2. what is significant about curves of constant stream function? explain why the stream function is useful in fluid mechanics.

Answers

Answer 1

The stream function is constant along a stream line because a family of curves with the formula = const represent "streamlines". The stream function is a specific instance of a vector potential for velocity that is connected to velocity by equality.

The hydrodynamics of an inviscid liquid has a three-dimensional feature called the stream function that functions as a function of coordinates and time. By differentiating the stream function with respect to the supplied coordinates, we may calculate the components of velocity. Introduction. The velocity potential, f, is a function that may be, whereas the stream function,,, is a function specifically designed for dealing with two-dimensional flow. both two- and three-dimensional flows can use this. For both two-dimensional and three-dimensional axial symmetric flow, stream functions are defined. The flow's streamlines can be shown using the stream function, and the velocity can be determined.

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Related Questions

a steel container expands in volume 1% when the pressure within it is increased by 70mpa at standard presssure​

Answers

Answer:

mooji udaanaamii!!!

Explanation:

PLLLLLSSSSSSS HELPPPPPPPP!

Answers

Answer:

i'll help you but there is no question to answer??

Argue why electrode therapy is NOT the most effective treatment for brain disorders, and recommend an alternative treatment.

Answers

Answer:

Due to risk of damaging of brain.

Explanation:

The electrode therapy is not the most effective treatment for brain disorders because there are various other treatments which can treat the brain disorder without causing damage to the brain. electrode therapy greatly damaged the brain instead of treatment of brain disorder. Medication is the best way to treat brain disorder so that's why electrode therapy is not considered as the most effective treatment for brain disorders, and the doctors recommend an alternative treatment.

Briefly explain thermal expansion using the potential energy–versus–interatomic spacing curve.

Answers

As the temperature of the material increases, the potential energy of the molecules increases. Thermal expansion occurs due to changes in temperature, and interatomic distances increase as potential energy increases.

What are the uses of Thermal Expansion?

Thermal expansion is used in a variety of applications such as rail buckling, engine coolant, mercury thermometers, joint expansion, and others.

It is to be noted that an application of the concept of liquid expansion in everyday life concerns liquid thermometers. As the heat rises, the mercury or alcohol in the thermometer tube moves in only one direction. As the heat decreases, the liquid moves back smoothly.

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A large company in the communication and publishing industry has quantified the relationship between the price of one of its products and the demand for this product as PriceDemand for an annual printing of this particular product. The fixed costs per year​ (i. E. , per ​printing)​$ and the variable cost per unit​$. What is the maximum profit that can be​ achieved? What is the unit price at this point of optimal​ demand? Demand is not expected to be more than units per year

Answers

The profit will be maximized if 250 units of this particular product are sold annually, and the unit price will be $20 at that point.

The maximum profit that can be achieved is determined using the following formula:

Maximum profit = Total revenue − Total costs. A company in the communications and publishing sector has found the relationship between the price of one of its products and the demand for the product to be quantified as PriceDemand for an annual printing of this particular product. The cost per year is a fixed cost, which means that it is paid irrespective of how many products are produced, and the cost per unit is a variable cost, which means that it is paid for each product produced.To determine the maximum profit, the following formula is used:

Profit = (PriceDemand − Variable Cost) × Quantity Sold − Fixed Costs

Thus, Maximum profit = (PriceDemand − Variable Cost) × Quantity Sold − Fixed Costs

The profit-maximizing point is the one at which the derivative of the profit function is zero. As a result, Maximum profit occurs when:

PriceDemand - Variable Cost = (Fixed Costs / Quantity Sold)

By substituting the given values, the demand at which maximum profit will be obtained can be determined. The maximum demand is 250 units per year, with a unit price of $20.

To find the maximum profit, substitute the given values.Maximum profit = (20(250) − 15(250)) × 250 − 25,000 = $500,000.

When 250 units are sold, the unit price that results in the maximum profit is $20. The profit will be maximized if 250 units of this particular product are sold annually, and the unit price will be $20 at that point.

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why you so mean to me? leave my questions please. answer them

Answers

Answer: Why is even here then.

