24. Name a point on ∠MNO ​

"UX = sup X," means that the union of the set X, denoted by UX, is equal to the supremum of X. In other words, if X is a nonempty set of ordinal numbers, then the union of those ordinals, UX, is itself an ordinal number, and it is equal to the supremum of X.

In set theory, the symbol "∪" denotes the union of sets. So, when we say "∪X," it represents the union of all the elements in the set X.

On the other hand, "sup X" stands for the supremum (or least upper bound) of the set X. The supremum of a set is the smallest ordinal number that is greater than or equal to all the elements in the set.

Therefore, when it is stated that "UX = sup X," it means that the union of the set X, denoted by UX, is equal to the supremum of X. In other words, if X is a nonempty set of ordinal numbers, then the union of those ordinals, UX, is itself an ordinal number, and it is equal to the supremum of X.

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Answer:

1=1

Step-by-step explanation:

x = theta

[cos(x) * 1/sin(x) * sin(x)/cos(x)] / [sin(x) * 1/cos(x) * cos(x)/sin(x)] = [cos(x)/cos(x) * sin(x)/sin(x)] / [sin(x)/sin(x) * cos(x)/cos(x)] = [1*1]/[1*1] = 1

Because csec(x) = 1/sin(x) , sec(x) = 1/cos(x), tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) & cot(x) = cos(x)/sin(x)

Answer:

5 1/4 gallons

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps and have a nice day

Answer:

18.64% discount

Step-by-step explanation:

If she had a $22 discount and bought the radio for $96, then the original cost was $118.

discount = (22 * 100) / 118

Answer:

The probability that the man arrives first is 0.50.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X denote the arrival time of the man and Y denote the arrival time of the woman.

It is provided that:

\(X\sim U[15,45]\\\\Y\sim U[0,60]\)

The pdf of X an Y are:

\(f_{X}(x)=\frac{1}{45-15}=\frac{1}{30};\ 15<X<45\\\\f_{Y}(y)=\frac{1}{60-0}=\frac{1}{60};\ 0<Y<60\)

It is provided that X and Y are independent of each other.

Then the joint pdf of X and Y is:

\(f_{XY}(x,y)=f_{X}(x)\times f_{Y}(y)\\\\\Rightarrow f_{XY}(x,y)=\frac{1}{30}\times \frac{1}{60}\\\\\Rightarrow f_{XY}(x,y)=\frac{1}{1800};\ 15<X<45,\ 0<Y<60\)

Compute the probability that the man arrives first as follows:

\(P(X<Y)=\int\limits^{45}_{15} {\int\limits^{60}_{x} {\frac{1}{1800}} \, dy } \,dx\)

                 \(=\frac{1}{1800}\times \int\limits^{45}_{15} y|^{60}_{x} \,dx\\\\=\frac{1}{1800}\times \int\limits^{45}_{15} {60-x} \,dx\\\\=\frac{1}{1800}\times |60x-\frac{x^{2}}{2}|^{45}_{15}\\\\=\frac{(1687.5-787.5)}{1800}\\\\=\frac{900}{1800}\\\\=\frac{1}{2}\\\\=0.50\)

Thus, the probability that the man arrives first is 0.50.

If f is analytic and never zero on a domain D, then the graph (x,y,|f(x+iy)|) has no "pits". This follows from the fact that Re(f(z)) has no local minima in D.

Exercise 15 establishes the following result: if f is analytic and never zero on a domain D, then the the real part of f(z) has no local minima in D.

To use this result to establish the statement that |f(z)| has no local minima in D, we can use the fact that\(|f(z)|=\sqrt{real part of f(z))^2 + \ img part of f(z) )^2\) . Since the sum of two non-negative functions is non-negative, it follows that if  the real part of f(z)  has no local minima in D, then |f(z)| has no local minima in D either.

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Answer:

0

Step-by-step explanation:

give broonlest

Answer:

To convert euros to pounds, we have to multiply the amount in euros by the exchange rate. So, the sunglasses cost 90 * 0.875 = 78.75 pounds.

To use a suitable approximation, we can round the exchange rate to the nearest hundredth, which is 0.88. This makes the calculation easier and gives a close estimate of the actual value.

Using the rounded exchange rate, the sunglasses cost 90 * 0.88 = 79.2 pounds.

We can see that both the exact and the approximate values are greater than 70 pounds, so Elyas is wrong. The sunglasses cost more than 70 pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution for the inequality |x +1|>-3 is x > -4 or x < -4.

Inequality is defined as mathematical statements that have a minimum of two terms containing variables or numbers that are not equal.

To solve the inequality |x + 1| > -3, we need to consider two cases:

x + 1 > -3: In this case, we can subtract 1 from both sides to get x > -4.

x + 1 < -3: In this case, we can subtract 1 from both sides to get x < -4. However, we also need to reverse the inequality symbol because we are multiplying or dividing by a negative number.

