxygen. Insufficient iron intake can cause iron-deficiency anemia, which is the most common type of anemia.
The inability to form blood clots can cause bleeding disorders, but it does not directly affect oxygen-carrying capacity. Damage to the kidney cells that produce erythropoietin can lead to a decrease in red blood cell production and result in anemia.
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