Explanation:

A project ha following time chedule: Activity Time in Week Activity Time in Week 1-2 4 5-7 8 1-3 1 6-8 1 2-4 1 7-8 2 3-4 1 8-9 1 3-5 6 8-10 8 4-9 5 9-10 7 5-6 4 Contruct the network and compute: (1) TE and TL for each event (2) Float for each activity (3) Critical path and it duration

Answers

(1) TE and TL for each event

Event 1: TE=0, TL=0

Event 2: TE=4, TL=4

Event 3: TE=1, TL=5

Event 4: TE=2, TL=6

Event 5: TE=6, TL=12

Event 6: TE=1, TL=2

Event 7: TE=8, TL=16

Event 8: TE=9, TL=17

Event 9: TE=8, TL=18

Event 10: TE=16, TL=23

(2) Float for each activity

Activity 1-2: Float=0

Activity 1-3: Float=3

Activity 2-4: Float=2

Activity 3-4: Float=1

Activity 3-5: Float=0

Activity 4-9: Float=0

Activity 5-6: Float=0

Activity 5-7: Float=0

Activity 6-8: Float=7

Activity 7-8: Float=6

Activity 8-9: Float=5

Activity 8-10: Float=0

Activity 9-10: Float=0

(3) The critical path for this project is: 3-4, 4-9, 5-7, 7-8, 8-10, 9-10, with a total duration of 23 weeks.

THE SOLUTION

To construct the network and compute the requested information, we first need to create a list of events and activities.

From the given schedule, we can identify the following events and activities:

Events:

        1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10

Activities:

1-2: 4 weeks

1-3: 1 week

2-4: 1 week

3-4: 1 week

3-5: 6 weeks

4-9: 5 weeks

5-6: 4 weeks

5-7: 8 weeks

6-8: 1 week

7-8: 2 weeks

8-9: 1 week

8-10: 8 weeks

9-10: 7 weeks

Now we can compute the TE (time when an event is expected to start) and TL (time when an event is expected to be completed) for each event, as well as the float (amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project completion) for each activity.

TE and TL for each event:

Event 1: TE=0, TL=0

Event 2: TE=4, TL=4

Event 3: TE=1, TL=5

Event 4: TE=2, TL=6

Event 5: TE=6, TL=12

Event 6: TE=1, TL=2

Event 7: TE=8, TL=16

Event 8: TE=9, TL=17

Event 9: TE=8, TL=18

Event 10: TE=16, TL=23

Float for each activity:

Activity 1-2: Float=0

Activity 1-3: Float=3

Activity 2-4: Float=2

Activity 3-4: Float=1

Activity 3-5: Float=0

Activity 4-9: Float=0

Activity 5-6: Float=0

Activity 5-7: Float=0

Activity 6-8: Float=7

Activity 7-8: Float=6

Activity 8-9: Float=5

Activity 8-10: Float=0

Activity 9-10: Float=0

The critical path is the sequence of activities that have zero float, meaning they cannot be delayed without delaying the project completion. The critical path for this project is: 3-4, 4-9, 5-7, 7-8, 8-10, 9-10, with a total duration of 23 weeks.

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Heeeelppp please um if your smart help

Heeeelppp please um if your smart help

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Answer:

ben black diyorum ve Iyi srdsler dilerim

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Question Is in the image provided

Question Is in the image provided

Answers

The two ways through which a computer model is likely to be used by an engineer in order to help refine a design are as follows:

Calculating the possible costs of building a design.Running simulations to test a problem with the design.

Thus, the correct options for this question are A and D.

What do you mean by Computer model?

A Computer model may be defined as a type of computer program that significantly runs on a computer that typically develops a model, or simulation, of a real-world feature, phenomenon, or any other event.

According to the context of this question, an engineer would try to perform the ways in order to support the refining of the design through the help of calculating the possible costs of building a design and the run simulations to test a problem with the design.

Therefore, the correct options for this question are A and D.