So the solution for the inequality is x > -4 or x < -4.

To get the final solution, we need to consider the combined solution from both cases:

x < -4 or x > -4

This represents as follows:

\(\begin{bmatrix}\mathrm{Solution:}\:&\:\mathrm{True\:for\:all}\:x\:\\ \:\mathrm{Interval\:Notation:}&\:\left(-\infty \:,\:\infty \:\right)\end{bmatrix}\)

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The solution is:

The average speed of bicyclist is 120 miles per hours

The speed of wind is 30 miles per hours .

Here, we have,

Given as :

The distance that bicyclist cover = d = 30 miles

The time taken by bicyclist to cover 30 miles = t = 5 hours

Let the average speed of bicyclist = x miles per hours

Let The speed of wind = y miles per hours

Now, biking into wind

The time taken in return by bicyclist = 5 hours

∵ Speed = Distance × time

i.e  x + y = d × t

∴  x + y = 30 miles × 5 hours

Or, x + y = 150 mi/h          ...........A

Again

Now, biking against wind

The time taken in return by bicyclist = 3 hours

∵ Speed = Distance × time

i.e  x - y = d × t

∴  x - y = 30 miles × 3 hours

Or, x - y = 90 mi/h                  ......B

Solving equation A and B

(x + y) + (x - y) = 150 mi/h + 90 mi/h

Or, (x + x) + (y - y) = 240 mi/h

Or, 2 x + 0 = 240 mi/h

∴   x = 240/2

i.e. x = 120 mi/h

So, The average speed of bicyclist = x = 120 miles per hours

Now, Put the value of x into eq B

∵ x - y = 90 mi/h

Or,  120 mi/h  - y = 90 mi/h

∴ y = 120 mi/h - 90 mi/h  

I.e.  y = 30 mi/h

So, The  speed of wind = y = 30 miles per hours

Hence, The average speed of bicyclist is 120 miles per hours

And The speed of wind is 30 miles per hours .

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complete question:

Biking into the wind on a flat path, a bicyclist takes 5 hours to travel 30 miles. The return bike takes 3 hours. The wind speed remains constant during the trip. What is the bicyclist's average speed in the air? What is the speed of the wind?

Answer:

-43 < -35

Step-by-step explanation:

-43 is less than -35 because it is on the left.

Answer:150?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The Answer is x=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps!!!!

Answer:

x=2  

Step-by-step explanation:

4x+3=11

4x=11-3      ( subtract 3 on both sides)

4x=8

x=2            ( divide 4 on both sides)

Answer:

1. x= 8√2

2. x = 14 y=14√2

3. x = 18√2 = 9√2

4. x= 18/√2 =9√2

5. x= 8/√2 = 4√2

6. x = 10/√2 i.e 5√√2

Answer: 3/4 is greater than 1/2  

                                   >

Step-by-step explanation:

A line of two points (4, 2) and (-1, k) is perpendicular to the line y=2x+1, then k = 9/2.

Given a line with equation y = mx + c, the slope is denoted by m.

Given 2 points with slopes m₁ and m₂, those two lines are perpendicular if:

m₁ x m₂ = -1

The given line equation is:  y = 2x+1

Hence,

m₁ = 2

Compute the slope from 2 points: (4, 2) and (-1, k)

m₂ = (k - 2) / (-1 - 4)

m₂ = (-1/5) (k - 2)

Use the condition for perpendicular lines:

m₁ x m₂ = -1

2 x (-1/5) (k - 2) = -1

2k - 4 = 5

2k = 9

k = 9/2

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If the least value of n is 4, then the inequality best shows all the possible values of n is, n ≥ 4. So Option B is correct

Inequalities are the comparison of mathematical expressions, whether one quantity is greater or smaller in comparison to another quantity.

We use these symbols to represent inequalities, '>' , '<', '≥', '≤'

Given that,

The least value of n is 4,

Inequality representation = ?

It is known that,

Least value  of n is 4

So, Minimum possible value of n is 4

Maximum value of n should be more than 4,

In order to satisfy the condition,

So,

n  > 4

By combining both the things,

It can be written as,

n ≥ 4

Hence, the best inequality representation is n ≥ 4

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Step-by-step explanation:

there is nothing missing. this is a complete proof.

yes, the various steps are correct.

1) Number of participants whose headache remained is: 62

2) The probability of randomly selecting an individual whose headache remained is: 0.4133

3) The probability of randomly selecting an individual whose headache remained and took a placebo is: 0.2933

From the table, we have the parameters as:

Number of participants that took medicine and headache went away = 120

Number of participants that took placebo and headache went away = 68

Number of participants that took and headache remained = 18

Number of participants that took placebo and headache remained = 44

1) Number of participants whose headache remained = 18 + 44 = 62

2) The probability of randomly selecting an individual whose headache remained is:

62/(62 + 120 + 68)

= 62/150

= 0.4133

3) The probability of randomly selecting an individual whose headache remained and took a placebo is:

44/150 = 0.2933

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Answer: To factor the expression -14 - (-8) completely using the distributive law, we need to simplify it first.