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42. A vehicle has sagged rear springs and reduced rear curb riding height. This problem results
in?
A. Excessive positive camber on the front wheels
B. Excessive toe-out on the front wheels
C. Excessive positive caster on the front wheels
D. Excessive toe-in on the front wheels
43. On a vehicle equipped with rear parallel leaf springs and a solid rear axle, customer is
complaining that the vehicle reacts erratically (it darts) during turns. What is the most likely
cause of this complaint?
A. Incorrect ride height
B. Incorrect driveline angle
C. Loose rear axle U-bolts
D. Missing jounce/rebound bumpers
44. A power steering pump is being tested with a pressure gauge for maximum output pressure.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The pressure gauge should be attached to the pump return port
B. The steering wheel should be held in the right lock position
C. A maximum output pressure dead heading test should last no longer than 5 seconds
D. One should check output pressure with engine speed above 4000rpm​

Answers

Answer:1. Driving under the influence of any drug that makes you drive unsafely is:

a. Permitted if it is prescribed by a doctor

b. Against the law

c. Permitted if it is a diet pill or cold medicine

2. Which fires can you put out with water:

a. Tire fires

b. Gasoline fires

c. Electrical fires

3. How far should a driver look ahead of the vehicle while driving:

a. 9-12 seconds

b. 12-15 seconds

c. 18-21 seconds

4. To prevent shifting, there should be at least one tie-down for ever ____feet of cargo: a. 10

b. 15 c. 18

5. Which of these statements about downshifting is true:

a. When you downshift for a curve, you should do so before you enter the curve

b. When you downshift for a hill, you should do so after you start down the hill

c. When you downshift for a curve, you should do so after you enter the curve

6. How do you test hydraulic brakes for a leak:

a. Move the vehicle slowly and see if it stops when the brake is applied

b. With the vehicle stopped, pump the pedal three time, apply pressure then hold

For five seconds and see it the pedal moves.

c. Step on the brake pedal and accelerator at the same time and see if the vehicle moves

7. For an average driver, driving 55 MPH on dry pavement, it will take about _____ to bring The vehicle to a stop:

a. Twice the length of the vehicle

b. Half the length of a football field

c. The length of a football field

8. You are driving a vehicle with a light load, traffic is moving at 35 MPH in a 55 MPH zone. The safest speed for your vehicle in this situation is most likely:

a. 30 MPH

b. 35 MPH

c. 40 MPH

9. Which of these is a good rule to follow when driving at night:

a. Keep your speed slow enough to stop within the range of your headlights

b. Look directly at oncoming headlights

c. Keep your instrument lights bright

 

10. A moving vehicle ahead of you has a red triangle with an orange center on the rear. What does this mean?

a. The vehicle is hauling hazardous materials

b. It may be a slow-moving vehicle

c. It may be oversized

11. You wish to turn right form a two lane two way street to make the turn. Which of these Drawings show how the turn should be made.

12. You are driving a heavy vehicle and must exit a highway using an offramp that curves downhill:

a. Use the posted speed limit for the offramp

b. Slow down to a safe speed before the turn

c. Wait until you are in the turn before downshifting

13. Which of these statements about using mirrors is true:

a. You should look at a mirror for several seconds at a time

b. There are “blind spots” that your mirror cannot show you

c. A lane change requires you to look at the mirrors twice

14. You must park on the side of a level, straight, two-lane road. Where should you place the three reflective triangles?

a. one within 10 feet of the rear of the vehicle, one about 100 feet to the rear and one about 200 feet to the rear.

b. One with 10 feet of the rear of the vehicle, one about 100 feet to the rear and one about 100 feet from the front of the vehicle

c. One about 50 feet from the rear of the vehicle, one about 100 feet to the rear and one about 100 feet from the front of the vehicle

15. Your vehicle is in a traffic emergency and may collide with another vehicle if you do not take action. Which of these is a good rule to remember at such a time?

a. Stopping is always the safest action in a traffic emergency

b. Heavy vehicles can almost always turn more quickly than they can stop

c. Leaving the road is always more risky than hitting another vehicle

16. The most important reason for being alert to hazards is:

a. Law enforcement personnel can be called

b. You will have time to plan your escape if the hazard becomes an emergency

c. You can help impaired drivers

17. You are traveling down a long, steep hill. Your brakes begin to fade and then fail. What should you do?

a. Downshift

b. Pump the brake pedal

c. Look for an escape ramp or escape route

18. The most common cause of serious vehicle skids is:

a. Driving too fast for road conditions

b. Poorly adjusted brakes

c. Bad tires

19. To avoid a crash, you had to drive onto the right shoulder. You are now driving at 40 MPH on the shoulder. How should you move back onto the pavement?

a. If clear, come to a complete stop before steering back onto the pavement

b. Brake had to slow the vehicle, then steer sharply onto the pavement

c. Keep moving at the present speed and steer very gently back onto the pavement

20. If

a. Slide sideways and spin out

b. Go straight ahead but will turn if you turn the steering wheel

c. Go straight ahead even if the steering wheel is turned

1) I love to swim. 2) A few years ago, my new year's resolution was to become a faster swimmer. 3) First, I started eating better to improve my overall health. 4) Then, I created a training program and started swimming five days a week. 5) I went to the pool at my local gym. 6) To measure my improvement, I tried to count my laps as I was swimming, but I always got distracted and lost track! 7) It made it very hard for me to know if I was getting faster. 8) This is a common experience for swimmers everywhere. 9) We need a wearable device to count laps, calories burned, and other real-time data. Summarey of the story

Answers

Do you think you could help me on my latest question

A 75-hp motor that has an efficiency of 91.0% is worn-out and is replaced by a motor that has a high efficiency 75-hp motor that has an efficiency of 95.4%. Determine the reduction in heat gain in the room due to higher efficiency under full-load conditions (load factor

Answers

Answer:

the reduction in the heat gain is 2.8358 kW

Given that;

Shaft outpower of a motor  = 75 hp = ( 75 × 746 ) = 55950 W

Efficiency of motor  = 91.0% = 0.91

High Efficiency of the motor  = 95.4% = 0.954

now, we know that, efficiency of motor is defined as;  =  /

where   is the electric input given to the motor

so

=  /

we substitute

= 55950 W / 0.91

= 61483.5 W

= 61.4835 kW

now, the electric input given to the motor due to increased efficiency will be;

=  /

we substitute

= 55950 W / 0.954

= 58647.79 W

= 58.6477 kW

so the reduction of the heat gain of the room due to higher efficiency will be;

Q =  -

we substitute

Q = 61.4835 kW - 58.6477 kW

Q = 2.8358 kW

Therefore, the reduction in the heat gain is 2.8358 kW

Explanation:  i hope this answer your question if this is wrong or correct please let me know.also no trying to be rude but can you sent me like a thanks?

what is the rts/cts protocol designed to reduce or prevent?
a. negative acknowledgements
b. CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) errors
c. collisions
d. handshakes

Answers

The RTS/CTS (Request-to-Send/Clear-to-Send) protocol is designed to prevent collisions in wireless communication. Collisions occur when two or more devices try to transmit data at the same time, resulting in data corruption or loss.

The RTS/CTS protocol is used to avoid collisions by allowing a device to check if the wireless medium is free before transmitting. When a device wants to transmit data, it sends an RTS frame to the receiving device, requesting permission to transmit. The receiving device then responds with a CTS frame, indicating that it is ready to receive the data. This process ensures that only one device transmits at a time, preventing collisions and improving the overall efficiency of the wireless network.

While the RTS/CTS protocol does involve handshakes between devices, it is primarily designed to prevent collisions rather than improve handshaking. It also does not directly address negative acknowledgements or CRC errors. Instead, it focuses on avoiding collisions, which can be a significant issue in wireless networks with multiple devices competing for the same channel. By implementing the RTS/CTS protocol, wireless networks can reduce collisions, improve data transmission rates, and minimize the potential for data loss or corruption.

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Q1: Obtain the equivalent capacitance for the circuit of figure below between 1. Terminal a-c; 2. Terminal b-c; 3. Terminal c-d; a 4µF HH b [μF 2μF 3µF 6µF C 12μF HH d 8μF​

Q1: Obtain the equivalent capacitance for the circuit of figure below between 1. Terminal a-c; 2. Terminal

Answers

1. The equivalent capacitance between terminals a-c is 2.4 μF

2. The equivalent capacitance between terminals b-c is 6μF

3. The equivalent capacitance between terminals c-d is 12 μF

What is a capacitance?

Capacitance is the ability for a device to store charge

1. How to find the equivalent capacitance betwee terminals a-c?

Given that the capacitance bewteen terminals a-c = a-b + b-c

Now, the capacitance between terminals b-c are in parallel.

So, for capacitances in parallel, we add their capacitances to get the equvalent capacitance.

So, the equivalent capapcitance between b-c is C = 1 μF + 2μF + 3µF = 6μF

Now C is in series with the capapcitance between terminals a-b.