Remember that when we subtract a negative number, it is equivalent to adding the positive number. Therefore, -(-8) is the same as +8.

So the expression becomes:

-14 + 8

To factor it further using the distributive law, we can rewrite the addition as multiplication by distributing the -14 to both terms:

(-14) + (8) = -14 * 1 + (-14) * 8

This can be simplified as:

-14 + 8 = -14 * 1 + (-14) * 8 = -14 + (-112)

Finally, we can add the two negative numbers to get the result:

-14 + (-112) = -126

Therefore, the expression -14 - (-8) factors completely as -126.

Answer:

Markdowns are the same as discounts. The type of connection between markdowns and discounts is that they all take a percent off a bill or a check, which can involve subtracting and/or dividing. On the other hand, tips and taxes add money. (this is the same with markups.)

Step-by-step explanation:

XD i used this "explanation" and got it correct, it's basically exactly what that guy said but this version is more elaborate, and won't make your teachers suspect anything...xDDD

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation this is a tough one but i know everything the answer is 69

Answer:

Now, i⁹ + i¹⁹ = i - i = 0. Hence the answer is just 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

The cost price of the shorts is K22.50.

To find the cost price of the shorts, we need to reverse calculate the original price before the markup and taxes were applied.

Let's assume the cost price of the shorts is represented by C.

The markup of 17% is applied to the cost price, which means the selling price (including the markup) is 117% of the cost price.

117% of the cost price C can be calculated as (117/100) * C.

GST (Goods and Services Tax) is also included in the selling price. GST is typically calculated as a percentage of the selling price. In this case, the selling price of the shorts including GST is K29.25.

Since the GST is included in the selling price, we can subtract it from the selling price to obtain the selling price before GST.

Let's assume the GST rate is R% (as a decimal), then the selling price before GST can be calculated as:

Selling price before GST = Selling price - (Selling price × R)

In this case, the selling price before GST is K29.25, and the GST rate is 17% (0.17 as a decimal). Substituting these values into the equation, we have:

K29.25 = Selling price - (Selling price × 0.17)

Simplifying the equation

K29.25 = Selling price × (1 - 0.17)

K29.25 = Selling price × 0.83

Selling price = K29.25 / 0.83

Now we can substitute the selling price in terms of the cost price:

K29.25 / 0.83 = (117/100) × C

Simplifying the equation:

C = (K29.25 / 0.83) × (100/117)

Calculating the cost price C:

C = K22.50

Therefore, the cost price of the shorts is K22.50.

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Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello! :)

\(\large\boxed{\text{m = -8, b = 22}}\)

Find the slope and y-intercept by rearranging the equation into the following format:

y = mx + b

We are given the equation:

16x + 2y = 44

Rearrange by subtracting 16x from both sides:

2y = -16x + 44

Divide all terms by 2:

y = -8x + 22

In this equation, the m-value is -8 and the b value is 22.

Therefore, m = -8, and b = 22.

Answer:

451 feet tall

Step-by-step explanation:

3*12=36

36+5=41

41*11= 451

The equation that shows the point-slope form of the line passing through (3, 2) with a slope of (1/2) is:

y - 2 = (1/2)(x - 3)

In the point-slope form of a linear equation, the formula is y - y1 = m(x - x1), where (x1, y1) represents a point on the line, and m represents the slope of the line. By substituting the given values into the formula, we can determine the correct equation.

In this case, the given point is (3, 2) and the slope is (1/2). Plugging these values into the formula, we get:

y - 2 = (1/2)(x - 3)

This equation represents the line passing through the point (3, 2) with a slope of (1/2). It is in the point-slope form, which allows us to easily determine the equation of a line based on a given point and slope.

Therefore, the correct equation is y - 2 = (1/2)(x - 3).

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Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation:

The polynomial -8m²n - 7m²n can be factored using the common factor -m²n. The complete factored form of the polynomial is (-m²n) (8 + 7a).

To find the complete factored form of the polynomial -8m²n - 7m²n, we can factor out common terms from both the terms. The common factor in the terms -8m²n and -7m²n is -m²n. We can write the polynomial as:

-8m²n - 7m²n = (-m²n) (8 + 7a)

Therefore, the complete factored form of the polynomial -8m²n - 7m²n is (-m²n) (8 + 7a). This expression represents the original polynomial in a multiplied form. We can expand this expression using distributive law to verify that it is equivalent to the original polynomial.

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