Since they are in series, their equivalent capapcitance C' is

1/C' = 1/4μF + 1/C

= 1/4μF + 1/6μF

= (3 + 2)/12 μF

1/C' = 5/12 μF

C' = 12/5 μF

= 2.4 μF

So, the equivalent capacitance between terminals a-c is 2.4 μF

2. How to find the equivalent capacitance betwee terminals b-c?

To find the equivalent capacitance between terminals b-c, we see that the capacitance between terminals b-c are in parallel.

So, for capacitances in parallel, we add their capacitances to get the equvalent capacitance.

So, the equivalent capapcitance between b-c is C = 1 μF + 2μF + 3µF = 6μF

So, the equivalent capacitance between terminals b-c is 6μF

3. How to find the equivalent capacitance betwee terminals c-d?

Since there is only one capacitor between terminals c-d, the equivalent capacitance is equal to the value of that capacitor which is 12 μF

So, the equivalent capacitance between terminals c-d is 12 μF

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which type of furnace can operate to produce either full heat output or produce at a fixed level that is less than full heat?

Answers

A two-stage furnace can run at a predetermined output level that is either less than full heat or at maximum heat output.

What kinds of furnaces have AFUE ratings over 90% and are considered high efficiency?

Condensing furnaces are those that run with an AFUE of greater than 90%. This indicates that the furnace turns escaping water vapour back into energy and heat by condensing them. The furnace is therefore more effective than a noncondensing furnace.

What two factors affect the efficiency of a furnace and a boiler?

The ability of a burner to burn fuel is indicated by the boiler's combustion efficiency. The amount of unburned fuel in the exhaust and the amount of extra oxygen in the exhaust are the two factors that influence the burner efficiency.

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A motor takes 38 amperes on a 220-volt circuit. Find the horsepower output (hp) of the motor shown with an efficiency of 90%. Express the answer to the nearest hundredth.

Answers

This question involves the concepts of power and current.

The power output of the motor is "10.08 hp".

Power Output

The power output of the motor can be found using the following formula:

P = ηVI

where,

P = Power = ?η = efficiency = 90 % = 0.9I = current = 38 AV = potential difference = 220 V

Therefore,

P = (0.9)(38 A)(220 V)

P = 7524 watt

converting this to horsepower:

P = (7524 watt)(\(\frac{1\ hp}{746\ watt}\))

P = 10.08 hp

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Find the equation of the output voltage as a function of time assuming the switch closes at t = 0 and the capacitor is fully discharged for t < 0.

Answers

Answer: Hello your question is incomplete attached below is the complete question

answer : V(out) (t) = 1 - e^-100t

Explanation:

The equation of the output voltage as a function of time assuming at t = 0 switch closes and capacitor will be discharged when t < 0

V(out) (t) = 1 - e^-100t

attached below is the step by step explanation  

Find the equation of the output voltage as a function of time assuming the switch closes at t = 0 and
Find the equation of the output voltage as a function of time assuming the switch closes at t = 0 and

for other than one-and two-family dwellings, when building a new electrical service, at least one (1) 125-volt, single-phase, 15- or 20-amp-rated receptacle outlet shall be located within at least of the electrical service equipment?

Answers

At least one 125-volt, single-phase, 15- or 20-amp-rated receptacle outlet shall be located within at least of the electrical service equipment in buildings other than one-and two-family dwellings.

When building a new electrical service in buildings other than one-and two-family dwellings, it is required to have a receptacle outlet within close proximity to the electrical service equipment. This receptacle outlet should be rated at 125 volts and operate on a single-phase system with a current rating of either 15 or 20 amps.

The purpose of this requirement is to ensure accessibility and convenience for electrical maintenance and troubleshooting purposes. By having a receptacle outlet near the electrical service equipment, electricians and technicians can easily connect their tools and equipment, facilitating their work.

Additionally, this receptacle outlet can serve as a power source for temporary equipment or devices that may be needed during construction or maintenance activities. It provides a convenient and safe way to access electrical power directly from the electrical service equipment.

Overall, the inclusion of a 125-volt, single-phase, 15- or 20-amp-rated receptacle outlet within close proximity to the electrical service equipment in non-residential buildings ensures ease of access, convenience, and safety for electrical maintenance and temporary power needs.

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The component has an exponentially distributed reliability with a mean of 2000 hours what is the probability that it will fail after 3000 hours?

Answers

Answer:

ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ

Consider the flow of mercury (a liquid metal) in a tube. How will the hydrodynamic and thermal entry lengths compare if the flow is laminar

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Considering the flow of mercury in a tube:

When it comes to laminar flow of mercury, the thermal entry length is quite smaller than the hydrodynamic entry length.

Also, the hydrodynamic and thermal entry lengths which is given as DLhRe05.0= for the case of laminar flow. It should be noted however, that Pr << 1 for liquid metals, and thus making the thermal entry length is smaller than the hydrodynamic entry length in laminar flow, like I'd stated in the previous paragraph

what is in gorilla glue

Answers

Answer:

glue

Explanation:

A box contains ten cards labeled Q, R, s, I, U, v, w, x, y, and z. One card will be
randomly chosen.
What is the probability of choosing a letter from U to Z?
Write your answer as a fraction in simplest form. ??

Answers

Answer: 3/5

Explanation:

The probability of an event is

(number of ways an event can happen)/(number of ways anything can happen)

There are 6 ways to choose a card from U to Z. You can draw U,V,W,X,Y, or Z.

There are 10 total cards. So, the probability is 6/10=3/5.

What is the basic requirement of measurements?

Answers

The basic requirement of measurements is to have a standard or reference point against which to compare the quantity being measured. This standard or reference point should be well-defined and stable, and the measurement process should be repeatable and consistent. Additionally, it is important to ensure that the measurement equipment is calibrated and in good working condition.

Answer:

The most basic requirement for measurements is the presence of a standard or reference point against which the quantity being measured can be compared. The measurement process should be repeatable and consistent, and the standard or reference point should be well-defined and stable. Furthermore, ensure that the measurement equipment is calibrated and in good working order.

Explanation:

In preparing a network diagram, drawing activities in a is not acceptable because it portrays a path of activities that perpetually repeats itself. a. loop c. list b. ladder d. link

Answers

A line that has been bent or doubled so that it creates a closed or partially open curve inside itself through which another line can be passed or into which a hook can be hooked.

How many different loop types are there in Python?

Python offers the following loops to meet your looping requirements. Python provides three options for how to execute the loops. Although the syntax and the amount of time needed to check the condition vary, all of the strategies have the same basic functionality.

Why are loop activities not permitted in a diagram?

To maintain a high level of quality, we examine their content and incorporate your suggestions. A Drawing activities in a loop when creating a network diagram is not recommended.

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tech a says that rod bearings are held in place by the torque of the rod bolts crushing the bearing into the big end of the rod bore. tech b says that one of the connecting rod bearings act as a thrust bearing for the engine. who is correct?

Answers

There may be a thrust bearing on either side of the engine.

In a crankshaft, rod bearings are the bearings that allow the connection rod to rotate on the crankshaft. Tech A and Tech B both provided information regarding the same topic. Tech A says that rod bearings are held in place by the torque of the rod bolts crushing the bearing into the big end of the rod bore. Tech B says that one of the connecting rod bearings acts as a thrust bearing for the engine. Let's discuss each one in brief:Tech A is correct: The correct answer is Tech A, as Rod bearings are held in place by the torque of the rod bolts crushing the bearing into the big end of the rod bore. The big end of the connecting rod has a machined half-moon-shaped hole in it, which is where the bearing shells are mounted. As torque is applied to the rod bolts, the conrod is pulled tight against the crankshaft, crushing the bearing shells between the rod and the crankshaft.Tech B is not completely accurate: Though it is true that some connecting rod bearings serve as thrust bearings, it is not entirely accurate. The thrust bearing is generally located between the front of the engine block and the rear of the crankshaft, and its purpose is to resist forward and backward crankshaft movement due to combustion pressures.

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A wastewater treatment plant discharges 2.0 m^3/s of effluent having an ultimate BOD of 40.0 mg/L into a stream flowing at 15.0 m^3/s. Just upstream from the discharge point, the stream has an ultimate BOD of 3.5 mg/L. The deoxygenation constant kd is estimated at 0.22/day.

a. Assuming complete and instantaneous mixing, find the ultimate BOD of the mixture of wastewater and river just downstream from the outfall.
b. Assuming a constant cross sectional area for the stream equal to 55 m^2 , what ultimate BOD would you expect to find at a point 10,000 m downstream?

Answers

Answer:

What grade is this is for??

Bob would like to run his house off the grid, therefore he needs to find out how many solar panels and batteries he needs to buy.

The power output of a 250 W solar panel is p=250−10(t−5)2 watts for the average 10 hour day. He plans on using 12 V, 120 A⋅h batteries and would like to able to store 3 days worth of energy. Bob's house uses 1100 kW⋅h per month (30 days).

Answers

Answer:

stink

Explanation:

Fill in the tables and find the equivalent resistance for the following circuits:

Fill in the tables and find the equivalent resistance for the following circuits:

Answers

Answer:

12 32

Explanation:

A crane is set up for steel erection at the site of a 5 story office building where each story is 15 feet tall. The new building will be 50 feet wide and 75 feet long and the crane is located 5 feet off the southwesterly corner of the building. Assuming that you need a 10 foot boom clearance over the last piece of steel.

Required:
Compute the minimum boom length

Answers

Answer:

127.58 ft

Explanation:

We need first to calculate the length from corner to corner of the story, L.

Since the length of each floor is 75 ft and its width 50 ft, and since each floor is a rectangle with diagonal, L, using Pythagoras' theorem, we have

L² = (75 ft)² + (50 ft)²

= 5625 ft² + 2500 ft²

L² = 8125 ft²

L = √(8125 ft²)

L = 90.14 ft

Since the crane is 5 ft off the southwesterly corner of the building, the working radius, R = L + 5 ft = 90.14 ft + 5 ft = 95.14 ft.(since the diagonal length of the floor plus the distance of the crane from the south westerly corner add to give the working radius)

The boom tip height, H = height of building h + clearance of boom, h'

h = height of each story, h" × number of stories, n

Since h" = 15 ft and n = 5

h = 15 ft × 5 = 75 ft

Also, h' = 10 ft

So, H = h + h'

H = 75 ft + 10 ft

H = 85 ft

So, the minimum boom length, L' = √(H² + R²)

substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

L' = √(H² + R²)

L' = √((85 ft)² + (95.14 ft)²)

L' = √(7225 ft² + 9051.6196 ft²)

L' = √(16276.6196 ft²)

L' = 127.58 ft

Undisturbed soil sample was collected from the field in steel Shelby tubes for laboratory evaluation. The tube sample has a diameter of 70 mm, length of 550 mm, and a moist weight of 0.0452 N. If the oven-dried weight was 0.0385 N and Gs=2.70, calculate the following: i. Moist unit weight ii. Field moisture content iii. Dry unit weight iv. Void ratio v. Degree of saturation

Answers

The moist unit weight of soil is 17.80 kN/m3, the field moisture content is 17.38%, the dry unit weight of soil is 15.21 kN/m3, the void ratio is 0.169, and the degree of saturation is 61.40%.

When an undisturbed soil sample is collected from a field in steel Shelby tubes for laboratory evaluation, various parameters of the soil sample can be evaluated. The sample under consideration has a diameter of 70 mm, length of 550 mm, and a moist weight of 0.0452 N.

The formula to calculate the moist unit weight of soil is given as:

\(γ\)= (Weight of soil + Weight of water) / Volume

= (0.0452 N) / \((π/4\)× 70^2 × 550)

= 17.80 kN/m3

Field moisture content The field moisture content (w) is the ratio of the weight of water in the soil to the weight of dry soil. It is represented as a percentage.

It is represented by γd. The formula to calculate the dry unit weight of soil is given as:

\(γd\) = Weight of solids / Volume

= 0.0385 N / (π/4 × 70^2 × 550)

= 15.21 kN/m3Void ratio

The formula to calculate the void ratio of soil is given as:

e = Volume of voids / Volume of solids

=\((γ - γd) / γd\)

= (17.80 - 15.21) / 15.21

= 0.169

Degree of saturationThe degree of saturation (S) of soil is the ratio of the volume of water in the soil to the volume of voids.

It is represented as a fraction or a percentage. The formula to calculate the degree of saturation of soil is given as:

S = Volume of water / Volume of voids

= w / (e / (1 + e))

= 17.38 / (0.169 / (1 + 0.169))

= 61.40 %

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